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  • Preserving the order of annotations

    - by Ragunath Jawahar
    When obtaining the list of fields using getFields() and getDeclaredFields(), the order of the fields in a Java class is undefined. I need this order in my validation library. Since the order is not preserved (though some claim that the order is preserved in JDK 6 and above but is not guaranteed across VMs). I cannot speculate on this because the order of annotations across fields is absolutely essential for the library. One way to get around this is to have an order or an index attribute in my Annotation. What worries me is that the code could become a bit cumbersome for maintaining in the following case. If the use wants to insert a new annotated field then, he might have to renumber all the other annotations in the class. I could have the order or index as a floating point number - float or double but , it wouldn't look good to have order such as 1, 1.5, 2, etc., What would be an elegant solution for this problem? Here is a example code so that you can get an idea about the problem: @Required @TextRule (minLength = 6, message = "You need at least 6 characters.") private EditText usernameEditText; @Password private EditText passwordEditText; @ConfirmPassword private EditText confirmPasswordEditText; @Email private EditText emailEditText;

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  • Sessions not sticking linux server

    - by Jacob Windsor
    I have just moved the dev site over to my linux server for production but the sessions don't seem to be sticking for very long. I am guessing it is the server settings and not the php because it does the same thing with the plesk panel. Whenever a script is executed the sessions seems to get unset. I see nothing in the error log so not sure what it is. It all worked fine on wamp. Anyway I uploaded the php.ini file which was in the wamp server as it had all the settings i needed and all was working on localhost. Not sure what the problem is and this is the final thing that I have to sort out before going into production. And just too add the sessions are being started as they last for a little bit just don't stick around long. Here is the relevent part of my login script just in case there is something wrong with the code: // if login is ok then we add a cookie if($flag == 0) { $pass = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['pass'])); $username = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username'])); $_SESSION['username']=$username; $_SESSION['password']=$pass;

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  • form_form and custom parameter in path_prefix

    - by fguillen
    Hi people, I have this route: # config/routes.rb map.namespace :backshop, :path_prefix => '/:shop_id/admin' do |backshop| backshop.resources :items end And I want to use the form_for magic to reuse the same form on both: new and edit views: <% form_for [:backshop, @item] do |f| %> This used to works, and used to build a create url for the item or update url for the item depending on the status of the @item object. But this is not working on this case because the routes don't exists without the shop_id parameter, and I don't know how to say to the form_for something like this: <% form_for [:backshop, @item], :shop_id => @shop do |f| %> Because it tries to use the @item like the :shop_id parameter. Or like this <% form_for [:backshop, @shop, @item] do |f| %> Because it tries to build this url: backshop_shop_order_path I Know I can just to extract the form_for declaration from the partial and do different calls on depending if new or edit: <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_items_path( @shop ) ) do |f| %> and <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_item_path( @shop, @item ) ) do |f| %> But I just wanted don't do this because I have a bunch of models and is a few boring :) Thanks for any suggestion f.

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  • Allow login from another site

    - by tunmise fasipe
    I have web application where I store users' password and username. If you logon to this site, you can login with the password and username to have access to your profile. There is another option that requires you to login to my site from your site and have your profile within your site. This is because you might already have a site that your clients know you with. This latter part is what I don't know to implement. I have these ideas: Have a fixed IFrame within your site to contain my site: but I am concerned about size/layout since different clients have different layout/size for their content section. I am thinking of how to maintain session too A webservice: I don't know how feasible this is since the Password and ID are on my server. You may have to send them back and forth. It means client would have to code with my API. But I am not just returning data, I have to show them a page that contains the profile details OpenID, Single-SignOn: Just guessing - but the authentication and data resides on my server. there is nothing to access on your side in this case Any other methods/better approach Examples: like login into facebook within my site and still be able to do post updates, receive notifications Facebook implement some of these with IFrame e.g. the Like button

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  • How to display controllers with proper aligning in iPhone screen ?

    - by chatcja
    I have a issue of displaying information in iPhone screen. Case is as follows. I crated a view-based application in Xcode name as myView. Then open myViewViewController.xib interface builder, change back groung color and added label at top-let (0, 0) of the view. Then I add new file named as myView2ViewController, which is subclass of UIViewController and corresponding XIB also generated. Open myView2ViewController in IB and added a label at top-left as previous. Also changed the background color. In the "applicationDidFinishLaunching" of AppDeligate do following myView2ViewController *mView = [[myView2ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"myView2ViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:mView.view]; When I run the application, it is shown as upper part of the Label is sheared. It seems as whole UI has been moved 20 px upper (Because, there is a horizontal space in the bottom). I guess this is due to some positioning. But still I could not found any way to fix it. Hope somebody will help me to identify this issue !!

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  • How can I get sessions to work if I'm using Google App Engine + Django 1.1?

    - by user341642
    Is there a way for me to get sessions working? I know Django has built in session management, and GAE has some tools for it if you're using their watered down version of Django 0.96, but is there a way to get sessions to work if you're trying to use GAE w/ Django 1.1 (i.e. use_library() call). I assume using a db-backed session doesn't work, and a file system backed one won't work b/c we don't have access to the filesystem if we deploy to the Google production servers. This kinda worked (as in didn't crap out) when I used SessionMiddleware backed by a local-memory backed cache and a non-persistent cache (i.e. setting SESSION_ENGINE to django.contrib.sessions.backends.cache). But the session never seems to persist in this case, no matter how I set the timeouts. A new session key is generated on every page reload. Maybe this is b/c the GAE assumes complete statelessness with each request and blows away my local cache? Apologies in advance, I'm pretty new to Python. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • how to filter text of the selected value in drop down

    - by Carlos
    I have a drop down menu. Has product types. Product types have associated value (from drop down) values correspond to machine groups. So each option should have three variables--Machine name, values, machine group. I can get the Machine name and I can get the machine value (and display them in a different field)...what I have not been able to figure out is how to change the value into the Machine group. jQuery('#MachineName').bind('change', function() { //get selected value from drop down; var selectedValue = jQuery("#MachineName").val(); //populate a text field with the selected drop down value jQuery("#MachineValue").val(selectedValue); What I would like to do is keep that MachineValue but then populate another text field with the sorted MachineGroup I have been trying to run it through something like switch(jQuery(this).val()){ case "236" : newVal = "8"; break; But I don't want to "change" the value I just want to do an "if then" type filter, so maybe something like: '236' => "8", '237' => "5", I just don't know how to properly say "assign the MachineGroup based on the MachineValue" (and then have it populate a different text field) In the end I would have three fields. The drop down, the MachineValue and the MachineGroup. Drop down and value are done, I just need to do Group. (And I can sort Group based on MachineName...just not sure which would be easier)

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  • why the exception is not caught?

    - by Álvaro García
    I have the following code: List<MyEntity> lstAllMyRecords = miDbContext.MyEntity.ToList<MyEntity>(); foreach MyEntity iterator in lstMainRecord) { tasks.Add( TaskEx.Run(() => { try { checkData(lstAllMyRecords.Where(n => n.IDReference == iterator.IDReference).ToList<MyEntity>()); } catch CustomRepository ex) { //handle my custom repository } catch (Exception) { throw; } }) ); }//foreach Task.WaitAll(tasks.ToArray()); I get all the records from my data base and in the foreach loop, I group all the records that have the same IDReference. Thenk I check if the data is correct with the method chekData. The checkData method throw a custom exception if something is wrong. I would like to catch this exception to handle it. But the problem is that with this code the exceptions are not caught and all seem to work without errors, but I know that this is not true. I try to check only one group of records that I know that has problems. If I check only one group of registrers, the loop is execute once and then only task is created. In this case the exception is caught, but if I have many groups, then any exception s thrwon. Why when I only have one task the exception is caught and with many groups are not? Thanks.

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  • Gmail Sync on Android phone

    - by sunocky
    Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

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  • Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

    - by rebec
    Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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  • C#: Hijacking a near relative call

    - by Lex
    Alright, I'm trying to write a vary basic modification to a program NOT written by me. I DO NOT have the source to it. I also do not care if this only works for a single version of the program, so hard coding offsets is feasible. Anyways, I've found the function and where it is called in the compiled program. .text:1901C88F loc_1901C88F: ; CODE XREF: ConnectionThread+1A2j .text:1901C88F ; DATA XREF: .text:off_1901CC64o .text:1901C88F 8B C8 mov ecx, eax ; jumptable 1901C862 case 11 .text:1901C891 8B C6 mov eax, esi .text:1901C893 E8 48 C5 FF FF call ChatEvent According to IDA the full function signature is: char *__usercall ChatEvent<eax>(char *Data<eax>, unsigned int Length<ecx>) I already have all I need to patch the program during runtime, and do whatever other manipulations I need. What I need, is to be able to write a function like so: bool ProcessChat(char *Data, unsigned int Length); char *__usercall HijackFunction(char *Data, unsigned int Length){ if (ProcessChat(Data, Length)) Call OriginalChatEvent(Data, Length); } Get the jist of what I am trying to do? With stdcall function it's easy just replace the 4 byte address with my own function's address. But this is a near relative call, which is.. more annoying. So, anyone have any idea?

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  • How do browser cookie domains work?

    - by Vilx-
    Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

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  • how to make custom ROMs for lesser-known Android devices (i.e., WellcoM A69)

    - by gonzobrains
    Hi, I have a WellcoM A69 Android phone I would like to start hacking. I bought it in Thailand (I think WellcoM is a Thai company). However, the docs don't explain how to get a recovery menu or anything like that. I would like to figure out how to make custom ROMs for it, because it doesn't have any Google Experience apps and I also want to change the boot screen. How can I go about doing this? If I can't do this, I want to at least be able to use the device in the Eclipse debugger. I select the debugging option under applications but the device still isn't recognized. Is this something that can be disabled by the manufacturer? In any case, I would like to re-enable it if a custom ROM can allow this. If this cannot be done at all, please at least point me in the direction of where I can start writing/building my own ROMs for the G1? I figured that would be a good starting point for learning. Thanks, Jeff

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  • generate k distinct number less then n

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i have following question task is this generate k distinct positive numbers less then n without duplication my method is following first create array size of k where we should write these numbers int a[]=new int[k]; //now i am going to cretae another array where i check if (at given number position is 1 then generate number again else put this number in a array and continue cycle i put here a piece of code and explanations int a[]=new int[k]; int t[]=new int[n+1]; Random r=new Random(); for (int i==0;i<t.length;i++){ t[i]=0;//initialize it to zero } int m=0;//initialize it also for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ m=r.nextInt(n);//random element between 0 and n if (t[m]==1){ //i have problem with this i want in case of duplication element occurs repeats this steps afain until there will be different number else{ t[m]=1; x[i]=m; } } so i fill concret my problem if t[m]==1 it means that this element occurs already so i want to generate new number but problem is that number of generated numbers will not be k beacuse if i==0 and occurs duplicate element and we write continue then it will switch at i==1 i need like goto for repeat step or for (int i=0;i<x.length;i++){ loop: m=r.nextInt(n); if ( x[m]==1){ continue loop; } else{ x[m]=1; a[i]=m; continue;//continue next step at i=1 and so on } } i need this code in java please help

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  • syntax for MySQL INSERT with an array of columns

    - by Mike_Laird
    I'm new to PHP and MySQL query construction. I have a processor for a large form. A few fields are required, most fields are user optional. In my case, the HTML ids and the MySQL column names are identical. I've found tutorials about using arrays to convert $_POST into the fields and values for INSERT INTO, but I can't get them working - after many hours. I've stepped back to make a very simple INSERT using arrays and variables, but I'm still stumped. The following line works and INSERTs 5 items into a database with over 100 columns. The first 4 items are strings, the 5th item, monthlyRental is an integer. $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` (country, stateProvince, city3, city3Geocode, monthlyRental) VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; When I make an array for the fields and use it, as follows: $colsx = array('country,', 'stateProvince,', 'city3,', 'city3Geocode,', 'monthlyRental'); $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` ('$colsx') VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; I get a MySQL error - check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ''Array') VALUES ( 'US', 'New York', 'Fairport, Monroe County, New York', '(43.09)' at line 1. I get this error whether the array items have commas inside the single quotes or not. I've done a lot of reading and tried many combinations and I can't get it. I want to see the proper syntax on a small scale before I go back to foreach expressions to process $_POST and both the fields and values are arrays. And yes, I know I should use mysql_real_escape_string, but that is an easy later step in the foreach. Lastly, some clues about the syntax for an array of values would be helpful, particularly if it is different from the fields array. I know I need to add a null as the first array item to trigger the MySQL autoincrement id. What else? I'm pretty new, so please be specific.

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  • byte and short data types in Java can accept the value outside the range by explicit cast. The higher data types however can not. Why?

    - by Lion
    Let's consider the following expressions in Java. byte a = 32; byte b = (byte) 250; int i = a + b; This is valid in Java even though the expression byte b = (byte) 250; is forced to assign the value 250 to b which is outside the range of the type byte. Therefore, b is assigned -6 and consequently i is assigned the value 26 through the statement int i = a + b;. The same thing is possible with short as follows. short s1=(short) 567889999; Although the specified value is outside the range of short, this statement is legal. The same thing is however wrong with higher data types such int, double, folat etc and hence, the following case is invalid and causes a compile-time error. int z=2147483648; This is illegal, since the range of int in Java is from -2,147,483,648 to 2147483647 which the above statement exceeds and issues a compile-time error. Why is such not wrong with byte and short data types in Java?

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  • jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

    - by user1706661
    I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

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  • What does the Asterisk * mean in Objective-C?

    - by Thanks
    Is it true, that the Asterisk always means "Hey, that is a pointer!" And an Pointer always holds an memory adress? (Yes I know for the exception that a * is used for math operation) For Example: NSString* myString; or SomeClass* thatClass; or (*somePointerToAStruct).myStructComponent = 5; I feel that there is more I need to know about the Asterirsk (*) than that I use it when defining an Variable that is a pointer to a class. Because sometimes I already say in the declaration of an parameter that the Parameter variable is a pointer, and still I have to use the Asterisk in front of the Variable in order to access the value. That recently happened after I wanted to pass a pointer of an struct to a method in a way like [myObj myMethod:&myStruct], I could not access a component value from that structure even though my method declaration already said that there is a parameter (DemoStruct*)myVar which indeed should be already known as a pointer to that demostruct, still I had always to say: "Man, compiler. Listen! It IIISSS a pointer:" and write: (*myVar).myStructComponentX = 5; I really really really do not understand why I have to say that twice. And only in this case. When I use the Asterisk in context of an NSString* myString then I can just access myString however I like, without telling the compiler each time that it's a pointer. i.e. like using *myString = @"yep". It just makes no sense to me.

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  • RESTful API: How to model JSON representation?

    - by Jan P.
    I am designing a RESTful API for a booking application. You can request a list of accommodations. And that's where I don't really know how to design the JSON represenation. This is my XML representation: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <accommodations> <accommodation> <name>...</name> <category>couch</category> </accommodation> <accommodation> <name>...</name> <category>room</category> </accommodation> <accommodations> My first try to convert this to JSON resulted in this output (1): { "0": { "name": "...", "category": "couch" }, "1": { "name": "...", "category": "room" } } But as I looked how others APIs did it, I found something looking more like this (2): [ { "name": "...", "category": "couch" }, { "name": "...", "category": "room" } ] I know version 1 is an object, and version 2 an array. But which one is better in this case?

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  • C++: getting the address of the start of an std::vector ?

    - by shoosh
    Sometimes it is useful to use the starting address of an std::vector and temporarily treat that address as the address of a regularly allocated buffer. For instance replace this: char* buf = new char[size]; fillTheBuffer(buf, size); useTheBuffer(buf, size); delete[] buf; With This: vector<char> buf(size); fillTheBuffer(&buf[0], size); useTheBuffer(&buf[0], size); The advantage of this is of course that the buffer is deallocated automatically and I don't have to worry about the delete[]. The problem I'm having with this is when size == 0. In that case the first version works ok. An empty buffer is "allocated" and the subsequent functions do nothing size they get size == 0. The second version however fails if size == 0 since calling buf[0] may rightly contain an assertion that 0 < size. So is there an alternative to the idiom &buf[0] that returns the address of the start of the vector even if the vector is empty? I've also considered using buf.begin() but according to the standard it isn't even guaranteed to return a pointer.

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  • Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

    - by rlb.usa
    I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

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  • actionscript find and convert text to url

    - by gravesit
    I have this script that grabs a twitter feed and displays in a little widget. What I want to do is look at the text for a url and convert that url to a link. public class Main extends MovieClip { private var twitterXML:XML; // This holds the xml data public function Main() { // This is Untold Entertainment's Twitter id. Did you grab yours? var myTwitterID= "username"; // Fire the loadTwitterXML method, passing it the url to your Twitter info: loadTwitterXML("http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/" + myTwitterID + ".xml"); } private function loadTwitterXML(URL:String):void { var urlLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); // When all the junk has been pulled in from the url, we'll fire finishedLoadingXML: urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, finishLoadingXML); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); } private function finishLoadingXML(e:Event = null):void { // All the junk has been pulled in from the xml! Hooray! // Remove the eventListener as a bit of housecleaning: e.target.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, finishLoadingXML); // Populate the xml object with the xml data: twitterXML = new XML(e.target.data); showTwitterStatus(); } private function addTextToField(text:String,field:TextField):void{ /*Regular expressions for replacement, g: replace all, i: no lower/upper case difference Finds all strings starting with "http://", followed by any number of characters niether space nor new line.*/ var reg:RegExp=/(\b(https?|ftp|file):\/\/[-A-Z0-9+&@#\/%?=~_|!:,.;]*[-A-Z0-9+&@#\/%=~_|])/ig; //Replaces Note: "$&" stands for the replaced string. text.replace(reg,"<a href=\"$&\">$&</a>"); field.htmlText=text; } private function showTwitterStatus():void { // Uncomment this line if you want to see all the fun stuff Twitter sends you: //trace(twitterXML); // Prep the text field to hold our latest Twitter update: twitter_txt.wordWrap = true; twitter_txt.autoSize = TextFieldAutoSize.LEFT; // Populate the text field with the first element in the status.text nodes: addTextToField(twitterXML.status.text[0], twitter_txt); }

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  • selective UnknownHostException

    - by Stephan
    Hi everybody! I am getting said Exception in my program, but only in certain cases. First of all, I have the internet permission set:<uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" />, and I tried the two method of this and this thread (they don't work in my case). The scenario is the following: I send a GET request to a rest service (e.g. http://my.web.site/request.php?attr=blah) and I do get a correct xml back. Now, in this xml there are some resources described, one of which is an url to an image (e.g http://my.web.site/images/img.jpg). Here it's where it fails! Here I consistently receive a UnknownHostException. I find it weird, since it's the same domain and everything. Accessing the img url from browser works (both from the emulator browser and pc browser). I tried from a device too but it doesn't get the image anyway. Any idea on why this weird behavior? EDIT: all my tests were on emulator and device, but connected to a wifi network. I tried also using the internet connection of my provider on the phone (i.e. bypassing home network), and still the behavior is the same... I found this bug which I assume is the source of this problem, but still no solution (after more than 1.5years). Any ideas?

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  • Accessing Application Scoped Bean Causes NullPointerException

    - by user2946861
    What is an Application Scoped Bean? I understand it to be a bean which will exist for the life of the application, but that doesn't appear to be the correct interpretation. I have an application which creates an application scoped bean on startup (eager=true) and then a session bean that tries to access the application scoped bean's objects (which are also application scoped). But when I try to access the application scoped bean from the session scoped bean, I get a null pointer exception. Here's excerpts from my code: Application Scoped Bean: @ManagedBean(eager=true) @ApplicationScoped public class Bean1 implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 12345L; protected ArrayList<App> apps; // construct apps so they are available for the session scoped bean // do time consuming stuff... // getters + setters Session Scoped Bean: @ManagedBean @SessionScoped public class Bean2 implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 123L; @Inject private Bean1 bean1; private ArrayList<App> apps = bean1.getApps(); // null pointer exception What appears to be happening is, Bean1 is created, does it's stuff, then is destroyed before Bean2 can access it. I was hoping using application scoped would keep Bean1 around until the container was shutdown, or the application was killed, but this doesn't appear to be the case.

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