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  • How do I run NUnit in debug mode from Visual Studio?

    - by Jon Cage
    I've recently been building a test framework for a bit of C# I've been working on. I have NUnit set up and a new project within my workspace to test the component. All works well if I load up my unit tests from Nunit (v2.4), but I've got to the point where it would be really useful to run in debug mode and set some break points. I've tried the suggestions from several guides which all suggest changing the 'Debug' properties of the test project: Start external program: C:\Program Files\NUnit 2.4.8\bin\nunit-console.exe Command line arguments: /assembly: <full-path-to-solution>\TestDSP\bin\Debug\TestDSP.dll I'm using the console version there, but have tried the calling the GUI as well. Both give me the same error when I try and start debugging: Cannot start test project 'TestDSP' because the project does not contain any tests. Is this because I normally load \DSP.nunit into the Nunit GUI and that's where the tests are held? I'm beginning to think the problem may be that VS wants to run it's own test framework and that's why it's failing to find the NUnit tests? [Edit] To those asking about test fixtures, one of my .cs files in the TestDSP project looks roughly like this: namespace Some.TestNamespace { // Testing framework includes using NUnit.Framework; [TestFixture] public class FirFilterTest { /// <summary> /// Tests that a FirFilter can be created /// </summary> [Test] public void Test01_ConstructorTest() { ...some tests... } } } ...I'm pretty new to C# and the Nunit test framework so it's entirely possible I've missed some crucial bit of information ;-) [FINAL SOLUTION] The big problem was the project I'd used. If you pick: Other Languages->Visual C#->Test->Test Project ...when you're choosing the project type, Visual Studio will try and use it's own testing framework as far as I can tell. You should pick a normal c# class library project instead and then the instructions in my selected answer will work.

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  • Where is the "ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush" located?

    - by Dimi Toulakis
    I have a problem understanding one style definition in Windows 8 metro apps. When you create a metro style application with VS, there is also a folder named Common created. Inside this folder there is file called StandardStyles.xaml Now the following snippet is from this file: <!-- Grid-appropriate 250 pixel square item template as seen in the GroupedItemsPage and ItemsPage --> <DataTemplate x:Key="Standard250x250ItemTemplate"> <Grid HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="250" Height="250"> <Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <Image Source="{Binding Image}" Stretch="UniformToFill"/> </Border> <StackPanel VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource TitleTextStyle}" Height="60" Margin="15,0,15,0"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Subtitle}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlaySecondaryForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource CaptionTextStyle}" TextWrapping="NoWrap" Margin="15,0,15,10"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </DataTemplate> What I do not understand here is the static resource definition, e.g. for the Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}" It is not about how you work with templates and binding and resources. Where is this ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush located? Many thanks for your help. Dimi

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  • What is the process involved in viewing a webservice in a browser from within visual studio?

    - by Sam Holder
    I have created a new VS2008 ASP.Net Web service project, with the default name WebService1. If I right click on the Service1.asmx file and select 'View in Browser' what are the processes that go on to make this happen? I am asking because I have a situation where when I run this from a visual studio project started in our development shell (which sets up a common build environment) I cannot get the web service to show up in the browser. It starts the asp.net development server and creates a single file: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c43ddc22\268ae91b\hash\hash.web but when I start it from a stand alone project i get a whole slew of files in here: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\App_Web_defaultwsdlhelpgenerator.aspx.cdcab7d2.vicgkf94.dll C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\service1.asmx.cdcab7d2.compiled etc etc I am trying to debug this but not really getting anywhere. i have inspected the output from VS but the only option I get is for the build output, which is basic and doesn't really contain any information that is useful. I have tried running both versions with DebugView running but no output there either. I would like to know if there are any log files I could look at, or if anyone has any suggestions on how I might be able to debug what is going wrong here? For completeness the output I get when it doesn't work is: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'WebService1.Service1'. Source Error: Line 1: Source File: /Service1.asmx Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082

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  • Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

    - by Don Kirkham
    Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

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  • Binding Entity Framework Collections Simply Using ASP.NET MVC

    - by jpcmorton
    To begin with: Using Entity Framework v4.0. ASP.NET MVC 2.0. Visual Studio 2010. I have a model that consists simply of an order & order items. What I want to do is simply bind that model without too much hassle where possible (avoiding type converters, etc). Simply the model looks like this: public class Order { public int ID { get; set; } public string OrderNumber { get; set; } public EntityCollection<OrderItem> Items { get; set; } } public class OrderItem { public int ID { get; set; } public string Qty { get; set; } } This is as simple as I want to keep it. This model is coming directly from the code generated by the entity framework generator. I would prefer to use the model directly from the entity framework (I know there are views saying this is a bad thing, but alas). I then have the View looking like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%: Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ID) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.OrderNumber) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> </div> <div id="lineItems"> Where I need to put my line items to be edited, inserted </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> What I want to do is have a situation where I can use dynamic line items (using javascript). Problems are this: How to go about inserting the initial line item (within the lineItems div). This need to be strongly typed and use the built in validation framework of MVC. Best way to go about inserting line items dynamically so that on the postback there is a complete bind to the model without too much messing around (id = 1,2,3,4, etc). Any help, examples, tips, etc would be appreciated.

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  • DataGridView: Scroll bar does not refreshed

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am working (fixing bugs) on a project which was written in VS 2005. There is one DataGridView control on a form. When it is first time loaded, the control's data grid is populated with rows of data from a collection manually or in codes. Actually, there is method PopulateDataGrid() do the job. There is also another control on the form. When control is changed, the data grid will be cleared first and then rows are repopulated again through PopulateDataGrid(). The problem is that when the grid is refreshed, the vertical scroll bar does not get reset correctly. I thought it should be. Since the scroll bar is not reset, when I tried to click on grid and move down, I got exception: the max value of scroll bar was exceeded. All the settings for grid control are default values. For example, the ScrollBars is Both. The following is the only related place to set row auto size property: poDataGridView.AutoSizeRowsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeRowsMode.DisplayedCellsExceptHeaders; I am not sure if there is any property I have to set in designer?

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  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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  • Web service client receiving generic FaultException rather than FaultException<T>

    - by Junto
    I am connecting to a Java Axis2 web service using a .NET web service client. The client itself targets the .NET 3.5 framework. The application that wraps the client DLL is 2.0. I'm not sure if that has any bearing. I have been given the WSDL and XSDs by email. From those I have built my proxy class using svcutil. Although I am able to successfully send messages, I am unable to pick up the correct faults when something goes wrong. In the example below, errors are always being picked up by the generic FaultException. catch (FaultException<InvoiceErrorType> fex) { OnLog(enLogLevel.ERROR, fex.Detail.ErrorDescription); } catch (FaultException gfex) { OnLog(enLogLevel.ERROR, gfex.Message); } The proxy client appears to have the appropriate attributes for the FaultContract: // CODEGEN: Generating message contract since the operation SendInvoiceProvider_Prod is neither RPC nor document wrapped. [OperationContractAttribute(Action = "https://private/SendInvoiceProvider", ReplyAction = "*")] [FaultContractAttribute(typeof(InvoiceErrorType), Action = "https://private/SendInvoiceProvider", Name = "InvoiceError", Namespace = "urn:company:schema:entities:base")] [XmlSerializerFormatAttribute(SupportFaults = true)] [ServiceKnownTypeAttribute(typeof(ItemDetail))] [ServiceKnownTypeAttribute(typeof(Supplier))] OutboundComponent.SendInvoiceProviderResponse SendInvoiceProvider_Prod(OutboundComponent.SendInvoiceProvider_Request request); I have enabled tracing and I can see the content of the fault coming back, but .NET is not recognizing it as an InvoiceError. The SOAP fault in full is: <soapenv:Fault> <faultcode xmlns="">soapenv:Client</faultcode> <faultstring xmlns="">Message found to be invalid</faultstring> <faultactor xmlns="">urn:SendInvoiceProvider</faultactor> <detail xmlns=""> <InvoiceError xmlns="urn:company:schema:entities:common:invoiceerror:v01"> <ErrorID>100040</ErrorID> <ErrorType>UNEXPECTED</ErrorType> <ErrorDescription>&lt;![CDATA[&lt;error xmlns="urn:company:schema:errordetail:v01"&gt;&lt;errorCode&gt;1000&lt;/errorCode&gt;&lt;highestSeverity&gt;8&lt;/highestSeverity&gt;&lt;errorDetails count="1"&gt;&lt;errorDetail&gt;&lt;errorType&gt;1&lt;/errorType&gt;&lt;errorSeverity&gt;8&lt;/errorSeverity&gt;&lt;errorDescription&gt;cvc-complex-type.2.4.a: Invalid content was found starting with element 'CompanyName'. One of '{"urn:company:schema:sendinvoice:rq:v01":RoleType}' is expected.&lt;/errorDescription&gt;&lt;errorNamespace&gt;urn:company:schema:sendinvoice:rq:v01&lt;/errorNamespace&gt;&lt;errorNode&gt;CompanyName&lt;/errorNode&gt;&lt;errorLine&gt;1&lt;/errorLine&gt;&lt;errorColumn&gt;2556&lt;/errorColumn&gt;&lt;errorXPath/&gt;&lt;errorSource/&gt;&lt;/errorDetail&gt;&lt;/errorDetails&gt;&lt;/error&gt;]]&gt;</ErrorDescription> <TimeStamp>2010-05-04T21:12:10Z</TimeStamp> </InvoiceError> </detail> </soapenv:Fault> I have noticed the namespace defined on the error: <InvoiceError xmlns="urn:company:schema:entities:common:invoiceerror:v01"> This is nowhere to be seen in the generated proxy class, nor in the WSDLs. The interface WSDL defines the error schema namespace as such: <xs:import namespace="urn:company:schema:entities:base" schemaLocation="InvoiceError.xsd"/> Could this be the reason why the .NET client is not able to parse the typed Fault Exception correctly? I have no control over the web service itself. I see no reason why .NET can't talk to a Java Axis2 web service. This user had a similar issue, but the reason for his problem cannot be the same as mine, since I can see the fault detail in the trace: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/864800/does-wcf-faultexceptiont-support-interop-with-a-java-web-service-fault Any help would be gratefully received.

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

    - by Joshua Starner
    I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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  • Java ternary operator and boxing Integer/int?

    - by Markus
    I tripped across a really strange NullPointerException the other day caused by an unexpected type-cast in the ternary operator. Given this (useless exemplary) function: Integer getNumber() { return null; } I was expecting the following two code segments to be exactly identical after compilation: Integer number; if (condition) { number = getNumber(); } else { number = 0; } vs. Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; . Turns out, if condition is true, the if-statement works fine, while the ternary opration in the second code segment throws a NullPointerException. It seems as though the ternary operation has decided to type-cast both choices to int before auto-boxing the result back into an Integer!?! In fact, if I explicitly cast the 0 to Integer, the exception goes away. In other words: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; is not the same as: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : (Integer) 0; . So, it seems that there is a byte-code difference between the ternary operator and an equivalent if-else-statement (something I didn't expect). Which raises three questions: Why is there a difference? Is this a bug in the ternary implementation or is there a reason for the type cast? Given there is a difference, is the ternary operation more or less performant than an equivalent if-statement (I know, the difference can't be huge, but still)?

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  • Open source real life license examples: yours or others

    - by donpal
    I'm aware of the usual list of open source licenses, so I'm not even going to list it here. What I'd like to ask is about your open source projects (whether out or planned for the future), and why you're planning to choose a certain license over the other. Basically say I went for X license because I wanted Y and that other license didn't provide it for me. I understand that the language itself can make a difference in the choice of license: interpreted languages like PHP vs. compiled languages like Java. I'm mostly interested in hearing about PHP projects, but of course additional insights are welcome. You may even have chosen that particular language for a licensing reason. Ideally I want to hear answers from people who were involved in the actual project (i.e. your own project), because that usually means you've put some thought into the license yourself and understand the implications of that license. But examples of existing projects that aren't your own are OK. Please just say why you think that license was good/bad for them. But first-hand experience is preferred. Looking forward to hearing some informative input.

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  • Idiomatic PHP web page creation

    - by GreenMatt
    My PHP experience is rather limited. I've just inherited some stuff that looks odd to me, and I'd like to know if this is a standard way to do things. The page which shows up in the browser location (e.g. www.example.com/example_page) has something like: <? $title = "Page Title"; $meta = "Some metadata"; require("pageheader.inc"); ?> <!-- Content --> Then pageheader.inc has stuff like: <? @$title = ($title) ? $title : ""; @$meta = ($meta) ? $meta : ""; ?> <html> <head> <title><?=$title?></title </head> <!-- and so forth --> Maybe others find this style useful, but it confuses me. I suppose this could be a step toward a rudimentary content management system, but the way it works here I'd think it adds to the processing the server has to do without reducing the load on the web developer enough to make it worth the effort. So, is this a normal way to create pages with PHP? Or should I pull all this in favor of a better approach? Also, I know that "<?" (vs. "<?php" ) is undesirable; I'm just reproducing what is in the code.

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  • Are certain open-source licenses more suitable than others for career growth?

    - by Francisco Garcia
    As a software engineer/programmer myself, I love the possibility to download the code and learn from it. However building software is what brings food to my table. I have doubts regarding the type of license I should use for my own personal projects or when picking up one project to learn from. There are already many questions about licenses on Stackoverflow, but I would like to make this one much more specific. If your main profession and way of living is building software: which type of license do you find more useful for you? And I mean, the license that can benefit you most as a professional because it gives you more freedom to reuse the experience you gain. GPL is a great license to build communities because it forces you to give back your work. However I like BSD licenses because of their extra freedom. I know that if the code I am exploring is BSD licensed, I might be able to expand not only my skills, but also my programmer toolbox. Whenever I am working for a company, I might recall that something similar was done in another project and I will be able to copy or imitate certain part of the code. I know that there are religious wars regarding GPL vs BSD and it is not my intention to start one. Probably many companies already take snipsets from GPL projects anyway. I just want to insist in the factor of professional enrichment. I do not intend to discriminate any license. I said I prefer BSD licenses but I also use Linux because the user base is bigger and also the market demand.

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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • Why does Android allocate more memory than needed when loading images

    - by Simon
    Folks, I don't think that this is a duplicate and is NOT one of those how do I avoid OOMs questions. This is a genuine quest for knowledge so hold off on those down votes please... Imagine I have a JPEG of 500x500 pixels. I load it as ARGB_8888 which is as "bad as it gets". I would expect Android to allocate 500x500x4 bytes = a little under 1MB however, look at a heap dump and you will see that Android allocates significantly more, often factors of 5-10 times greater. You frequently see questions on here about OOMS where the stack trace shows a heap request of say 15MB and it is ALWAYS much larger than is required simply to hold the bytes of the image. The OP usually catches some downvotes then is bombarded with stock answers and comments about using less memory (thanks Romain!) and in scaling. I think there is more than meets the eye here. Anybody know why this is? If there is no apparent answer, I will put together an SSCCE if it helps. PS. I assume that JPEG vs PNG etc is irrelevant since we're talking about the memory usage of the backing bitmap which is simply x times y times BPP - or am I being slow?

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  • A good data model for finding a user's favorite stories

    - by wings
    Original Design Here's how I originally had my Models set up: class UserData(db.Model): user = db.UserProperty() favorites = db.ListProperty(db.Key) # list of story keys # ... class Story(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() # ... On every page that displayed a story I would query UserData for the current user: user_data = UserData.all().filter('user =' users.get_current_user()).get() story_is_favorited = (story in user_data.favorites) New Design After watching this talk: Google I/O 2009 - Scalable, Complex Apps on App Engine, I wondered if I could set things up more efficiently. class FavoriteIndex(db.Model): favorited_by = db.StringListProperty() The Story Model is the same, but I got rid of the UserData Model. Each instance of the new FavoriteIndex Model has a Story instance as a parent. And each FavoriteIndex stores a list of user id's in it's favorited_by property. If I want to find all of the stories that have been favorited by a certain user: index_keys = FavoriteIndex.all(keys_only=True).filter('favorited_by =', users.get_current_user().user_id()) story_keys = [k.parent() for k in index_keys] stories = db.get(story_keys) This approach avoids the serialization/deserialization that's otherwise associated with the ListProperty. Efficiency vs Simplicity I'm not sure how efficient the new design is, especially after a user decides to favorite 300 stories, but here's why I like it: A favorited story is associated with a user, not with her user data On a page where I display a story, it's pretty easy to ask the story if it's been favorited (without calling up a separate entity filled with user data). fav_index = FavoriteIndex.all().ancestor(story).get() fav_of_current_user = users.get_current_user().user_id() in fav_index.favorited_by It's also easy to get a list of all the users who have favorited a story (using the method in #2) Is there an easier way? Please help. How is this kind of thing normally done?

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  • Quality of TFS 2008 merged code

    - by paologios
    Does the quality of code merged by TFS 2008 depend on the used programming language? I know merging in Java / Subversion, and merging a branch to its trunk usually does not create much conflicts. Now in my company, we use VB.NET. When I merge two files TFS does not always get code blocks right, e.g. does not find the right If..then / end if lines. To give you an example, I mean: File 2 is created as a branch of File 1. Both files were changed later, now I'm going to merge those files and am recieving conficts: The marked end-if lines (1) are detected as corresponding, meaning the added event handler Button1_Click is being deleted. Now I wonder if this behavior is by language (C# vs. VB.NET) or are other source control solutions just better than TFS? (And I really liked TFS up to now :) ) File 1: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then Label1.Text = "Hello" Label2.Text = "World" End If End Sub Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender, ByVal e as System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click // .... If Page.IsValid Then Label3.Text = "Hello Button 2" End If // .... End Sub File 2 (Branch of File 1): Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then fillTableFromDatabase() End If // (1) End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender, ByVal e as System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click // do something here End Sub Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender, ByVal e as System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click // .... If Page.IsValid Then End If // (1) // .... End Sub

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  • Installing Team Explorer 2008 on Windows Server 2003

    - by BriteShiny
    I am attempting to install Team Explorer 2008 on a Windows Server 2008 box, without success, which is why I am here. The error log reveals the following: [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): d:.\wcu\ppe\vside.exe exited with return value 1 [07/02/10,10:07:03] InstallReturnValue: GFN_MID VS PPE, 0x1 [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Error code 1 for this component means "Incorrect function. " [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Component Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode) returned an unexpected value. [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Return from system messaging: Incorrect function. Apparently the Team Explorer 2008 is incompatible with Windows Server 2008. If you right click on the setup.exe in the TFS Explorer ISO and run a compatibility check it fails. There is a separate installer package to install the VS2008 Shell that is compatible with Windows 2008, but it fails too. Has anyone else been able to install Team Explorer 2008 on Windows Server 2008?

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  • Short names versus long names in Windows

    - by normski
    I have some code which gets the short name from a file path, using GetShortNameW(), and then later retrieves the long name view GetLongNameA(). The original file is of the form "C:/ProgramData/My Folder/File.ext" However, following conversion to short, then back to long, the filename becomes "C:/Program Files/My Folder/Filename.ext". The short name is of the form "C:/PROGRA~2/MY_FOL~1/FIL~1.EXT" The short name is being incorrectly resolved. The code compiles using VS 2005 on Windows 7 (I cannot upgrade the project to VS2008) Does anybody have any idea why this might be happening? DWORD pathLengthNeeded = ::GetShortPathNameW(aRef->GetFilePath().c_str(), NULL, 0); if(pathLengthNeeded != 0) { WCHAR* shortPath = new WCHAR[pathLengthNeeded]; DWORD newPathNameLength = ::GetShortPathNameW(aRef->GetFilePath().c_str(), shortPath, pathLengthNeeded); if(newPathNameLength != 0) { UI_STRING unicodePath(shortPath); std::string asciiPath = StringFromUserString(unicodePath); pathLengthNeeded = ::GetLongPathNameA(asciiPath.c_str(),NULL, 0); if(pathLengthNeeded != 0) {// convert it back to a long path if possible. For goodness sake can't we use Unicode throughout?F char* longPath = new char[pathLengthNeeded]; DWORD newPathNameLength = ::GetLongPathNameA(asciiPath.c_str(), longPath, pathLengthNeeded); if(newPathNameLength != 0) { std::string longPathString(longPath, newPathNameLength); asciiPath = longPathString; } delete [] longPath; } SetFullPathName(asciiPath); } delete [] shortPath; }

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  • ImageViews sometimes not displaying in FrameLayout activity

    - by Ken
    The top level layout in my activity is a framelayout. I have completed, debugged and tested this app and it works exactly like it should in all respects on my g1 and on various emulators. But on 3.7-inch displays running 2.1+, some imageviews packed in a linearlayout are periodically not visible. I know that they are there because you can touch and drag them with effect in the app. So I assume somehow they have gotten under the SurfaceView that is the main component of the app. This is apparently so even though the SurfaceView is declared in the xml prior to the LinearLayout. However, the ImageViews IN the LinearLayout are added programmatically towards the end of onCreate(). Framelayout stacks everything that is added to it, one on top of the other--the only way you will see more than one child of a frame layout is if they are smaller than the screen and are placed apart from eachother. Oddly, sometimes the imageviews ARE visible--it is random. Anyway, I've been trying to combat this with framelayout.bringChildToFront(View v) on the linearlayout without success. I wonder if anyone has any insight into how the behavior could be random like that, and how I should code these imageviews to keep this from happening, and why the problem appears only to occur on 3.7 vs 3.2 inch screens (as it happens, the two 3.2-inch screens were both htc, so vendor might be factor too). [edit] Actually, I've determined that this is a 2.2 issue, not a screen size (or even vendor) issue. Can't ensure that ImageViews added to a framelayout with a SurfaceView in it will appear on top of the surfaceview. I ran some tests in the respective onDraw() methods and the imageviews are 'visible' (0), and nothing does anything to the alpha of the drawables, which are there as well at ondraw(). [/edit] Any insight would be welcomed. Ken T.

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  • What features are heavily used in C# 2.0, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how to workaround?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I don't want a war between VBNET and C# developpers, neither is my goal to open a C# VS VBNET confrontation. I would like you all to list a feature that is heavily used in C#, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how would you work around to achieve a similar behaviour or purpose? For example: C# Accepts void (return) lambda expressions. Here's an example with FNH mapping: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); This is impossible to do before VBNET 4.0 (supposed to be doable in VBNET 4.0) VBNET Must write a helping method (Sub), and provide the AddressOf this method in order to workaround. Private Sub Helper(ByVal m As MType) m.Map(Function(x) x.Number) m.Map(Function(x) x.Street) m.Map(Function(x) x.PostCode) End Sub ... Component(Function(x) x.Address, AddressOf Helper) Now I know, it is not VBNET 2.0, but this is an example. VBNET 3.0 and 3.5 can used too. Please just mention what version of VBNET this refers to.

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  • Native Endians and Auto Conversion

    - by KnickerKicker
    so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

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  • Is this a bug? Or is it a setting in ASP.NET 4 (or MVC 2)?

    - by John Gietzen
    I just recently started trying out T4MVC and I like the idea of eliminating magic strings. However, when trying to use it on my master page for my stylesheets, I get this: <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> rending like this: <link href="&lt;%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Whereas these render correctly: <link href="<%: Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css") %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css + "" %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> It appears that, as long as I have double quotes inside of the code segment, it works. But when I put anything else in there, it escapes the leading "less than". Is this something I can turn off? Is this a bug? Edit: This does not happen for <script src="..." ... />, nor does it happen for <a href="...">. Edit 2: Minimal case: <link href="<%: string.Empty %>" /> vs <link href="<%: "" %>" />

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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