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• Subselecting with MDX

  - by Vince

  Greetings stack overflow community. I've recently started building an OLAP cube in SSAS2008 and have gotten stuck. I would be grateful if someone could at least point me towards the right direction. Situation: Two fact tables, same cube. FactCalls holds information about calls made by subscribers, FactTopups holds topup data. Both tables have numerous common dimensions one of them being the Subscriber dimension. FactCalls             FactTopups SubscriberKey      SubscriberKey CallDuration         DateKey CallCost               Topup Value ... What I am trying to achieve is to be able to build FactCalls reports based on distinct subscribers that have topped up their accounts within the last 7 days. What I am basically looking for an MDX equivalent to SQL's: select * from FactCalls where SubscriberKey in ( select distinct SubscriberKey from FactTopups where ... ); I've tried creating a degenerate dimension for both tables containing SubscriberKey and doing: Exist( [Calls Degenerate].[Subscriber Key].Children, [Topups Degenerate].[Subscriber Key].Children ) Without success. Kind regards, Vince

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• What programming languages do the top tier Universities teach?

  - by Simucal

  I'm constantly being inundated with articles and people talking about how most of today's Universities are nothing more than Java vocational schools churning out mediocre programmer after mediocre programmer. Our very own Joel Spolsky has his famous article, "The Perils of Java Schools." Similarly, Alan Kay, a famous Computer Scientist (and SO member) has said this in the past: "I fear — as far as I can tell — that most undergraduate degrees in computer science these days are basically Java vocational training." - Alan Kay (link) If the languages being taught by the schools are considered such a contributing factor to the quality of the school's program then I'm curious what languages do the "top-tier" computer science schools teach (MIT, Carnegie Mellon, Stanford, etc)? If the average school is performing so poorly due in large part the languages (or lack of) that they teach then what languages do the supposed "good" cs programs teach that differentiate them? If you can, provide the name of the school you attended, followed by a list of the languages they use throughout their coursework. Edit: Shog-9 asks why I don't get this information directly from the schools websites themselves. I would, but many schools websites don't discuss the languages they use in their class descriptions. Quite a few will say, "using high-level languages we will...", without elaborating on which languages they use. So, we should be able to get a pretty accurate list of languages taught at various well known institutions from the various SO members who have attended at them.

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• Getting Visual Studio macros in console app

  - by Paul Steckler

  In a Visual Studio extension, you can get the default include paths for all projects with C# code like: String dirs = dte2.get_Properties("Projects", "VCDirectories"); where dte2 is the Visual Studio application object. Usually, those directories contain macros like $(INCLUDE). You can expand those macros by looking at dte2.Solution.Projects, finding the relevant project in that collection; from the project, look at project.Configurations, find the relevant configuration, and call its Evaluate method. In VS2005/VS2008, there's a .vssettings file that contains the VCDirectories. In VS2010, there's a property sheet with the same information. A console application can just parse those files -- great. But how can you expand the macros? As a first step, I tried instantiating a VCProjectEngine object in a console app, but that just resulted in a COM failure. So I don't know how to instantiate a VCProject object in order to follow the same strategy I used in a VS extension. Where are the macro bindings stored?

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• Asp.net Login Status Question: It Aint Working

  - by contactmatt

  I'm starting to use Role Management in my website, and I'm current following along on the tutorial from http://www.asp.net/Learn/Security/tutorial-02-vb.aspx . I'm having a problem with the asp:LoginStatus control. It is not telling me that I am currently logged in after a successful login. This can't be true because after successfully logging in, my LoggedInTemplate is shown. The username and passwords are simply stored in a array. Heres the Login.aspx page code. Protected Sub btnLogin_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btnLogin.Click ' Three valid username/password pairs: Scott/password, Jisun/password, and Sam/password. Dim users() As String = {"Scott", "Jisun", "Sam"} Dim passwords() As String = {"password", "password", "password"} For i As Integer = 0 To users.Length - 1 Dim validUsername As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtUserName.Text, users(i), True) = 0) Dim validPassword As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtPassword.Text, passwords(i), False) = 0) If validUsername AndAlso validPassword Then FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(txtUserName.Text, chkRemember.Checked) End If Next ' If we reach here, the user's credentials were invalid lblInvalid.Visible = True End Sub Here is the content place holder on the master page specifically designed to hold Login Information. On successfull login, the page is redirected to '/Default.aspx', and the LoggedIn Template below is shown...but the status says Log In. <asp:ContentPlaceHolder Id="LoginContent" runat="server"> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <LoggedInTemplate> Welcome back, <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" />. </LoggedInTemplate> <AnonymousTemplate> Hello, stranger. </AnonymousTemplate> </asp:LoginView> <br /> <asp:LoginStatus ID="LoginStatus1" runat="server" LogoutAction="Redirect" LogoutPageUrl="~/Logout.aspx" /> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> Forms authentication is enabled. I'm not sure what to do about this :o.

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• Spring - SessionAttribute problem

  - by Max

  Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

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• Validation in n-tier asp.net mvc applications

  - by sTodorov

  Dear Stack Overflow gurus, I am looking for some practical/theoretical information regarding best practices for validation in asp.net mvc n-tier applications. I am working on a .Net application divided into the following layers: UI - Mvc3 BLL layer - all business rules. Decoupled from data access and UI layers through interfaces DAL layer - Data access with the repository pattern, EF4 and pocos Now, I am looking for a nice, clean and transparent way to specify my validation rules. Here are some thoughts on the matter so far: UI validation should only be responsible for user input and its validity. BLL validation should be handling the validity of the data regarding the application business rules. My main concern is how to bind the BLL and UI validation in the most efficient way. One think I am would like to avoid is having the UI check in a collection of validation and adding manually errors to the ModelState. Furthermore, I do not want to pass the ModelState to the BLL to be populated in there. I will appreciate any thoughts on the matter. P.S. Should this question be marked as a discussion ?

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• How to compile Python scripts for use in FORTRAN?

  - by Vincent Poirier

  Hello, Although I found many answers and discussions about this question, I am unable to find a solution particular to my situation. Here it is: I have a main program written in FORTRAN. I have been given a set of python scripts that are very useful. My goal is to access these python scripts from my main FORTRAN program. Currently, I simply call the scripts from FORTRAN as such: CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py') Data is read from .dat files and written to .dat files. This is how the python scripts and the main FORTRAN program communicate to each other. I am currently running my code on my local machine. I have python installed with numpy, scipy, etc. My problem: The code needs to run on a remote server. For strictly FORTRAN code, I compile the code locally and send the executable to the server where it waits in a queue. However, the server does not have python installed. The server is being used as a number crunching station between universities and industry. Installing python along with the necessary modules on the server is not an option. This means that my “CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py')” strategy no longer works. Solution?: I found some information on a couple of things in thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138521/is-it-feasible-to-compile-python-to-machine-code Shedskin, Psyco, Cython, Pypy, Cpython API These “modules”(? Not sure if that's what to call them) seem to compile python script to C code or C++. Apparently not all python features can be translated to C. As well, some of these appear to be experimental. Is it possible to compile my python scripts with my FORTRAN code? There exists f2py which converts FORTRAN code to python, but it doesn't work the other way around. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you for your time. Vincent PS: I'm using python 2.6 on Ubuntu

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• MonoDevelop 2.8.2: Build failed. Illegal characters in path

  - by user1056607

  I have just installed MonoDevelop 2.8.2. After opening a new solution named test I attempted to run the project. I push f5 and all I see is a "Build failed. Illegal characters in path" error in the bottom left. I open up the Error List and see no errors. I have done some searching and only find solutions pertaining to projects that are beyond the scope of just the pre-generated code. This is the code: using System; namespace Test { class MainClass { public static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello World!"); } } } I have tried to uninstall/reinstall, cut out any spaces in the path to the program or the solution, and even opened VS2010 and just copy pasted that code over. I've looked over my options under tools, solution options under project, and the project's options. I am running MD 2.8.2 with GTK# and Microsoft's .NET runtime. Let me know if you need anymore information. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you for your time!

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• log4net from embedded xml?

  - by sanjeev40084

  i have two projects in visual studio. One is the console project while other is regular c# project. In the regular c# project, i have added config file(i.e. Test.config) with log4net section. This file is embedded. <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="fileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="log//testapp.log" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="100MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout,log4net"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%d{ISO8601} [%t] [%-5p] %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> <!-- Setup the root category, add the appenders and set the default priority --> <root> <priority value="ALL" /> <appender-ref ref="fileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> Now in my console project, i want to tell my log4net to load log4net information from (Test.config) which is in another project. This is what i did in the constructor of console project: Assembly asm = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); Stream xmlStream = asm.GetManifestResourceStream("Northwind.Participant.Config.Test.config"); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(ConsoleStart)); 'Northwind.Participant is full namespace. Config - folder where Test.config file is situated. Does anyone know how i can do that?

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• Accessing frame info in gdb

  - by Maelstrom

  In gdb, is there a way to access the contents of info frame in a script? I'm debugging a problem somewhere between Apache, PHP, APC and my own code, and I have about a hundred cores to choose from. Following the instructions here http://bugs.php.net/bugs-generating-backtrace.php I end up with a stacktrace like: #0 0x0121a31a in do_bind_function (opline=0xa94dd750, function_table=0x9b9cf98, compile_time=0 '\0') at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_compile.c:2407 #1 0x0124bb2e in ZEND_DECLARE_FUNCTION_SPEC_HANDLER (execute_data=0xbfef7990) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:498 #2 0x01249dfa in execute (op_array=0xb79d5d3c) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:92 #3 0x01261e31 in ZEND_INCLUDE_OR_EVAL_SPEC_VAR_HANDLER (execute_data=0xbfef80d0) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:7809 #4 0x01249dfa in execute (op_array=0xb79d55ec) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:92 ... #26 0x09caa894 in ?? () #27 0x00000000 in ?? () The stack will always look similar, with function execute and ZEND_something interleaved several times. I need to go up to the last instance of execute (up 2 in this case) and print myVar. Obviously gdb knows the function names, but does it surface them in any user variables I could access? Typing frame 2 shows a one-line version, and info frame shows a single stackframe in detail. I want to do something like while ($current_frame.function_name != "execute") {up;} print myVar but I don't see how to do it strictly within gdb. Is there a variable / structure / special memory location / something that allows access to gdb's information on either the whole stack (like bt) or to the current stack frame (like info frame)?

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• Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

  - by Chris

  Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

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• How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

  - by Wayne Russell

  Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

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• Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

  - by user169867

  I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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• How can I load file into web app through certain periods?

  - by Elena

  Hi all! I have next task: I need to load the same file into my web app several times, for example - twice a day! Suppose in that file I have information, that changes, and I need to load this info into my app to change the statistics for example. How can I load file several times (twice an hour, or twice a day)? What should I use? Is any algorithm to do that? I am not allowed to use external libraries like Quartz Scheduler. So I need to do it with Thread and/or Timer. Can anybody give me some example or algorithm how to do it. Where can I create the entry point to my Thread, can I do it in managed bean or I need some sort of filter/listener/servlet. I works with jsf and richFaces. Maybe in this technologies there are some algorithms to solve my problem. Any ideas? Thanks very much for help!

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• Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

  - by Rob

  Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

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• Django deployment - can't import app.urls

  - by hora

  I just moved a django project to a deployment server from my dev server, and I'm having some issues deploying it. My apache config is as follows: <Location "/"> Order allow,deny Allow from all SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE project.settings PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/home/django/'] + sys.path" </Location> Django does work, since it renders the Django debug views, but I get the following error: ImportError at / No module named app.urls And here is all the information Django gives me: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://myserver.com/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.6.5 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'django.contrib.admindocs', 'project.app'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware') Traceback: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 83. request.path_info) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 218. sub_match = pattern.resolve(new_path) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 216. for pattern in self.url_patterns: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_url_patterns 245. patterns = getattr(self.urlconf_module, "urlpatterns", self.urlconf_module) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_urlconf_module 240. self._urlconf_module = import_module(self.urlconf_name) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/utils/importlib.py" in import_module 35. __import__(name) Exception Type: ImportError at / Exception Value: No module named app.urls Any ideas as to why I get an import error?

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• MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

  - by Daniel Straight

  Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

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• How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

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• Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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• Automate the signature of the update.rdf manifest for my firefox extension

  - by streetpc

  Hello, I'm developing a firefox extension and I'd like to provide automatic update to my beta-testers (who are not tech-savvy). Unfortunately, the update server doesn't provide HTTPS. According to the Extension Developer Guide on signing updates, I have to sign my update.rdf and provide an encoded public key in the install.rdf. There is the McCoy tool to do all of this, but it is an interactive GUI tool and I'd like to automate the extension packaging using an Ant script (as this is part of a much bigger process). I can't find a more precise description of what's happening to sign the update.rdf manifest than below, and McCoy source is an awful lot of javascript. The doc says: The add-on author creates a public/private RSA cryptographic key pair. The public part of the key is DER encoded and then base 64 encoded and added to the add-on's install.rdf as an updateKey entry. (...) Roughly speaking the update information is converted to a string, then hashed using a sha512 hashing algorithm and this hash is signed using the private key. The resultant data is DER encoded then base 64 encoded for inclusion in the update.rdf as an signature entry. I don't know well about DER encoding, but it seems like it needs some parameters. So would anyone know either the full algortihm to sign the update.rdf and install.rdf using a predefined keypair, or a scriptable alternative to McCoy whether a command-line tool like asn1coding will suffise a good/simple developer tutorial on DER encoding

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• What is the PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR parameter in SetPixelFormat() used for?

  - by Mads Elvheim

  Usually when setting up OpenGL contexts, I've simply filled out a PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR structure with the necessary information and called ChoosePixelFormat(), followed by a call to SetPixelFormat() with the returned matching pixelformat from ChoosePixelFormat(). Then I've simply passed the initial descriptor without giving much thought of why. But now I use wglChoosePixelFormatARB() instead if ChoosePixelFormat() because I need some extended traits like sRGB and multisampling. It takes an attribute list of integers, just like XLib/GLX on Linux, not a PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR structure. So, do I really have to fill in a descriptor for SetPixelFormat() to use? What does SetPixelFormat() use the descriptor for when it already has the pixelformat descriptor index? Why do I have to specify the same pixelformat attributes in two different places? And which one takes precedence; the attribute list to wglChoosePixelFormatARB(), or the PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR attributes passed to SetPixelFormat()? Here are the function prototypes, to make the question more clear: /* Finds a best match based on a PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR, and returns the pixelformat index */ int ChoosePixelFormat(HDC hdc, const PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR *ppfd); /* Finds a best match based on an attribute list of integers and floats, and returns a list of indices of matches, with the best matches at the head. Also supports extended pixelformat traits like sRGB color space, floating-point framebuffers and multisampling. */ BOOL wglChoosePixelFormatARB(HDC hdc, const int *piAttribIList, const FLOAT *pfAttribFList, UINT nMaxFormats, int *piFormats, UINT *nNumFormats ); /* Sets the pixelformat based on the pixelformat index */ BOOL SetPixelFormat(HDC hdc, int iPixelFormat, const PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR *ppfd);

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• Persisting Joda DateTime instead of Java Date in hibernate

  - by Tauren

  My entities currently contain java Date properties. I'm starting to use Joda Time for date manipulation and calculations quite frequently. This means that I'm constantly having to convert my Dates into Joda DateTime objects and back again. So I was wondering, is there any reason I shouldn't just change my entities to store Joda DateTime objects instead of Java Date objects? Please note that these entities are persisted via Hibernate. I found the jodatime-hibernate project, but I also was reading on the Joda mailing list that it wasn't compatible with newer versions of hibernate. And it seems like it isn't very well maintained. So I'm wondering if it would be best to just continue converting between Date and DateTime, or if it would be wise to start persisting DateTime objects. My concern is being reliant on a poorly maintained library. Edit: Note that one of my objectives is to be better able to store timezone information. Storing just a Date appears to save the date in the local timezone. As my application can be used globally, I need to know the timezone as well. Joda Time Hibernate seems to address this as well in the user guide.

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• Good resources for building web-app in Tapestry

  - by Rich

  Hi, I'm currently researching into Tapestry for my company and trying to decide if I think we can port our pre-existing proprietary web applications to something better. Currently we are running Tomcat and using JSP for our front end backed by our own framework that eventually uses JDBC to connect to an Oracle database. I've gone through the Tapestry tutorial, which was really neat and got me interested, but now I'm faced with what seems to be a common issue of documentation. There are a lot of things I'd need to be sure that I could accomplish with Tapestry before I'd be ready to commit fully to it. Does anyone have any good resources, be it a book or web article or anything else, that go into more detail beyond what the Tapestry tutorial explains? I am also considering integrating with Hibernate, and have read a little bit about Spring too. I'm still having a hard time understanding how Spring would be more useful than cumbersome in tandem with Tapestry,as they seem to have a lot of overlapping features. An example I read seemed to use Spring to interface with Hibernate, and then Tapestry to Spring, but I was under the impression Tapestry integrates to the same degree with Hibernate. The resource I'm speaking of is http://wiki.apache.org/tapestry/Tapstry5First_project_with_Tapestry5,_Spring_and_Hibernate . I was interested because I hadn't found information anywhere else on how to maintain user levels and sessions through a Tapestry application before, but wasn't exactly impressed by the need to use Spring in the example.

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• Processing a log to fix a malformed IP address ?.?.?.x

  - by skymook

  I would like to replace the first character 'x' with the number '7' on every line of a log file using a shell script. Example of the log file: 216.129.119.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.x [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... My humble beginnings... #!/bin/bash echo Starting script... cd /Users/me/logs/ gzip -d /Users/me/logs/access.log.gz echo Files unzipped... echo I'm totally lost here to process the log file and save it back to hd... exit 0 Why is the log file IP malformed like this? My web provider (1and1) has decide not to store IP address, so they have replaced the last number with the character 'x'. They told me it was a new requirement by 'law'. I personally think that is bs, but that would take us off topic. I want to process these log files with AWstats, so I need an IP address that is not malformed. I want to replace the x with a 7, like so: 216.129.119.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... Not perfect I know, but least I can process the files, and I can still gain a lot of useful information like country, number of visitors, etc. The log files are 200MB each, so I thought that a shell script is the way to go because I can do that rapidly on my Macbook Pro locally. Unfortunately, I know very little about shell scripting, and my javascript skills are not going to cut it this time. I appreciate your help.

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• asp.Net 2005 "Could not load type"

  - by Melody Friedenthal

  Although I have seen dozens of forum questions relating to "Could not load type", none of the advice in them seemed to apply to my situation. I wrote a new web application using aspx.net VB 2005. It is tiny, with just 2 pages, 1 of which has no code-behind. It runs aok in the IDE but when I installed it on my pc (and also when installed on the production server), and tried to run it this error came up: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Line 2: Line 3: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Source File: /EMTTrainingDatabase/pageMain.aspx Line: 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I checked the web site properties in IIS and the correct ASP.net version is specified: 2.0.50727. I checked the virtual path and it looks correct too: /EMTTrainingDatabase pageMain source code header looks like: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Some posters suggest that the bin is in the wrong folder or the bin doesn't contain the rigt contents. I don't have enough knowledge to evaulate this. Can someone help? Thank you.

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