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  • Standard -server to server- and -browser to server- authentication method

    - by jeruki
    I have server with some resources; until now all these resources were requested through a browser by a human user, and the authentication was made with an username/password method, that generates a cookie with a token (to have the session open for some time). Right now the system requires that other servers make GET requests to this resource server but they have to authenticate to get them. We have been using a list of authorized IPs but having two authentication methods makes the code more complex. My questions are: Is there any standard method or pattern to authenticate human users and servers using the same code? If there is not, are the methods I'm using now the right ones or is there a better / more standard way to accomplish what I need? Thanks in advance for any suggestion.

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  • Consuming ASMX and WCF Services using jQuery

    - by bipinjoshi
    In the previous part I demonstrated how jQuery animations can add some jazz to your web forms. Now let's see one of the most important feature of jQuery that you will probably use in all data driven websites - accessing server data. In the previous articles you used jQuery methods such as $.get() to make a GET request to the server. More powerful feature, however, is to make AJAX calls to ASP.NET Web Services, Page Methods and WCF services. The $.ajax() method of jQuery allows you to access these services. In fact $.get() method you used earlier internally makes use of $.ajax() method but restricts itself only to GET requests. The $.ajax() method provides more control on how the services are called.http://www.bipinjoshi.net/articles/479571df-7786-4c50-8db6-a798f195471a.aspx

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  • Web api authentication techniques

    - by Steve
    We have a asp.net MVC web service framework for serving out xml/json for peoples Get requests but are struggling to figure out the best way (fast, easy, trivial for users coding with javascript or OO languages) to authenticate users. It's not that our data is sensitive or anything, we just want users to register so we can have their email address to notify them of changes and track usage. In our previous attempt we had the username in the URI and would just make sure that username existed and increment db tables with usage. This was super basic but we'd notice people using demo as a username etc so we need it to be a little more sophisticated. What authentication techniques are available? What do the major players use/do.

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  • How to handle fine grained field-based ACL permissions in a RESTful service?

    - by Jason McClellan
    I've been trying to design a RESTful API and have had most of my questions answered, but there is one aspect of permissions that I'm struggling with. Different roles may have different permissions and different representations of a resource. For example, an Admin or the user himself may see more fields in his own User representation vs another less-privileged user. This is achieved simply by changing the representation on the backend, ie: deciding whether or not to include those fields. Additionally, some actions may be taken on a resource by some users and not by others. This is achieved by deciding whether or not to include those action items as links, eg: edit and delete links. A user who does not have edit permissions will not have an edit link. That covers nearly all of my permission use cases, but there is one that I've not quite figured out. There are some scenarios whereby for a given representation of an object, all fields are visible for two or more roles, but only a subset of those roles my edit certain fields. An example: { "person": { "id": 1, "name": "Bob", "age": 25, "occupation": "software developer", "phone": "555-555-5555", "description": "Could use some sunlight.." } } Given 3 users: an Admin, a regular User, and Bob himself (also a regular User), I need to be able to convey to the front end that: Admins may edit all fields, Bob himself may edit all fields, but a regular User, while they can view all fields, can only edit the description field. I certainly don't want the client to have to make the determination (or even, for that matter, to have any notion of the roles involved) but I do need a way for the backend to convey to the client which fields are editable. I can't simply use a combination of representation (the fields returned for viewing) and links (whether or not an edit link is availble) in this scenario since it's more finely grained. Has anyone solved this elegantly without adding the logic directly to the client?

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  • WCF + AppFabric training (4+1 days)

    - by Sahil Malik
    SharePoint 2010 Training: more information If there is one part of .NET that I think is the most important for you to master, it has to be WCF. It is something I have used, learnt, and talked about extensively. If there is one part of future looking technologies that I think will be extremely important going forward, it is AppFabric, both for Windows Server and Windows Azure. Both these topics are so incredibly valuable that I exude with excitement every time I touch them or talk about them. I have finally put together an exhaustive training on these two extremely relevant and important technologies, that you as a .NET developer must know. Here are the details, Read full article ....

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  • Applying DDD principles in a RESTish web service

    - by Andy
    I am developing an RESTish web service. I think I got the idea of the difference between aggregation and composition. Aggregation does not enforce lifecycle/scope on the objects it references. Composition does enforce lifecycle/scope on the objects it contain/own. If I delete a composite object then all the objects it contain/own are deleted as well, while the deleting an aggregate root does not delete referenced objects. 1) If it is true that deleting aggregate roots does not necessary delete referenced objects, what sense does it make to not have a repository for the references objects? Or are aggregate roots as a term referring to what is known as composite object? 2) When you create an web service you will have multiple endpoints, in my case I have one entity Book and another named Comment. It does not make sense to leave the comments in my application if the book is deleted. Therefore, book is a composite object. I guess I should not have a repository for comments since that would break the enforcement of lifecycle and rules that the book class may have. However I have URL such as (examples only): GET /books/1/comments POST /books/1/comments Now, if I do not have a repository for comments, does that mean I have to load the book object and then return the referenced comments? Am I allowed to return a list of Comment entities from the BookRepository, does that make sense? The repository for Book may eventually become rather big with all sorts of methods. Am I allowed to write JPQL (JPA queries) that targets comments and not books inside the repository? What about pagination and filtering of comments. When adding a new comment triggered by the POST endpoint, do you need to load the book, add the comment to the book, and then update the whole book object? What I am currently doing is having a own CommentRepository, even though the comments are deleted with the book. I could need some direction on how to do it correct. Since you are exposing not only root objects in RESTish services I wonder how to handle this at the backend. I am using Hibernate and Spring.

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  • How should I handle a redirect to an identity provider during a web api data request

    - by Erds
    Scenario I have a single-page web app consisting purely of html, css, and javascript. After initial load and during use, it updates various views with data from one or more RESTful apis via ajax calls. The api calls return data in a json format. Each web api may be hosted on independent domains. Question During the ajax callout, if my authorization token is not deemed valid by the web api, the web api will redirect me (302) to the identity provider for that particular api. Since this is an ajax callout for data and not necessarily for display, i need to find a way to display the identity provider's authentication page. It seems that I should trap that redirect, and open up another view to display the identity provider's login page. Once the oauth series of redirects is complete, i need to grab the token and retrigger my ajax data call with the token attached. Is this a valid approach, and if so are there any examples showing the ajax handling of the redirects?

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  • How to indicate to a web server the language of a resource

    - by Nik M
    I'm writing an HTTP API to a publishing server, and I want resources with representations in multiple languages. A user whose client GETs a resource which has Korean, Japanese and Trad. Chinese representations, and sends Accept-Language: en, ja;q=0.7 should get the Japanese. One resource, identified by one URI, will therefore have a number of different language representations. This seems to me like a totally orthodox use of content negotiation and multiple resource representations. But when each translator comes to provide these alternate language representations to the server, what's the correct way to instruct the server which language to store the representation under? I'm having the translators PUT the representation in its entirety to the same URI, but I can't find out how to do this elegantly. Content-Language is a response header, and none of the request headers seem to fit the bill. It seems my options are Invent a new request header Supply additional metadata in a multipart/related document Provide language as a parameter to the Content-Type of the request, like Content-Type: text/html;language=en I don't want to get into the business of extending HTTP, and I don't feel great about bundling extra metadata into the representation. Neither approach seems friendly to HTTP caches either. So option 3 seems like the best way that I can think of, but even then it's decidedly non-standard to put my own specific parameters on a very well established content type. Is there any by-the-book way of achieving this?

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  • POST and PUT requests – is it just the convention?

    - by bckpwrld
    I've read quite a few articles on the difference between POST and PUT and in when the two should be used. But there are still few things confusing me ( hopefully questions will make some sense ): 1) We should use PUT to create resources when we want clients to specify the URI of the newly created resources and we should use POST to create resources when we let service generate the URI of the newly created resources. a) Is it just by convention that POST create request doesn't contain an URI of the newly created resource or POST create request actually can't contain the URI of the newly created resource? b) PUT has idempotent semantics and thus can be safely used for absolute updates ( ie we send entire state of the resource to the server ), but not also for relative updates ( ie we send just changes to the resource state ), since that would violate its semantics. But I assume it's still possible for PUT to send relative updates to the server, it's just that in that case the PUT update won't be idempotent? 2) I've read somewhere that we should "use POST to append a resource to a collection identified by a service-generated URI". a) What exactly does that mean? That if URIs for the resources were generated by a server ( thus the resources were created via POST ), then ALL subsequent resources should also be created via POST? Thus, in such situation no resource should be created via PUT? b) If my assumption under a) is correct, could you elaborate why we shouldn't create some resources via POST and some via PUT ( assuming server already contains a collection of resources created via POST )? REPLY: 1) Please correct me if I'm wrong, but from your post and from the link you've posted, it seems: a) The Request-URI in POST is interpreted by server as the URI of the service. Thus, it could just as easily be interpreted as an URI of a newly created resource, if server code was written to recognize Request-URI as such b) Similarly, PUT is able to send relative updates, it's just that service code is usually written such that it will complain if PUT updates are relative. 2) Usually, create has fallen into the POST camp, because of the idea of "appending to a collection." It's become the way to append a resource to a list of resources. I don't quite understand the reasoning behind the idea of "appending to a collection" and why this idea prefers POST for create. Namely, if we create 10 resources via PUT, then server will contain a collection of 10 resources and if we then create another resource, then server will append this resource to that collection ( which will now contain 11 resources )?! Uh, this is kinda confusing thank you

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  • WCF Firestarter Online Saturday 6/19/2010

    This weekend is the WCF Firestarter in New York City.  Registration to attend in person is SOLD OUT and were looking forward to a full house in the Big Apple on Saturday!  You can see the event agenda at Peter Laudatis blog, as well as at MSDN Events.  Firestarter events have been quite popular wherever Microsoft has hosted them around the country. Are you NOT in New York this weekend and feeling a little left out?  Dont worry we know there are plenty of folks who dont live...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • URIs and Resource vs Resource representation

    - by bckpwrld
    URL is an URI which identifies a resource by location. Resource representation is a view of resource's state. This view is encoded in one or more transferable formats, such as XHTML, Atom, XML, MP3 ... URIs associate resource representations with their resources a) So I assume URI identifies a resource and not resource representation? b) I've read that relationship between an URI and resource representation is one to many. Assuming we're talking about URL, how can a single URL address more than one resource representation? thank you

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  • Using a random string to authenticate HMAC?

    - by mrwooster
    I am designing a simple webservice and want to use HMAC for authentication to the service. For the purpose of this question we have: a web service at example.com a secret key shared between a user and the server [K] a consumer ID which is known to the user and the server (but is not necessarily secret) [D] a message which we wish to send to the server [M] The standard HMAC implementation would involve using the secret key [K] and the message [M] to create the hash [H], but I am running into issues with this. The message [M] can be quite long and tends to be read from a file. I have found its very difficult to produce a correct hash consistently across multiple operating systems and programming languages because of hidden characters which make it into various file formats. This is of course bad implementation on the client side (100%), but I would like this webservice to be easily accessible and not have trouble with different file formats. I was thinking of an alternative, which would allow the use a short (5-10 char) random string [R] rather than the message for autentication, e.g. H = HMAC(K,R) The user then passes the random string to the server and the server checks the HMAC server side (using random string + shared secret). As far as I can see, this produces the following issues: There is no message integrity - this is ok message integrity is not important for this service A user could re-use the hash with a different message - I can see 2 ways around this Combine the random string with a timestamp so the hash is only valid for a set period of time Only allow each random string to be used once Since the client is in control of the random string, it is easier to look for collisions I should point out that the principle reason for authentication is to implement rate limiting on the API service. There is zero need for message integrity, and its not a big deal if someone can forge a single request (but it is if they can forge a very large number very quickly). I know that the correct answer is to make sure the message [M] is the same on all platforms/languages before hashing it. But, taking that out of the equation, is the above proposal an acceptable 2nd best?

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  • Should HTTP Verbs Be Used Semantically?

    - by Xophmeister
    If I'm making a web application which integrates with a server-side backend, would it be considered best practice to use HTTP methods semantically? That is, for example, if I'm fetching data (e.g., to populate a menu, etc.), I would use GET, but to update data (e.g., save a record), I would use POST. (I realise there are other methods that may be even more appropriate, but we need to consider browser support.) I can see the benefits of this in the sense that it's effectively a RESTful API, but at a slightly increased development cost. In my previous projects, I've POST'd everything: Is it worth switching to a RESTful mindset simply for the sake of best practice?

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  • Alternatives to OAuth?

    - by sdolgy
    The Web industry is shifting / has shifted towards using OAuth when extending API services to external consumers & developers. There is some elegance in simple....and well, the 3-step OAuth process isn't too bad ... i just find it is the best of a bad bunch of options. Are there alternatives out there that could be better, and more secure? The security reference is derived from the following URLs: http://www.infoq.com/news/2010/09/oauth2-bad-for-web http://hueniverse.com/2010/09/oauth-2-0-without-signatures-is-bad-for-the-web/

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  • WCF RIA Services - Hands On Lab

    At the keynote for the Silverlight 4 Launch alongside Scott Guthrie I demonstrated (minute 28 to minute 38) how to build a Silverlight 4 application using WCF RIA Services and the new Visual Studio 2010 tooling. The application I built is an online book store to rival the big boys OK, well, maybe not the big boys but you get the idea. As promised I am elaborating on the presentation and breaking down the steps to create the application here. I included the starter solution and the completed...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • Initiating processing in a RESTful manner

    - by tom
    Let's say you have a resource that you can do normal PUT/POST/GET operations on. It represents a BLOB of data and the methods retrieve representations of the data, be they metadata about the BLOB or the BLOB itself. The resource is something that can be processed by the server on request. In this instance a file that can be parsed multiple times. How do I initiate that processing? It's a bit RPC like. Is there best practice around this? (First time on programmers. This is the right place for this sort of question, right?)

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  • how should I change the representation (not mimetype) of a resource?

    - by xenoterracide
    I'm looking at how I can change the representation of a payload at runtime for varied potential advantages, but I'm not sure how to do it. Specifically collections. Array of Pairs [{ <resource_uri> : { <entity> }, ...}] Array of Objects [<entity>,...] Array of Resources [<resource_uri>] Map of entities { <resource_uri> : { <entity> }, ... } My problem is, I'm not sure if I should put these different representations of the sets at different URI's, give them slightly varied mime types, e.g. application/foomap+json or perhaps use an optional query parameter ?format=map, or resource /entities/map. The UI is going to hide this, this is for programmatic web service access only (which the "UI's JS will have to call).

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  • Is is OK to use a non-primary key as the id in a rails resource?

    - by nPn
    I am getting ready to set up a resource for some new api calls to my rails application. I am planning on calling the resource devices ie resources :devices This is going to represent a android mobile devices I know this will get me routes such as GET devices/:id In most cases :id would be an integer representing the primary key, and in the controller we would use :id as such: GET devices/1 @device = Device.find(params[:id]) In this case I would like to use :id as the google_cloud_messaging_reg_id So I would like to have requests like this: GET devices/some_long_gcm_id and then in the controller , just us params[:id] to look up the device by the gcm registration id. This seem more natural, since the device will know it's gcm id rather than it's rails integer id. Are there any reasons I should avoid doing this?

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  • Silverlight 4 Tools, WCF RIA Services and Themes Released

    This morning we published the final release of the Silverlight 4 Tools for Visual Studio and WCF RIA Services. In April, when Silverlight 4 was released, the tools were still in RC status. Today, they are no longer and are officially released. There is no new update to Silverlight itself, but these tools are the final bits of this version. Get the Tools If you have a clean machine you can get everything you need using the Web Platform Installer by clicking on the link at the Silverlight community...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • Building Website with JAX-RS (Jersey)

    - by 0xMG
    Is it discouraged/not-common to build Websites (not web-services!) using Jersey or any other JAX-RS implementation ? I didn't find any guide/tutorial/article regarding that.. At first impression , it seems to me that building website using Jersey (with JSPs as Viewables) is easier and more efficient than using Servlets & JSPs. If anyone did it before , I will be pleased to get tips, Do's & Don'ts, best practices etc... And maybe a good tutorial.

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  • System.AccessViolationException when calling DLL from WCF on IIS.

    - by Wodzu
    Hi guys. I've created just a test WCF service in which I need to call an external DLL. Everything works fine under Visutal Studio development server. However, when I try to use my service on IIS I am getting this error: Exception: System.AccessViolationException Message: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The stack trace leeds to the call of DLL which is presented below. After a lot of reading and experimenting I am almost sure that the error is caused by wrong passing strings to the called function. Here is how the wrapper for DLL looks like: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Text; using System; using System.Security; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace cdn_api_wodzu { public class cdn_api_wodzu { [DllImport("cdn_api.dll", CharSet=CharSet.Ansi)] // [SecurityPermission(SecurityAction.Assert, Unrestricted = true)] public static extern int XLLogin([In, Out] XLLoginInfo _lLoginInfo, ref int _lSesjaID); } [Serializable, StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public class XLLoginInfo { public int Wersja; public int UtworzWlasnaSesje; public int Winieta; public int TrybWsadowy; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 0x29)] public string ProgramID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 0x15)] public string Baza; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 9)] public string OpeIdent; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 9)] public string OpeHaslo; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 200)] public string PlikLog; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 0x65)] public string SerwerKlucza; public XLLoginInfo() { } } } this is how I call the DLL function: int ErrorID = 0; int SessionID = 0; XLLoginInfo Login; Login = new XLLoginInfo(); Login.Wersja = 18; Login.UtworzWlasnaSesje = 1; Login.Winieta = -1; Login.TrybWsadowy = 1; Login.ProgramID = "TestProgram"; Login.Baza = "TestBase"; Login.OpeIdent = "TestUser"; Login.OpeHaslo = "TestPassword"; Login.PlikLog = "C:\\LogFile.txt"; Login.SerwerKlucza = "MyServ\\MyInstance"; ErrorID = cdn_api_wodzu.cdn_api_wodzu.XLLogin(Login, ref SessionID); When I comment all the string field assigments the function works - it returns me an error message that the program ID has not been given. But when I try to assign a ProgramID (or any other string fields, or all at once) then I am getting the mentioned exception. I am using VS2008 SP.1, WinXP and IIS 5.1. Maybe the ISS itself is a problem? I've tried all the workarounds that has been described here: http://forums.asp.net/t/675515.aspx Thansk for your time. After edit: Installing Windows 2003 Server and IIS 6.0 solved the problem.

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  • How can I generate a client proxy for a WCF service with an HTTPS endpoint?

    - by ng5000
    Might be the same issue as this previuos question: WCF Proxy but not sure... I have an HTTPS service connfigured to use transport security and, I hope, Windows credentials. The service is only accessed internally (i.e. within the intranet). The configuration is as follows: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="WCFTest.CalculatorService" behaviorConfiguration="WCFTest.CalculatorBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress = "https://localhost:8000/WCFTest/CalculatorService/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address ="basicHttpEP" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="WCFTest.ICalculatorService" bindingConfiguration="basicHttpBindingConfig"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpsBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttpBindingConfig"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType = "Windows"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WCFTest.CalculatorBehavior"> <serviceAuthorization impersonateCallerForAllOperations="false" principalPermissionMode="UseWindowsGroups" /> <serviceCredentials > <windowsAuthentication allowAnonymousLogons="false" includeWindowsGroups="true" /> </serviceCredentials> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> When I run the service I can't see the service in IE. I get a "this page can not be displayed" error. If I try and create a client in VS2008 via the "add service reference" wizard I get this error: There was an error downloading 'https://localhost:8000/WCFTest/CalculatorService/'. There was an error downloading 'https://localhost:8000/WCFTest/CalculatorService/'. The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. Authentication failed because the remote party has closed the transport stream. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'https://localhost:8000/WCFTest/CalculatorService/'. An error occurred while making the HTTP request to https://localhost:8000/WCFTest/CalculatorService/. This could be due to the fact that the server certificate is not configured properly with HTTP.SYS in the HTTPS case. This could also be caused by a mismatch of the security binding between the client and the server. The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. Authentication failed because the remote party has closed the transport stream. If the service is defined in the current solution, try building the solution and adding the service reference again. I think I'm missing some fundamental basics here. Do I need to set up some certificates? Or should it all just work as it seems to do when I use NetTcpBinding? Thanks

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  • What is the cause of exception in wcf peer-to-peer service with callbacks ?

    - by miensol
    I've been playing around with WCF peer to peer, one way operation contract and callbacks. I have a following service: [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(ICodeFoundCallback))] public interface ICodeSearch { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void Search(string searchQuery); } public interface ICodeFoundCallback { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void Found(string found); } public class CodeSearchService : ServiceWithCallback<ICodeFoundCallback>, ICodeSearch { public void Search(string searchQuery) { Console.WriteLine("Searching for :" + searchQuery); Callback(t=> t.Found(searchQuery)); } } public class ServiceWithCallback<T> { protected void Callback(Action<T> call) { var callbackChanel = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<T>(); call(callbackChanel); } } with such config on server <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="CodeSearch.Service.CodeSearchService" behaviorConfiguration="CodeSearchServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.p2p://CodeSearchService"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint name="CodeSearchServiceEndpoint" address="" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BindingUnsecure" contract="CodeSearch.Service.ICodeSearch" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="CodeSearchServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="BindingUnsecure"> <security mode="None"/> <resolver mode="Pnrp"/> </binding> </netPeerTcpBinding> <customBinding> <binding name="CodeSearchServiceEndpoint"> <binaryMessageEncoding maxReadPoolSize="64" maxWritePoolSize="16" maxSessionSize="2048"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </binaryMessageEncoding> <peerTransport maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" port="0"> <security mode="None" /> </peerTransport> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <system.serviceModel> And simple client generated by Visual studio tooling. When I run two or more servers, and client invokes Search method: search method is called on each server first server calls client callback properly second server throws ArgumentException "A property with the name 'TransactionFlowProperty' already exists" when invoking client callback (Found method) I've no idea what is going on since as far as I know transaction flow is by default set to none. Could anyone help me solve this issue ?

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  • IErrorHandler doesn't seem to be handling my errors in WCF .. any ideas?

    - by John Nicholas
    Have been readign around on IErrorHandler and want to go the config route. so, I have read the following in an attempt to implement it. MSDN Keyvan Nayyeri blog about the type defintion Rory Primrose Blog I have got it to compile and from the various errors i have fixed it seems like WCF is actually loading the error handler. My problem is that the exception that i am throwing to handle in the error handler doesn;t get the exception passed to it. My service implementation simply calls a method on another class that throws ArgumentOutOfRangeException - however this exception never gets handled by the handler. My web.config <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basic"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="customHttpBehavior" type="ErrorHandlerTest.ErrorHandlerElement, ErrorHandlerTest, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="exceptionHandlerBehaviour"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> <customHttpBehavior /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="exceptionHandlerBehaviour" name="ErrorHandlerTest.Service1"> <endpoint binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basic" contract="ErrorHandlerTest.IService1" /> </service> </services> Service Contract [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] [FaultContract(typeof(GeneralInternalFault))] string GetData(int value); } The ErrorHandler class public class ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler , IServiceBehavior { public bool HandleError(Exception error) { Console.WriteLine("caught exception {0}:",error.Message ); return true; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { if (fault!=null ) { if (error is ArgumentOutOfRangeException ) { var fe = new FaultException<GeneralInternalFault>(new GeneralInternalFault("general internal fault.")); MessageFault mf = fe.CreateMessageFault(); fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, mf, fe.Action); } else { var fe = new FaultException<GeneralInternalFault>(new GeneralInternalFault(" the other general internal fault.")); MessageFault mf = fe.CreateMessageFault(); fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, mf, fe.Action); } } } public void AddBindingParameters(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase, System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection<ServiceEndpoint> endpoints, BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters) { } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) { IErrorHandler errorHandler = new ErrorHandler(); foreach (ChannelDispatcherBase channelDispatcherBase in serviceHostBase.ChannelDispatchers) { ChannelDispatcher channelDispatcher = channelDispatcherBase as ChannelDispatcher; if (channelDispatcher != null) { channelDispatcher.ErrorHandlers.Add(errorHandler); } } } public void Validate(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) { } } And the Behaviour Extension Element public class ErrorHandlerElement : BehaviorExtensionElement { protected override object CreateBehavior() { return new ErrorHandler(); } public override Type BehaviorType { get { return typeof(ErrorHandler); } } }

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  • WCF - Define multiple services in a single APP.Config file?

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have a windows forms application. I want to use two different WCF Services that are in no way connected. HOWEVER, I'm not sure how to go about defining the services in my APP.CONFIG file. From what I have read, it is possible to do what I have done below, but I cannot be sure that the syntax is correct or the tags are all present where necessary and I needed some clarification. Question. So is the below the correct way to setup two services in A SINGLE APP.CONFIG FILE? I.E: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service> <!--SERVICE ONE--> <endpoint> </endpoint> <binding> </binding> </service> <service> <!--SERVICE TWO--> <endpoint> </endpoint> <binding> </binding> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> CODE <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <!--SERVICE ONE--> <service> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="tcpServiceEndPoint" contract="ListenerService.IListenerService" name="tcpServiceEndPoint" /> <binding name="tcpServiceEndPoint" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:05:00" enabled="true" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </service> <!--SERVICE TWO--> <service> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="UploadObjects.IResponseService" bindingConfiguration="TransactedBinding" name="UploadObjects.ResponseService"/> <binding name="TransactedBinding"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> EDIT What do the BEHAVIOURS represent? How do they relate to the service definitions?

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