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• Subversion versus Vault

  - by WebDude

  I'm currently reviewing the benefits of moving from SVN to a SourceGear Vault. Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two? Bear in mind I would have to move my current Source Control system across which works strongly in SVN's favor Here is some info I have found out thus far from my own investigations. I have been taking some time tests between the two and vault seems to perform most operations much faster. Time tests used the same server as the repository, the same workstation client, and the same project. Time Comparisons SVN Add/Commit    12:30 Get Latest Revision    5:35 Tagging/Labelling    0:01 Branching    N/A - I don't think true branching exists in SVN Vault Add/Commit    4:45 Get Latest Revision    0:51 Tagging/Labelling    0:30 Branching    3:23 (can't get this to format correctly) I also found an online source comparing some other points. This is the kind of information i'm looking for. Usage Comparisons Subversion is edit/merge/commit only. Vault allows you to do either edit/merge/commit or checkout/edit/checkin. Vault looks and acts just like VSS, which makes the learning curve effectively zero for VSS users. Vault has a VS plugin, but it only works if you're going to run in checkout-mode. Subversion has clients for pretty much every OS you can imagine; Vault has a GUI client for Windows and a command line client for Mono. Both will support remote work, since both use HTTP as their transport (Subversion uses extended DAV, Vault uses SOAP). Subversion installation, especially w/ Apache, is more complex. Subversion has a lot of third party support. Vault has just a few things. My question Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two?

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• MonoDevelop 2.8.2: Build failed. Illegal characters in path

  - by user1056607

  I have just installed MonoDevelop 2.8.2. After opening a new solution named test I attempted to run the project. I push f5 and all I see is a "Build failed. Illegal characters in path" error in the bottom left. I open up the Error List and see no errors. I have done some searching and only find solutions pertaining to projects that are beyond the scope of just the pre-generated code. This is the code: using System; namespace Test { class MainClass { public static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello World!"); } } } I have tried to uninstall/reinstall, cut out any spaces in the path to the program or the solution, and even opened VS2010 and just copy pasted that code over. I've looked over my options under tools, solution options under project, and the project's options. I am running MD 2.8.2 with GTK# and Microsoft's .NET runtime. Let me know if you need anymore information. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you for your time!

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• MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

  - by Daniel Straight

  Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

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• Looking for a smarter way to convert a Python list to a GList?

  - by Kingdom of Fish

  I'm really new to C - Python interaction and am currently writing a small app in C which will read a file (using Python to parse it) and then using the parsed information to execute small Python snippets. At the moment I'm feeling very much like I'm reinventing wheels, for example this function: typedef gpointer (list_func)(PyObject *obj); GList *pylist_to_glist(list_func func, PyObject *pylist) { GList *result = NULL; if (func == NULL) { fprintf(stderr, "No function definied for coverting PyObject.\n"); } else if (PyList_Check(pylist)) { PyObject *pIter = PyObject_GetIter(pylist); PyObject *pItem; while ((pItem = PyIter_Next(pIter))) { gpointer obj = func(pItem); if (obj != NULL) result = g_list_append(result, obj); else fprintf(stderr, "Could not convert PyObject to C object.\n"); Py_DECREF(pItem); } Py_DECREF(pIter); } return result; } I would really like to do this in a easier/smarter way less prone to memory leaks and errors. All comments and suggestions are appreciated.

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• Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

  - by Rob

  Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

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• Asp.net Login Status Question: It Aint Working

  - by contactmatt

  I'm starting to use Role Management in my website, and I'm current following along on the tutorial from http://www.asp.net/Learn/Security/tutorial-02-vb.aspx . I'm having a problem with the asp:LoginStatus control. It is not telling me that I am currently logged in after a successful login. This can't be true because after successfully logging in, my LoggedInTemplate is shown. The username and passwords are simply stored in a array. Heres the Login.aspx page code. Protected Sub btnLogin_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btnLogin.Click ' Three valid username/password pairs: Scott/password, Jisun/password, and Sam/password. Dim users() As String = {"Scott", "Jisun", "Sam"} Dim passwords() As String = {"password", "password", "password"} For i As Integer = 0 To users.Length - 1 Dim validUsername As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtUserName.Text, users(i), True) = 0) Dim validPassword As Boolean = (String.Compare(txtPassword.Text, passwords(i), False) = 0) If validUsername AndAlso validPassword Then FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(txtUserName.Text, chkRemember.Checked) End If Next ' If we reach here, the user's credentials were invalid lblInvalid.Visible = True End Sub Here is the content place holder on the master page specifically designed to hold Login Information. On successfull login, the page is redirected to '/Default.aspx', and the LoggedIn Template below is shown...but the status says Log In. <asp:ContentPlaceHolder Id="LoginContent" runat="server"> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <LoggedInTemplate> Welcome back, <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" />. </LoggedInTemplate> <AnonymousTemplate> Hello, stranger. </AnonymousTemplate> </asp:LoginView> <br /> <asp:LoginStatus ID="LoginStatus1" runat="server" LogoutAction="Redirect" LogoutPageUrl="~/Logout.aspx" /> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> Forms authentication is enabled. I'm not sure what to do about this :o.

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• Accessing frame info in gdb

  - by Maelstrom

  In gdb, is there a way to access the contents of info frame in a script? I'm debugging a problem somewhere between Apache, PHP, APC and my own code, and I have about a hundred cores to choose from. Following the instructions here http://bugs.php.net/bugs-generating-backtrace.php I end up with a stacktrace like: #0 0x0121a31a in do_bind_function (opline=0xa94dd750, function_table=0x9b9cf98, compile_time=0 '\0') at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_compile.c:2407 #1 0x0124bb2e in ZEND_DECLARE_FUNCTION_SPEC_HANDLER (execute_data=0xbfef7990) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:498 #2 0x01249dfa in execute (op_array=0xb79d5d3c) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:92 #3 0x01261e31 in ZEND_INCLUDE_OR_EVAL_SPEC_VAR_HANDLER (execute_data=0xbfef80d0) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:7809 #4 0x01249dfa in execute (op_array=0xb79d55ec) at /usr/src/debug/php-5.2.7/Zend/zend_vm_execute.h:92 ... #26 0x09caa894 in ?? () #27 0x00000000 in ?? () The stack will always look similar, with function execute and ZEND_something interleaved several times. I need to go up to the last instance of execute (up 2 in this case) and print myVar. Obviously gdb knows the function names, but does it surface them in any user variables I could access? Typing frame 2 shows a one-line version, and info frame shows a single stackframe in detail. I want to do something like while ($current_frame.function_name != "execute") {up;} print myVar but I don't see how to do it strictly within gdb. Is there a variable / structure / special memory location / something that allows access to gdb's information on either the whole stack (like bt) or to the current stack frame (like info frame)?

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• How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

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• Persisting Joda DateTime instead of Java Date in hibernate

  - by Tauren

  My entities currently contain java Date properties. I'm starting to use Joda Time for date manipulation and calculations quite frequently. This means that I'm constantly having to convert my Dates into Joda DateTime objects and back again. So I was wondering, is there any reason I shouldn't just change my entities to store Joda DateTime objects instead of Java Date objects? Please note that these entities are persisted via Hibernate. I found the jodatime-hibernate project, but I also was reading on the Joda mailing list that it wasn't compatible with newer versions of hibernate. And it seems like it isn't very well maintained. So I'm wondering if it would be best to just continue converting between Date and DateTime, or if it would be wise to start persisting DateTime objects. My concern is being reliant on a poorly maintained library. Edit: Note that one of my objectives is to be better able to store timezone information. Storing just a Date appears to save the date in the local timezone. As my application can be used globally, I need to know the timezone as well. Joda Time Hibernate seems to address this as well in the user guide.

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• Windows could not start the Apache2 on Local Computer - problem

  - by vaske

  During the installation of Apache2 I got the following message into cmd window: Installing the Apache2.2 service The Apache2.2 service is successfully installed. Testing httpd.conf.... Errors reported here must be corrected before the service can be started. httpd.exe: Could not reliably determine the server's fully qualified domain name , using 192.168.1.3 for ServerName (OS 10048)Only one usage of each socket address (protocol/network address/port) is normally permitted. : make_sock: could not bind to address 0.0.0.0:80 no listening sockets available, shutting down Unable to open logs Note the errors or messages above, and press the key to exit. 24... and after installing everything look fine, but it isn't. If I try to start service I got the following message: Windows could not start the Apache2 on Local Computer. For more information, review the System Event Log. If this is a non-Micorsoft service, contact the service vendor, and refer to service-specific error code 1. Apach2 version is 2.2.9 Does anyone have the same problem, or could help me.

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• Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

  - by user169867

  I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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• How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

  - by Wayne Russell

  Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

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• Issue with IHttpHandler and relative URLs

  - by vtortola

  Hi, I've developed a IHttpHandler class and I've configured it as verb="*" path="*", so I'm handling all the request with it in an attempt of create my own REST implementation for a test web site that generates the html dynamically. So, when a request for a .css file arrives, I've to do something like context.Response.WriteFile(Server.MapPath(url)) ... same for pictures and so on, I have to response everything myself. My main issue, is when I put relative URLs in the anchors; for example, I have main page with a link like this <a href="page1">Go to Page 1</a> , and in Page 1 I have another link <a href="page2">Go to Page 2</a>. Page 1 and 2 are supposed to be at the same level (http://host/page1 and http://host/page2, but when I click in Go to Page 2, I got this url in the handler: ~/page1/~/page2 ... what is a pain, because I have to do an url = url.SubString(url.LastIndexOf('~')) for clean it, although I feel that there is nothing wrong and this behavior is totally normal. Right now, I can cope with it, but I think that in the future this is gonna bring me some headache. I've tried to set all the links with absolute URLs using the information of context.Request.Url, but it's also a pain :D, so I'd like to know if there is a nicer way to do these kind of things. Don't hesitate in giving me pretty obvious responses because I'm pretty new in web development and probably I'm skipping something basic about URLs, Http and so on. Thanks in advance and kind regards.

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• Good resources for building web-app in Tapestry

  - by Rich

  Hi, I'm currently researching into Tapestry for my company and trying to decide if I think we can port our pre-existing proprietary web applications to something better. Currently we are running Tomcat and using JSP for our front end backed by our own framework that eventually uses JDBC to connect to an Oracle database. I've gone through the Tapestry tutorial, which was really neat and got me interested, but now I'm faced with what seems to be a common issue of documentation. There are a lot of things I'd need to be sure that I could accomplish with Tapestry before I'd be ready to commit fully to it. Does anyone have any good resources, be it a book or web article or anything else, that go into more detail beyond what the Tapestry tutorial explains? I am also considering integrating with Hibernate, and have read a little bit about Spring too. I'm still having a hard time understanding how Spring would be more useful than cumbersome in tandem with Tapestry,as they seem to have a lot of overlapping features. An example I read seemed to use Spring to interface with Hibernate, and then Tapestry to Spring, but I was under the impression Tapestry integrates to the same degree with Hibernate. The resource I'm speaking of is http://wiki.apache.org/tapestry/Tapstry5First_project_with_Tapestry5,_Spring_and_Hibernate . I was interested because I hadn't found information anywhere else on how to maintain user levels and sessions through a Tapestry application before, but wasn't exactly impressed by the need to use Spring in the example.

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• Handling one-to-many relationship with ZF partialLoop

  - by snaken

  Lets say i'm listing musical artists, each artist has basic information like Name, Age etc. stored in an artist table. They also have entries in an Albums table (album name/album cover etc), referencing the artist table using the artist id as a foreign key. I have the Model_Artist (Artist.php) file: class Model_Artist extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'artist'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_ArtistAlbums'); public function fetchArtistss() { $select = $this->select(); return $this->fetchAll($select); } } and to the Model_ArtistAlbums (ArtistAlbums.php) file class Model_ArtistAlbums extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'albums'; protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Artists' => array( 'columns' => 'alb_art_id', 'refTableClass' => 'Model_Artist', 'refColumns' => 'art_id' ) ); // etc } in my controller: public function indexAction() { /* THIS WORKS $art = new Model_Artist(); $artRowset = $art->find(1); $art1 = $artRowset->current(); $artalbums = $art1->findDependentRowset('Model_ArtistAlbums'); foreach($artalbums as $album){ echo $album->alb_title."<br>"; } */ $arts = new Model_Artist(); $this->view->artists = $arts->fetchArtists(); } in the view file: $this->partial()->setObjectKey('artist'); echo $this->partialLoop('admin/list-artists.phtml', $this->artists); but with this code in artists/list-artists.phtml: foreach($this->artist->findDependentRowset('albums') as $album): // other stuff endforeach; i get this error: Fatal error: Call to a member function findDependentRowset() on a non-object A var_dump of $this->artist = NULL.

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• asp.Net 2005 "Could not load type"

  - by Melody Friedenthal

  Although I have seen dozens of forum questions relating to "Could not load type", none of the advice in them seemed to apply to my situation. I wrote a new web application using aspx.net VB 2005. It is tiny, with just 2 pages, 1 of which has no code-behind. It runs aok in the IDE but when I installed it on my pc (and also when installed on the production server), and tried to run it this error came up: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Line 2: Line 3: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Source File: /EMTTrainingDatabase/pageMain.aspx Line: 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I checked the web site properties in IIS and the correct ASP.net version is specified: 2.0.50727. I checked the virtual path and it looks correct too: /EMTTrainingDatabase pageMain source code header looks like: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Some posters suggest that the bin is in the wrong folder or the bin doesn't contain the rigt contents. I don't have enough knowledge to evaulate this. Can someone help? Thank you.

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• java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed; Causes and cures?

  - by IVR Avenger

  Hi, all. I've got an application running on Apache Tomcat 5.5 on a Win2k3 VM. The application serves up XML to be consumed by some telephony appliances as part of our IVR infrastructure. The application, in turn, receives its information from a handful of SOAP services. This morning, the SOAP services were timing out intermittently, causing all sorts of Exceptions. Once these stopped, I noticed that our application was still performing very slowly, in that it took it a long time to render and deliver pages. This sluggishness was noticed both on the appliances that consume the Tomcat output, and from a simple test of requesting some static documents from my web browser. Restarting Tomcat immediately resolved the issue. Cracking open the localhost log, I see a ton of these errors, right up until I restarted Tomcat: WARNING: Exception thrown whilst processing POSTed parameters java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed After a big of Googling, my working theory is that the SOAP issue caused my users to get errors, which caused them to make more requests, which put an increased load on the application. This caused it to run out of available sockets to handle incoming requests. So, here's my quandary: 1. Is this a valid hypothesis, or am I just in over my head with HTTP and Tomcat? 2. If this is a valid hypothesis, is there a way to increase the size of the "socket queue", so that this doesn't happen in the future? Thanks! IVR Avenger

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• So can unique_ptr be used safely in stl collections?

  - by DanDan

  I am confused with unique_ptr and rvalue move philosophy. Let's say we have two collections: std::vector<std::auto_ptr<int>> autoCollection; std::vector<std::unique_ptr<int>> uniqueCollection; Now I would expect the following to fail, as there is no telling what the algorithm is doing internally and maybe making internal pivot copies and the like, thus ripping away ownership from the auto_ptr: std::sort(autoCollection.begin(), autoCollection.end()); I get this. And the compiler rightly disallows this happening. But then I do this: std::sort(uniqueCollection.begin(), uniqueCollection.end()); And this compiles. And I do not understand why. I did not think unique_ptrs could be copied. Does this mean a pivot value cannot be taken, so the sort is less efficient? Or is this pivot actually a move, which in fact is as dangerous as the collection of auto_ptrs, and should be disallowed by the compiler? I think I am missing some crucial piece of information, so I eagerly await someone to supply me with the aha! moment.

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• Certain transformations in Open Inventor(Coin3D)

  - by Marc

  Hi, I am quite new to Open Inventor(Coin3D) and have the following problem: I have a SoSelection holding a root node(also SoSeparator). And the root node holds a number of SoSeparator nodes. Each of these SoSeparator nodes holds a SoTransform node and a SoCube node. When I select one cube node I want all other cubes within a certain distance to the selected cube to arrange in a circle arround the selected cube. (Moreover all of the cubes should be on a plane than) An additional information: My cubes are always oriented in the camera direction with (cubeTransform_-rotation.connectFrom(&camera_-orientation) Assuming the selected cube is the center of the circle, how do I translate the other cubes in a circle on a plane(perpendicular to the vector between the selected cube and the camera)? Especially how do I find coordinates on the plain on which the circle should be which have a certain distance from the Axis (from center cube to camera). What I already did is to search for the for all cubes within a certain distance as soon as one cube is selected. As a result I already have the required separators (which are holding the according SoTransforms and SoCubes) in a SoPathList. Now I want to arrange the cubes by modifing the according SoTransform-translation values. Regards Mark

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• How to compile Python scripts for use in FORTRAN?

  - by Vincent Poirier

  Hello, Although I found many answers and discussions about this question, I am unable to find a solution particular to my situation. Here it is: I have a main program written in FORTRAN. I have been given a set of python scripts that are very useful. My goal is to access these python scripts from my main FORTRAN program. Currently, I simply call the scripts from FORTRAN as such: CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py') Data is read from .dat files and written to .dat files. This is how the python scripts and the main FORTRAN program communicate to each other. I am currently running my code on my local machine. I have python installed with numpy, scipy, etc. My problem: The code needs to run on a remote server. For strictly FORTRAN code, I compile the code locally and send the executable to the server where it waits in a queue. However, the server does not have python installed. The server is being used as a number crunching station between universities and industry. Installing python along with the necessary modules on the server is not an option. This means that my “CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py')” strategy no longer works. Solution?: I found some information on a couple of things in thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138521/is-it-feasible-to-compile-python-to-machine-code Shedskin, Psyco, Cython, Pypy, Cpython API These “modules”(? Not sure if that's what to call them) seem to compile python script to C code or C++. Apparently not all python features can be translated to C. As well, some of these appear to be experimental. Is it possible to compile my python scripts with my FORTRAN code? There exists f2py which converts FORTRAN code to python, but it doesn't work the other way around. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you for your time. Vincent PS: I'm using python 2.6 on Ubuntu

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• IIS6 configuration for WCF/Silverlight

  - by Grayson Mitchell

  I am trying the simple senario of running a WCF service to return Active directory information on a user. (http://rouslan.com/2009/03/20-steps-to-get-together-windows-authentication-silverlight-and-wcf-service/) using Silverlight 4 & .net 4 However, I am being driven insane by trying to set this up in IIS. Currently I have my solution working in VS, but when I try to run the service in ISS a debug window tries to open... (and I can't get rid of it, is is complaining about the WCF call). <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="winAuthBasicHttpBinding"> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Ntlm"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> The Insanity: I have got the IIS to successfully call a WCF service (but can't reproduce), I have created 5 projects to try and get this working, but in my 5th I can't even browse the site (says it can't download silverlight application, but mime type are setup). My next step is to install Server2008 on a test machine and try IIS7... as all the various walkthrough's I have found just dont seem to work in IIS6.

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• Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

  - by pspahn

  Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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• Figuring out the performance limitation of an ADC on a PIC microcontroller

  - by AKE

  I'm spec-ing the suitability of a microcontroller like PIC for an analog-to-digital application. This would be preferable to using external A/D chips. To do that, I've had to run through some computations, pulling the relevant parameters from the datasheets. I'm not sure I've got it right -- would appreciate a check! Here's the simplest example: PIC10F220 is the simplest possible PIC with an ADC. Runs at clock speed of 8MHz. Has an instruction cycle of 0.5us (4 clock steps per instruction) So: Taking Tacq = 6.06 us (acquisition time for ADC, assume chip temp. = 50*C) [datasheet p34] Taking Fosc = 8MHz (? clock speed) Taking divisor = 4 (4 clock steps per CPU instruction) This gives TAD = 0.5us (TAD = 1/(Fosc/divisor) ) Conversion time is 13*TAD [datasheet p31] This gives conversion time 6.5us ADC duration is then 12.56 us [? Tacq + 13*TAD] Assuming at least 2 instructions for load/store: This is another 1 us [0.5 us per instruction] Which would give max sampling rate of 73.7 ksps (1/13.56) Supposing 8 more instructions for real-time processing: This is another 4 us Thus, total ADC/handling time = 17.56us (12.56us + 1us + 4us) So expected upper sampling rate is 56.9 ksps. Nyquist frequency for this sampling rate is therefore 28 kHz. If this is right, it suggests the (theoretical) performance suitability of this chip's A/D is for signals that are bandlimited to 28 kHz. Is this a correct interpretation of the information given in the data sheet? Any pointers would be much appreciated! AKE

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• How do I change an attribute in an HTML table's cell if I know the row and column index of the cell?

  - by Mark

  I know nothing about jQuery but am an experienced C++ programmer (not sure if that helps or hurts). I found jQuery code that gives me the row and column index of a cell in an HTML table when a user clicks on that cell. Using such row-column index numbers, I need to change an attribute's value in the previously selected cell and in the cell just clicked. The index numbers are produced and saved with this code: var $trCurrent = 0; // Index of cell selected when page opens var $tdCurrent = 0; // i.e., previously selected cell $(document).ready(function () { $("td").click(function () { // How toclear previously selected cell's attribute here? ('class', 'recent') var oTr = $(this).parents("tr"); $tdCurrent = oTr.children("td").index(this); }); $("tr").click(function () { $trCurrent = $(this)[0].rowIndex; // How to set new attributes here? ('class', 'current'); // and continue work using information from currently selected cell }); }); Any help or hints would be appreciated. I do not even know if this is the way I should get the index of the row and column. Thanks.

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• Using jQuery to parse an RSS feed, having trouble in firefox and chrome.

  - by sjmarshy

  I used a jQuery library called jFeed to parse and display my blogs rss feed on my personal website. It worked perfectly well at first, but upon checking later it simply displays nothing, except in Internet Explorer, where it seems to work fine. After checking the javascript console using Firebug in Firefox, it shows an error in the 'XML' tab as follows: XML Parsing Error: no element found Location: moz-nullprincipal:{3f8a0c62-32b4-4f63-b69c- 9ef402b40b64} Line Number 1, Column 1: ^ Though I have no idea what to do with this information. Here is the code I used to get the rss feed and display it (it is almost exactly the same as the example provided by the jFeed website): jQuery.getFeed({ url: 'http://sammarshalldesign.co.uk/blog/wordpress/?feed=rss2', success: function(feed) { var html = ''; for(var i = 0; i < feed.items.length && i < 5; i++) { var item = feed.items[i]; html += '<h3>' + '<a href="' + item.link + '">' + item.title + '</a>' + '</h3>'; html += '<div>' + item.description + '</div>'; }//end for jQuery('#feed').append(html); }//end feed function });//end getfeed Any help would be really appreciated.

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