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  • IndexOutOfRangeException when a stream is a multiple of the buffer size

    - by dnord
    I don't have a lot of experience with streams and buffers, but I'm having to do it for a project, and I'm stuck on an exception being thrown when the stream I'm reading is a multiple of the buffer size I've chosen. Let me show you: My code starts by reading bufferSize (100, let's say) bytes from the stream: numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); Then, I loop through a while loop: while (numberOfBytesRead == bufferSize) { BufferWriter.Write(output); BufferWriter.Flush(); index += bufferSize; numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); } ... and, once we get to a non-bufferSize read, we know we've hit the end of the stream and can move on. But if the bufferSize is 100, and the stream is 200, we'll read positions 0-99, 100-199, and then the attempt to read 200-299 errors out. I'd like it if it returned 0, but it throws an error. What I'm doing to handle that is, well, a try-catch: catch (System.IndexOutOfRangeException) numberOfBytesRead = 0; ...which ends the loop, and successfully finishes the thing, but we all know I don't want to control code flow with error handling. Is there a better (more standard?) way to handle stream reading when the stream length is unknown? This seems like a small wrinkle in a fairly reasonable strategy for reading streams, but I just don't know if I've got it wrong or what. The specifics of this (which I've cleaned up a little bit for posting) are a MySqlDataReader hitting a LARGEBLOB column. It's working whenever the buffer is larger than the number of returned bytes, or when the number of returned bytes is not a multiple of bufferSize. Because we don't, in that case, throw an IndexOutOfRangeException.

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  • Help! Getting an error copying the data from one column to the same column in a similar recordset..

    - by Mike D
    I have a routine which reads one recordset, and adds/updates rows in a similar recordset. The routine starts off by copying the columns to a new recordset: Here's the code for creating the new recordset.. For X = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields.Append aRS.Fields(X - 1).Name, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Type, aRS.Fields(X - _ 1).DefinedSize, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Attributes Next X Pretty straight forward. Notice the copying of the name, Type, DefinedSize & Attributes... Further down in the code, (and there's nothing that modifies any of the columns between.. ) I'm copying the values of a row to a row in the new recordset as such: For C = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields(C - 1) = aRS.Fields(C - 1) Next C When it gets to the last column which is a numeric, it craps with the "Mutliple-Step Operation Generated an error" message. I know that MS says this is an error generated by the provider, which in this case is ADO 2.8. There is no open connect to the DB at this point in time either. I'm pulling what little hair I have left over this one... (and I don't really care at this point that the column index is 'X' in one loop & 'C' in the other... I'll change it later when I get the real problem fixed...)

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  • How to capture strings using * or ? with groups in python regular expressions

    - by user1334085
    When the regular expression has a capturing group followed by "*" or "?", there is no value captured. Instead if you use "+" for the same string, you can see the capture. I need to be able to capture the same value using "?" >>> str1='This string has 29 characters' >>> re.search(r'(\d+)*', str1).group(0) '' >>> re.search(r'(\d+)*', str1).group(1) >>> >>> re.search(r'(\d+)+', str1).group(0) '29' >>> re.search(r'(\d+)+', str1).group(1) '29' More specific question is added below for clarity: I have str1 and str2 below, and I want to use just one regexp which will match both. In case of str1, I also want to be able to capture the number of QSFP ports >>> str1='''4 48 48-port and 6 QSFP 10GigE Linecard 7548S-LC''' >>> str2='''4 48 48-port 10GigE Linecard 7548S-LC''' >>> When I do not use a metacharacter, the capture works: >>> re.search(r'^4\s+48\s+.*(?:(\d+)\s+QSFP).*-LC', str1, re.I|re.M).group(1) '6' >>> It works even when I use the "+" to indicate one occurrence: >>> re.search(r'^4\s+48\s+.*(?:(\d+)\s+QSFP)+.*-LC', str1, re.I|re.M).group(1) '6' >>> But when I use "?" to match for 0 or 1 occurrence, the capture fails even for str1: >>> re.search(r'^4\s+48\s+.*(?:(\d+)\s+QSFP)?.*-LC', str1, re.I|re.M).group(1) >>>

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  • Prove correctness of unit test

    - by Timo Willemsen
    I'm creating a graph framework for learning purposes. I'm using a TDD approach, so I'm writing a lot of unit tests. However, I'm still figuring out how to prove the correctness of my unit tests For example, I have this class (not including the implementation, and I have simplified it) public class SimpleGraph(){ //Returns true on success public boolean addEdge(Vertex v1, Vertex v2) { ... } //Returns true on sucess public boolean addVertex(Vertex v1) { ... } } I also have created this unit tests @Test public void SimpleGraph_addVertex_noSelfLoopsAllowed(){ SimpleGraph g = new SimpleGraph(); Vertex v1 = new Vertex('Vertex 1'); actual = g.addVertex(v1); boolean expected = false; boolean actual = g.addEdge(v1,v1); Assert.assertEquals(expected,actual); } Okay, awesome it works. There is only one crux here, I have proved that the functions work for this case only. However, in my graph theory courses, all I'm doing is proving theorems mathematically (induction, contradiction etc. etc.). So I was wondering is there a way I can prove my unit tests mathematically for correctness? So is there a good practice for this. So we're testing the unit for correctness, instead of testing it for one certain outcome.

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  • Improve Efficiency in Array comparison in Ruby

    - by user2985025
    Hi I am working on Ruby /cucumber and have an requirement to develop a comparison module/program to compare two files. Below are the requirements The project is a migration project . Data from one application is moved to another Need to compare the data from the existing application against the new ones. Solution : I have developed a comparison engine in Ruby for the above requirement. a) Get the data, de duplicated and sorted from both the DB's b) Put the data in a text file with "||" as delimiter c) Use the key columns (number) that provides a unique record in the db to compare the two files For ex File1 has 1,2,3,4,5,6 and file2 has 1,2,3,4,5,7 and the columns 1,2,3,4,5 are key columns. I use these key columns and compare 6 and 7 which results in a fail. Issue : The major issue we are facing here is if the mismatches are more than 70% for 100,000 records or more the comparison time is large. If the mismatches are less than 40% then comparison time is ok. Diff and Diff -LCS will not work in this case because we need key columns to arrive at accurate data comparison between two applications. Is there any other method to efficiently reduce the time if the mismatches are more thatn 70% for 100,000 records or more. Thanks

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  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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  • FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

    - by alex
    Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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  • Is it possible to install into Program Files with limited privileges?

    - by Marek
    I have an application that will be deployed as MSI package (authored in WiX). I am deciding whether to specify elevated or limited privileges as required for the installer. The application does not include anything requiring elevated privileges besides the default install location, which is under Program Files. Now the problem: If I specify elevated privileges, then the user is prompted by UAC for administrator password during the installation. This is not required and prevents non-admin users from installing. If I specify limited privileges, then the user is presented with a dialog to select install location with Program Files being default. In case they do not change the install location (95 % of end users probably won't), then the installer will fail with a message that they should contact the Administrator or run the application as administrator. If they launch the installer as Administrator then they can install into Program Files without problem - but most of the users won't probably know how to launch an installer as administrator. I can potentially set the default install location to e.g. C:\Company name\Program\, but this seems nonstandard to me and majority of users will not probably like this (they are probably used to installing into Program Files). How do you solve this problem with installing applications under limited user accounts?

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  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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  • Stopping work from one thread using another thread

    - by 113483626144458436514
    Not sure if my title is worded well, but whatever :) I have two threads: the main thread with the work that needs to be done, and a worker thread that contains a form with a progress bar and a cancel button. In normal code, it would be the other way around, but I can't do that in this case. When the user clicks the cancel button, a prompt is displayed asking if he wants to really cancel the work. The problem is that work continues on the main thread. I can get the main thread to stop work and such, but I would like for it to stop doing work when he clicks "Yes" on the prompt. Example: // Main thread work starts here t1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(progressForm_Start)); t1.Start(); // Working for (i = 0; i <= 10000; i++) { semaphore.WaitOne(); if (pBar.Running) bgworker_ProgressChanged(i); semaphore.Release(); if (pBar.IsCancelled) break; } t1.Abort(); // Main thread work ends here // Start progress bar form in another thread void progressForm_Start() { pBar.Status("Starting"); pBar.ShowDialog(); } I could theoretically include a prompt in the cancelWatch() function, but then I would have to do that everywhere I'm implementing this class.

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  • Protecting my apps security from deassembling

    - by sandis
    So I recently tested deassembling one of my android apps, and to my horror I discovered that the code was quite readable. Even worse, all my variable names where intact! I thought that those would be compressed to something unreadable at compile time. The app is triggered to expire after a certain time. However, now it was trivial for me to find my function named checkIfExpired() and find the variable "expired". Is there any good way of making it harder for a potential hacker messing with my app? Before someone states the obvious: Yes, it is security through obscurity. But obviously this is my only option since the user always will have access to all my code. This is the same for all apps. The details of my deactivation-thingy is unimportant, the point is that I dont want deassembler to understand some of the things I do. side questions: Why are the variable names not compressed? Could it be the case that my program would run faster if I stopped using really long variable names, as are my habit?

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  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • Most watched videos this week

    - by Jan Hancic
    I have a youtube like web-page where users upload&watch videos. I would like to add a "most watched videos this week" list of videos to my page. But this list should not contain just the videos that ware uploaded in the previous week, but all videos. I'm currently recording views in a column, so I have no information on when a video was watched. So now I'm searching for a solution to how to record this data. The first is the most obvious (and the correct one, as far as I know): have a separate table in which you insert a new line every time you want to record a new view (storing the ID of the video and the timestamp). I'm worried that I would quickly get huge amounts of data in this table, and queries using this table would be extremely slow (we get about 3 million views a month). The second solution isn't as flexible but is more easy on the database. I would add 7 columns to the "videos" table (one for each day of the week): views_monday, views_tuesday , views_wednesday, ... And increment the value in the correct column based on the day it is. And I would reset the current day's column to 0 at midnight. I could then easily get the most watched videos of the week by summing this 7 columns. What do you think, should I bother with the first solution or will the second one suffice for my case? If you have a better solution please share! Oh, I'm using MySQL.

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  • How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

    - by driis
    I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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  • iPhone: Low memory crash...

    - by MacTouch
    Once again I'm hunting memory leaks and other crazy mistakes in my code. :) I have a cache with frequently used files (images, data records etc. with a TTL of about one week and a size limited cache (100MB)). There are sometimes more then 15000 files in a directory. On application exit the cache writes an control file with the current cache size along with other useful information. If the applications crashes for some reason (sh.. happens sometimes) I have in such case to calculate the size of all files on application start to make sure I know the cache size. My app crashes at this point because of low memory and I have no clue why. Memory leak detector does not show any leaks at all. I do not see any too. What's wrong with the code below? Is there any other fast way to calculate the total size of all files within a directory on iPhone? Maybe without to enumerate the whole contents of the directory? The code is executed on the main thread. NSUInteger result = 0; NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSDirectoryEnumerator *dirEnum = [[[NSFileManager defaultManager] enumeratorAtPath:path] retain]; int i = 0; while ([dirEnum nextObject]) { NSDictionary *attributes = [dirEnum fileAttributes]; NSNumber* fileSize = [attributes objectForKey:NSFileSize]; result += [fileSize unsignedIntValue]; if (++i % 500 == 0) { // I tried lower values too [pool drain]; } } [dirEnum release]; dirEnum = nil; [pool release]; pool = nil; Thanks, MacTouch

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  • Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

    - by Chris
    Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

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  • Dealing With Java Default Level Access Specifiers

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I've seen some code in a project recently where some fields in a couple classes have been using the default access modifier without good reason to. It almost looks like a case of "oops, forgot to make these private". Since the classes are used almost exclusively outside of the package they are defined in, the fields are not visible from the calling code, and are treated as private. So the mistake/oversight would not be very noticeable. However, encapsulation is broken. If I wanted to add a new class to the existing package, I could then mess with internal data in objects using fields with default access. So, my questions: Are there any best practices concerning default access specifiers that I should be aware of? Anything that would help prevent this type of accident from re-occurring? Are are any annotations which might say something to the effect of "I really meant for these to be default access"? Using CheckStyle, or any other Eclipse plugins, is there any way to flag instances of default fields, or disallow any not accompanied by, say, a "//default access" comment trailing them?

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  • XML jquery shortcuts

    - by Llamabomber
    I am writing a bit of code that appends my site nav with and extra ul that gives a description about where that link takes you. I need to use our CMS's built in Nav structure so appending via jQuery was the best solution, and XML makes the data easier to manage. My question is this: is there a more efficient way to write out the js? What I have so far is this: $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/js/sitenav.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function parseXml(xml) { // WORK $(xml).find("CaseStudies").each(function() { $("li#case_studies").append('<ul><li>' + $(this).find("NavImage").text() + $(this).find("NavHeader").text() + $(this).find("NavDescription").text() + $(this).find("NavLink").text() + "</li></ul>"); }); }; }); }); and the xml structure resembles this: <SiteNav> <Work> <CaseStudies> <NavImage></NavImage> <NavHeader></NavHeader> <NavDescription></NavDescription> <NavLink></NavLink> </CaseStudies> </Work> </SiteNav> I'm happy with my xml structure, but is there a more compact/efficient method of writing out the code for the jqeury? Every li in the nav has a unique id as well in case that helps...

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  • Jquery hide is not working in my Dialog box close span

    - by kumar
    $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); this is the hide for my Jquery dialog close 'X' span.. this is not working in my case. I am trying to hide that Close becuase its not showing me in my dialog when I resize my dialog then its showing me.. some reason my CSS not showing me that Close button correctly on my POPUP. Can any body help me out. here is my code and CSS. $("#window").dialog({ resizable: true, height: 180, title: titles, width: 500, modal: true, open: function () { $('.ui-widget-overlay').show(); $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); }, buttons: { "OK": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); if (redirectURL) { window.location = redirectURL; } } } }); here is my CSS. <style> .ui-widget-overlay { background: black; opacity: 0.5; filter: alpha(opacity = 50); position: absolute; top: 0; left: 10; } </style> Can any body tell me how to show My Close 'X' correctly on my dialog or I need to hide that Close 'X' thanks

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  • Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • How operator oveloading works

    - by Rasmi Ranjan Nayak
    I have below code class rectangle { ..... .....//Some code int operator+(rectangle r1) { return(r1.length+length); } }; In main fun. int main() { rectangle r1(10,20); rectangle r2(40,60); rectangle r3(30,60); int len = r1+r3; } Here if we will see in operator+(), we are doing r1.length + length. How the compiler comes to know that the 2nd length in return statement belong to object r3 not to r1 or r2? I think answer may be in main() we have writeen int len = r1+r3; If that is the case then why do we need to write in operator+(....) { r1.lenth + lenth; //Why not length + length? } Why not length + length? Bcause compiler already knows from main() that the first length belong to object r1 and 2nd to object r3.

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  • build SQL query string using user input

    - by user175084
    i have to make a string by using the values which the user selects on the webpage suppose i need to display files for multiple machines with differnt search criteria.. i currently use this code: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT FileID FROM Files WHERE MachineID=@machineID and date= @date", connection); SqlDataAdapter sqlDa = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@machineID", machineID); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@date", date); sqlDa.Fill(dt); now this is fixed query where the user just has one machine and just selects one date... i want to make a query in which the user has multiple search options like type or size if he wants depending on what he selects also if he can select multiple machines.. SELECT FileID FROM Files WHERE (MachineID=@machineID1 or MachineID = @machineID2...) and (date= @date and size=@size and type=@type... ) all of this happens in runtime... other wise i have to create a for loop to put multiple machines one by one... and have multiple queries depending on the case the user selected... this is quiet interesting and i could use some help... thanks

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  • What's the most efficient way to load data from a file to a collection on-demand?

    - by Dan
    I'm working on a java project that will allows users to parse multiple files with potentially thousands of lines. The information parsed will be stored in different objects, which then will be added to a collection. Since the GUI won't require to load ALL these objects at once and keep them in memory, I'm looking for an efficient way to load/unload data from files, so that data is only loaded into the collection when a user requests it. I'm just evaluation options right now. I've also thought of the case where, after loading a subset of the data into the collection, and presenting it on the GUI, the best way to reload the previously observed data. Re-run the parser/Populate collection/Populate GUI? or probably find a way to keep the collection into memory, or serialize/deserialize the collection itself? I know that loading/unloading subsets of data can get tricky if some sort of data filtering is performed. Let's say that I filter on ID, so my new subset will contain data from two previous analyzed subsets. This would be no problem is I keep a master copy of the whole data in memory. I've read that google-collections are good and efficient when handling big amounts of data, and offer methods that simplify lots of things so this might offer an alternative to allow me to keep the collection in memory. This is just general talking. The question on what collection to use is a separate and complex thing. Do you know what's the general recommendation on this type of task? I'd like to hear what you've done with similar scenarios. I can provide more specifics if needed.

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  • Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

    - by zpasternack
    I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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