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  • How to do wpf datavalidation with Ado.net

    - by biju
    How can i use data validation mechanisms with ado.net datatable or datasets. I have an input form which i am binding to a datatable.Now i want to do input validation how can i do that.I have tried using validationRules but i cant bind parameters to it.I tried using idataerrorinfo but cant get a clue.can someone provide some input..?

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  • validating data in .net

    - by Chen Kinnrot
    i'm looking for recommended validation frameworks, or patterns for an n-tier client application, i wanna write the validation once and ind it to wpf gui, and also for server side and client side related bussiness logic

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  • asp.net mvc 2 validating text inputs on modal windows

    - by nick
    hi guys, i am tasked with the job of creating client-side validation on a form in an asp.net MVC 2 application, which has a modal window (the modal exists as part of the wrapping form, it is not a form unto itself). how would i go about providing validation for these text field inputs while the modal is visible, but do not validate while the modal is not displayed (as to not cause problems in the rest of the form if the modal window is never required) What is the best approach to achieve this functionality? thanks, Nick

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 - How to have a non-required field?

    - by user314963
    Hi there All my fields seem to be required by default as I am getting a server-validation message "enter title" in my validation summary box. How do I make this field not required? I havent declared anything explicitly in the ViewModel & the front-side code is simply Html.DropDownListFor Any help would be really appreciated~!

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  • Validating international Zipcode Format

    - by Gobi
    Hello again, is anyone find validation for zipcode for all countries around the world. i found mostly US,Canada and UK validation scripts in Javascript. any gimme any suggestion how to validate the international zipcodes either in php or js.

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  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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  • Email SMTP validator

    - by Hrvoje
    I need to send hundreds of newsletters, but would like to check first if email exists on server. It's called smtp validation, at least i think so, based on my research on net. There's several libraries that can do that, and also a page with open-source code in asp (http://www.coveryourasp.com/ValidateEmail.asp#Result3), but I have hard time reading classic asp, and it seams that it uses some third-party library... Does someone have code for smtp validation in c#, and/or general explanation of how it works?

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  • Validating Internationalized URLs

    - by VirtuosiMedia
    After reading about the new Arabic URLs, and with more languages to come, how should URL validation be done for internationalized applications? Does the validation change at all and will existing solutions break? Is regex still a good approach? If so, what would that regex look like? If not, what's a good strategy? What are some good resources to read more on the topic?

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  • How can I retrieve the instance of an attribute's associated object?

    - by Brandon Linton
    I'm writing a PropertiesMustMatch validation attribute that can take a string property name as a parameter. I'd like it to find the corresponding property by name on that object and do a basic equality comparison. What's the best way to access this through reflection? Also, I checked out the Validation application block in the Enterprise Library and decided its PropertyComparisonValidator was way too intense for what we need.

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  • Why doesn't web browsers have built in validators?

    - by August Karlstrom
    As far as I know there is no web browser with built in validators for HTML, CSS and Javascript. Developing web pages without validation is like using a compiler that doesn't do syntax analysis. Even Firefox with its excellent plugins aimed at developers like Firebug lacks plugins for CSS and Javascript validation. Wouldn't it be useful to have these plugins? Am I missing something?

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  • Why don't web browsers have built in validators?

    - by August Karlstrom
    As far as I know there is no web browser with built in validators for HTML, CSS and JavaScript. Developing web pages without validation is like using a compiler that doesn't do syntax analysis. Even Firefox with its excellent plugins aimed at developers like Firebug lacks plugins for CSS and JavaScript validation. Wouldn't it be useful to have these plugins? Am I missing something?

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  • RequestValidation Changes in ASP.NET 4.0

    - by Rick Strahl
    There’s been a change in the way the ValidateRequest attribute on WebForms works in ASP.NET 4.0. I noticed this today while updating a post on my WebLog all of which contain raw HTML and so all pretty much trigger request validation. I recently upgraded this app from ASP.NET 2.0 to 4.0 and it’s now failing to update posts. At first this was difficult to track down because of custom error handling in my app – the custom error handler traps the exception and logs it with only basic error information so the full detail of the error was initially hidden. After some more experimentation in development mode the error that occurs is the typical ASP.NET validate request error (‘A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detetected…’) which looks like this in ASP.NET 4.0: At first when I got this I was real perplexed as I didn’t read the entire error message and because my page does have: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewEntry.aspx.cs" Inherits="Westwind.WebLog.NewEntry" MasterPageFile="~/App_Templates/Standard/AdminMaster.master" ValidateRequest="false" EnableEventValidation="false" EnableViewState="false" %> WTF? ValidateRequest would seem like it should be enough, but alas in ASP.NET 4.0 apparently that setting alone is no longer enough. Reading the fine print in the error explains that you need to explicitly set the requestValidationMode for the application back to V2.0 in web.config: <httpRuntime executionTimeout="300" requestValidationMode="2.0" /> Kudos for the ASP.NET team for putting up a nice error message that tells me how to fix this problem, but excuse me why the heck would you change this behavior to require an explicit override to an optional and by default disabled page level switch? You’ve just made a relatively simple fix to a solution a nasty morass of hard to discover configuration settings??? The original way this worked was perfectly discoverable via attributes in the page. Now you can set this setting in the page and get completely unexpected behavior and you are required to set what effectively amounts to a backwards compatibility flag in the configuration file. It turns out the real reason for the .config flag is that the request validation behavior has moved from WebForms pipeline down into the entire ASP.NET/IIS request pipeline and is now applied against all requests. Here’s what the breaking changes page from Microsoft says about it: The request validation feature in ASP.NET provides a certain level of default protection against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. In previous versions of ASP.NET, request validation was enabled by default. However, it applied only to ASP.NET pages (.aspx files and their class files) and only when those pages were executing. In ASP.NET 4, by default, request validation is enabled for all requests, because it is enabled before the BeginRequest phase of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation applies to requests for all ASP.NET resources, not just .aspx page requests. This includes requests such as Web service calls and custom HTTP handlers. Request validation is also active when custom HTTP modules are reading the contents of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation errors might now occur for requests that previously did not trigger errors. To revert to the behavior of the ASP.NET 2.0 request validation feature, add the following setting in the Web.config file: <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> However, we recommend that you analyze any request validation errors to determine whether existing handlers, modules, or other custom code accesses potentially unsafe HTTP inputs that could be XSS attack vectors. Ok, so ValidateRequest of the form still works as it always has but it’s actually the ASP.NET Event Pipeline, not WebForms that’s throwing the above exception as request validation is applied to every request that hits the pipeline. Creating the runtime override removes the HttpRuntime checking and restores the WebForms only behavior. That fixes my immediate problem but still leaves me wondering especially given the vague wording of the above explanation. One thing that’s missing in the description is above is one important detail: The request validation is applied only to application/x-www-form-urlencoded POST content not to all inbound POST data. When I first read this this freaked me out because it sounds like literally ANY request hitting the pipeline is affected. To make sure this is not really so I created a quick handler: public class Handler1 : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("Hello World <hr>" + context.Request.Form.ToString()); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } and called it with Fiddler by posting some XML to the handler using a default form-urlencoded POST content type: and sure enough – hitting the handler also causes the request validation error and 500 server response. Changing the content type to text/xml effectively fixes the problem however, bypassing the request validation filter so Web Services/AJAX handlers and custom modules/handlers that implement custom protocols aren’t affected as long as they work with special input content types. It also looks that multipart encoding does not trigger event validation of the runtime either so this request also works fine: POST http://rasnote/weblog/handler1.ashx HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=------7cf2a327f01ae User-Agent: West Wind Internet Protocols 5.53 Host: rasnote Content-Length: 40 Pragma: no-cache <xml>asdasd</xml>--------7cf2a327f01ae *That* probably should trigger event validation – since it is a potential HTML form submission, but it doesn’t. New Runtime Feature, Global Scope Only? Ok, so request validation is now a runtime feature but sadly it’s a feature that’s scoped to the ASP.NET Runtime – effective scope to the entire running application/app domain. You can still manually force validation using Request.ValidateInput() which gives you the option to do this in code, but that realistically will only work with the requestValidationMode set to V2.0 as well since the 4.0 mode auto-fires before code ever gets a chance to intercept the call. Given all that, the new setting in ASP.NET 4.0 seems to limit options and makes things more difficult and less flexible. Of course Microsoft gets to say ASP.NET is more secure by default because of it but what good is that if you have to turn off this flag the very first time you need to allow one single request that bypasses request validation??? This is really shortsighted design… <sigh>© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in ASP.NET  

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  • Is there a way to update a ViewModel in MVC2?

    - by Juvaly
    This code works: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection fc) { Movie movie = ( from m in _ctx.Movie.Include("MovieActors") where m.MovieID == id select m ).First(); MovieActorViewModel movieActor = new MovieActorViewModel(movie); if (TryUpdateModel(movieActor)) { _ctx.ApplyPropertyChanges(movieActor.Movie.EntityKey.EntitySetName, movieActor.Movie); _ctx.SaveChanges(); } return View(movieActor); } However, I am not sure how to test this, and in general would much rather have the method take a typed model like: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(MovieActorViewModel movieActor) Is this possible? What changes to my MovieActorViewModel class do I need to make in order to enable this? That class looks like this: public class MovieActorViewModel { public Movie Movie { get; set; } public Actor Actor { get; set; } public PublisherDealViewModel(Movie movie) { this.Movie = movie; this.Actor = ( from a in this.Movie.Actors where a.ActorID == 1 select a ).First(); } } The view is typed (inherits ViewPage) simple: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> Movie Title: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model=>model.Movie.Title) %><br/> Actor Name: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model=>model.Actor.Name) %> <% } %>

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  • Asp.Net MVC does automatic model validation for DateTime but no others

    - by MattSlay
    I'm using MVC 2 with some Models from a LinqToSql project that I built. I see that when I post back to a Controller Action after editing a form that has a DateTime field from the Model, the MVC Html.ValidationMessageFor() helper will nicely display an error beside the Date text box. This seems to happen automatically when the you test ModelState.IsValid() in the Controller Action, as if the MVC model binding automatically knows that the DateTime field cannot be empty. My question is... I have some other string fields in these LinqToSql generated classes that are Not-Nullable (marked as Not Nullable in Sql Server which passes thourgh to the LinqToSql generated classes), so why doesn't Mr. MVC pick up on those as well and display a "Required" message in the ValidationMessageFor() placeholders I have added for those fields? Sure, I have successfully added the MetadataType(typeof) buddy classes to cover these Non-nullable string fields, but it sure does seem redundant to add all this metadata in buddy classes when the LinqToSql generated classes already contain enough info that MVC could sniff out. It MVC validation works with DateTime automatically, why not these Not-nullable fields too?

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  • PS/2 to USB adapter doesn't work with Model M keyboard

    - by mickburkejnr
    I bought a server about 3 months ago from a friend, and I have only had time to tinker with it in the last week. I noticed that this server doesn't have any PS/2 ports, which meant configuring it was near impossible. I don't have any USB keyboards in the house, I only have an IBM Model M keyboard (built 1994) and another IBM keyboard that was built circa 2001. Both of them have PS/2 connections. I bought an adapter off eBay, and when I used it with the Model M keyboard the three lights on the keyboard flashed for a split second, but then the keyboard is then unresponsive. I can bash away at the keys for ages and nothing will happen. The same applies to the later built IBM keyboard. What could I do to make the adapter work? I am getting the loan of a USB keyboard in two weeks time, but I'd like a more permanent solution without having to rely on getting the loan of a keyboard every time I have to perform maintenance on the server. And as I already have two keyboards which work fine and I like using, I don't really want to have to buy another keyboard just for use on the server.

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  • access exception when invoking method of an anonymous class using java reflection

    - by Asaf David
    Hello I'm trying to use an event dispatcher to allow a model to notify subscribed listeners when it changes. the event dispatcher receives a handler class and a method name to call during dispatch. the presenter subscribes to the model changes and provide a Handler implementation to be called on changes. Here's the code (I'm sorry it's a bit long). EventDispacther: package utils; public class EventDispatcher<T> { List<T> listeners; private String methodName; public EventDispatcher(String methodName) { listeners = new ArrayList<T>(); this.methodName = methodName; } public void add(T listener) { listeners.add(listener); } public void dispatch() { for (T listener : listeners) { try { Method method = listener.getClass().getMethod(methodName); method.invoke(listener); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } } } Model: package model; public class Model { private EventDispatcher<ModelChangedHandler> dispatcher; public Model() { dispatcher = new EventDispatcher<ModelChangedHandler>("modelChanged"); } public void whenModelChange(ModelChangedHandler handler) { dispatcher.add(handler); } public void change() { dispatcher.dispatch(); } } ModelChangedHandler: package model; public interface ModelChangedHandler { void modelChanged(); } Presenter: package presenter; public class Presenter { private final Model model; public Presenter(Model model) { this.model = model; this.model.whenModelChange(new ModelChangedHandler() { @Override public void modelChanged() { System.out.println("model changed"); } }); } } Main: package main; public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { Model model = new Model(); Presenter presenter = new Presenter(model); model.change(); } } Now, I except to get the "model changed" message. However, I'm getting an java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class utils.EventDispatcher can not access a member of class presenter.Presenter$1 with modifiers "public". I understand that the class to blame is the anonymous class i created inside the presenter, however I don't know how to make it any more 'public' than it currently is. If i replace it with a named nested class it seem to work. It also works if the Presenter and the EventDispatcher are in the same package, but I can't allow that (several presenters in different packages should use the EventDispatcher) any ideas?

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  • Cakephp Insert Ignore Feature?

    - by SeanDowney
    Is there a way to do an "insert ignore" in cake without using a model-query function? $this->Model->save(array( 'id' => NULL, 'guid' => $guid, 'name' => $name, )); Generates error: Warning (512): SQL Error: 1062: Duplicate entry 'GUID.....' for key 'unique_guid' [CORE/cake/libs/model/datasources/dbo_source.php, line 524] It would be great to be able to set some flag or option that says "don't care"

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  • Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

    - by Casey Hope
    tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

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  • Rails AR validates_uniqueness_of against polymorphic relationship

    - by aaronrussell
    Is it posible to validate the uniqueness of a child model's attribute scoped against a polymorphic relationship? For example I have a model called field that belongs to fieldable: class Field < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :fieldable, :polymorphic => :true validates_uniqueness_of :name, :scope => :fieldable_id end I have several other models (Pages, Items) which have many Fields. So what I want is to validate the uniqueness of the field name against the parent model, but the problem is that occasionally a Page and an Item share the same ID number, causing the validations to fail when they shouldn't. Am I just doing this wrong or is there a better way to do this?

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  • How to properly use CoreData validation & error framework ?

    - by Xav
    I've created a model in Xcode, and for various attributes I have minimum & maximum values defined and that are enforced by coreData at runtime. I'm using NSManagedObject validateValue:forKey:error to check for user input values. I was a bit disappointed to see that the localized error message is not specific, and I get a "The operation couldn't be completed. (Cocoa error 1620)" for too small values and a "The operation couldn't be completed. (Cocoa error 1610)" for too large values. It's written in the coreData documentation that "you can localize most aspects of a managed object model, including entity and property names and error messages". Unfortunately it's not very detailed on how you implement it for error messages. So How do you customize error message ? How do you localize them ? Is it possible to customize it in a way where it will mentioned the reference value ex: "Value should be lower than %@" or "Value should be higher than %@" ?

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  • ASP.NET MVC & ADO.NET Entity Framework clientside validation

    - by JK
    Using aspnet mvc2 with the model auto-generated by entity framework: Is it possible to tell entity framework to auto-annotate all fields? eg: If database field says not null then add [Required] If DB field is a nvarchar(x) then add [StringLength(x)] And so on? What if the field name contains the string "email" eg CustomerEmail - can I get EF to auto-annotate that with an appropriate annotation ([Regex()] maybe) As I understand it, if the model fields are annotated, and I use both Html.ValidationMessageFor() and use if (ModelState.IsValid) in my controller, then that is all I need to do to have basic clientside input validation working? Thanks

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  • Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

    - by Vman
    MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MVC CRUD PartialView Popup Issue

    - by Smiley Face
    I am creating an MVC website which makes use of Partial Views on Popups to handle all my CRUD transactions. Please note that my application can already handle these CRUD operations perfectly (LINQ-To-Entity). However, I have a problem with my popup forms. Below is the code from my _Add.cshtml: @model MyStore.Models.MyModels.ProductsModel @{ Layout = null; } @using (Ajax.BeginForm("_Add", "Products", new AjaxOptions { InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, HttpMethod = "POST", OnSuccess = "addSuccess" }, new { @id = "addForm" })) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) <div id="add-message" class="error invisible"></div> <fieldset> <legend>Products</legend> @Html.HiddenFor(m => Model.ProductCode) <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.ProductName) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.ProductName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ProductName) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Price) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Price) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Price) </div> </fieldset> } Below is the code from my Controller: [HttpGet] public ActionResult _Add(string productCode) { ProductsModel model = newProductsModel(); model.ProductCode = ProductCode ; return PartialView(model); } [HttpPost] public JsonResult _Add(ProductsModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { ProductsManager prod = new ProductsManager(); Products pa = new Products(); pa.ProductCode = model.ProductCode; pa.ProductName = model.ProductName; pa.Price = model.Price; prod.AddProduct(pa); return Json(HelperClass.SuccessResponse(pa), JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } else { return Json(HelperClass.ErrorResponse("Please review your form"), JsonRequestBehavior.DenyGet); } } Please note that the _Add.cshtml is a partial view which is being rendered through a Popup.js which I found on the internet. It is rendered through this code: @Html.ActionLink("[Add Product]", "_Add", new { ProductCode = @ViewData["ProductCode"] }, new { @class = "editLink" }) This works okay. I mean it adds product to my database. But my problem is upon clicking the Proceed button, I get this pop-up download dialog from the page: Can somebody please help me with this? I have a hunch it's because of the HttpMethod i'm using (POST, PUT, GET, DELETE) but i'm not really sure which one is right to use or if it really is the problem in the first place. Any help would be greatly appreciated! PS. Sorry for the long post.

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