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  • JSF 2.0 AJAX: jsf.ajax.request to call method not only rerender an area of page

    - by gerry
    Hi, I'm looking for a soultion of the following problem: _The is a list of links with different types of cars. _The user can click on each car in the list and a ajax request should be sent. _The response of the ajax request should be dependent on the id (of each car) and displayed in an panelGroup. So what I need is a possibility to call a method on the backing-bean. Additionally, this method should be called with a car id as its parameter. My code so far looks like: ... <ul> <ui:repeat value="#{carTree.getCars)}" var="car"> <h:outputScript name="jsf.js" library="javax.faces" target="head" /> <li onclick="showDetails(#{car.id});">#{car.name}</li> </ui:repeat> </ul> ... <h:panelGroup id="carDetails" layout="block" style="float:left;"> // need the details of each 'selected /clicked' car here </h:panelGroup> ... And the method in the backing bean should look like: public class CarTree { ... public String getCarDetails(int carid){ return "The car details for the car id "+carid+" are......"; } ... } I've no idea how to call a method by using the new JSF 2.0 AJAX functionality. Please, help me...

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  • Ado.net dataservices BeginExecuteBatch call works on development fails on production server with Obj

    - by Mike Morley
    We have an ado.net dataservices 1.0 call that is being passed to a [WebGet] service operation as a batch through BeginExecuteBatch. Everything works perfectly on our development server - we have the project configured to use IIS instead of the cassini web server to make it as close to our production server as we can. When we publish to the production server, all the service operations work perfectly except the batch call, which fails with Object does not match target type. . I have not been able to find any cause for this. I can even run a single non-batch style GET operation against the [WebGet] service by copying the URL used in the batch and pasting it in a browser. I have not been able to find any information to help me solve this - any guidance would be most appreciated. Thanks, Mike M. Error message From Fiddler: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: application/xml DataServiceVersion: 1.0; An error occurred while processing this request. Object does not match target type. System.Reflection.TargetException at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.CheckConsistency(Object target) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateFirstSegment(IDataService service, String identifier, Boolean checkRights, String queryPortion, Boolean& crossReferencingUrl) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateSegments(String[] segments, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.ProcessRequestUri(Uri absoluteRequestUri, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.DataService`1.BatchDataService.HandleBatchContent(Stream responseStream)

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  • Call functions in AutoIt DLL using Python ctypes

    - by Josh
    I want to call functions from an AutoIt dll, that I found at C:\Program Files (x86)\AutoIt3\AutoItX\AutoItX3.dll using Python. I know I could use win32com.client.Dispatch("AutoItX3.Control") but I can't install the application or register anything in the system. So far, this is where I am: from ctypes import * path = r"C:\Program Files (x86)\AutoIt3\AutoItX\AutoItX3.dll" autoit = windll.LoadLibrary(path) Here are the methods that works: autoit.AU3_WinMinimizeAll() # windows were successfully minimized. autoit.AU3_Sleep(1000) # sleeps 1 sec. Here is my problem, python is crashing when I call other methods like this one. I get python.exe has stopped working from windows... autoit.AU3_WinGetHandle('Untitled - Notepad', '') And some other methods are not crashing python but are just not working. This one doesn't close the window and return 0: autoit.AU3_WinClose('Untitled - Notepad', '') And this other one return 1 but the window is still minimized: autoit.AU3_WinActivate('Untitled - Notepad', '') I've tested the examples with with Dispatch("AutoItX3.Control") and everything is working like expected. It seems like methods that should return something other than a string are crashing python. But still, others like WinClose are not even working... Thank you in advance for your help! EDIT: These methods are now working when using unicode strings: autoit.AU3_WinClose(u'Untitled - Notepad', u'') autoit.AU3_WinActivate(u'Untitled - Notepad', u'') And I found the prototype for AU3_WinGetHandle: AU3_API void WINAPI AU3_WinGetHandle(const char szTitle, /[in,defaultvalue("")]*/const char *szText, char *szRetText, int nBufSize); Now I see that I should get the handle from szRetText but I am not sure how... I tried the following without success: from ctypes.wintypes import LPCWSTR, INT, POINTER AU3_WinGetHandle.argtypes = (LPCWSTR, LPCWSTR, POINTER(LPCWSTR), INT) s = c_wchar_p() print AU3_WinGetHandle(u'Untitled - Notepad', u'', byref(s), 100) # prints 1 print s # prints c_wchar_p(u'') Any idea how to retrive the handle from szRetText?

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  • Error with a getJSON call in jquery with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Jedi Master Spooky
    I have the following code in html, I cannot get the Function call back of JSON get call. Down is the code in controller. Please Help <script type="text/javascript"> $().ready(function() { $("#CuitDespachante").typeWatch({ highlight: true, wait: 500, captureLength: -1, callback: finished }); }); function finished(txt) { $.getJSON('/Documentacion/GetDatosDespachantes', { cuitDespachante: txt }, function (data) { alert('You typed: '); } ); }; </script> public ActionResult GetDatosDespachantes(string cuitDespachante) { cuitDespachante = cuitDespachante.Replace("-", "").Replace("_", ""); DepositarioFielWS.DepositarioFielWebService ws = new DepositarioFielWS.DepositarioFielWebService(); var res = ws.GetDespachante(cuitDespachante); if (res.Licencia.CodigoLicencia == DepositarioFielWS.CodigoLicencia.Ok) { DepositarioFielWS.Despachante desp = new DepositarioFielWS.Despachante(); desp.Cuit = res.Despachante.Cuit; desp.Nombre = res.Despachante.Nombre; var respuesta =new { cuit = desp.Cuit, nombre = desp.Nombre }; return Json(respuesta); } else { var respuesta = new { cuit = cuitDespachante, nombre = "Imposible Realizar Consulta" }; return Json(respuesta); } }

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  • Mysql SELECT FOR UPDATE - strange issue

    - by Michal Fronczyk
    Hi, I have a strange issue (at least for me :)) with the MySQL's locking facility. I have a table: Create Table: CREATE TABLE test ( id int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=13 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 With this data: +----+ | id | +----+ | 3 | | 4 | | 5 | | 6 | | 7 | | 8 | | 10 | | 11 | | 12 | +----+ Now I have 2 clients with these commands executed at the beginning: set autocommit=0; set session transaction isolation level serializable; begin; Now the most interesting part. The first client executes this query: (makes an intent to insert a row with id equal to 9) SELECT * from test where id = 9 FOR UPDATE; Empty set (0.00 sec) Then the second client does the same: SELECT * from test where id = 9 FOR UPDATE; Empty set (0.00 sec) My question is: Why the second client does not block ? An exclusive gap lock should have been set by the first query because FOR UPDATE have been used and the second client should block. If I am wrong, could somebody tell me how to do it correctly ? The MySql version I use is: 5.1.37-1ubuntu5.1 Thanks, Michal

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  • Using C# regex to select text based on custom tags

    - by spaceman
    I have a string in c# containing some data i need to extract based on certain conditions. The string contains many tenders in the following form : <TENDER> some words, don't know how many, may contain numbers and things like slashes (/) or whatever <DESCRIPTION> some more words and possibly other things like numbers or whatever describing the tender here </DESCRIPTION> some more words and possibly numbers and weird things </TENDER> This string doesn't contain any nested <TENDER> tags, its flat. The <DESCRIPTION> tags occur only once within the <TENDER> tags. I'm using : <TENDER>(.+?)</TENDER> as the regex to split up the tenders and it works fine. If this is wrong or stupid and you know a better way to write this please let me know as I have discovered I suck at regex. My problem that I now need to only select a tender if its description contains any word in a list of keywords (lets say for now i want to select a tender only if it contains either "concrete" or"brick" in the description). So far the regex I have come up with looks like this, but I don't know what to put in the middle. Also I have a vague suspicion that this might return me some false positives. <TENDER>(.+?)<DESCRIPTION>have no idea what to do here</DESCRIPTION>(.+?)</TENDER> If any of you regex guru's could point me in the right direction I would be most appreciative.

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  • SubSonic 3 ignoring columns in Select()

    - by jessegavin
    I have a table like so.. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Locations_Hours]( [LocationID] [int] NOT NULL, [sun_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [sun_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [mon_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [mon_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [tue_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [tue_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [wed_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [wed_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [thu_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [thu_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [fri_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [fri_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [sat_open] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [sat_close] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [StoreNumber] [int] NULL, [LocationHourID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Locations_Hours] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [LocationHourID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] And SubSonic 3 is generating a class with the following properties int LocationID string monopen string monclose string tueopen string tueclose string wedopen string wedclose string thuopen string thuclose string friopen string friclose string satopen string satclose string sunopen string sunclose int? StoreNumber int LocationHourID When I try to perform a query against this class like so.. var result = DB.LocationHours.Where(o => o.LocationID == _locationId); This is the resulting SQL query that SubSonic generates. SELECT [t0].[LocationHourID], [t0].[LocationID], [t0].[StoreNumber] FROM [dbo].[Locations_Hours] AS t0 WHERE ([t0].[LocationID] = 4019) I cannot figure out why SubSonic is omitting the nvarchar fields when it generates the SELECT statement. Anyone got any ideas?

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  • Get variables in c# from ajax call

    - by fzshah76
    I've got an Ajax call for log in here is the code: //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { //get the form to submit and return a message //how to call the function var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd2 = $('#pwd2').val(); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx", data: "{ 'name':'" + $('#name').val() + "', 'pwd':'" + $('#pwd2').val() + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); the problem is I can't seem to catch name and pwd variables in Login page's preinit event or page load event here is the code in c#: protected void Page_PreInit(object sender, EventArgs e) { //taking javascript argument in preinit event //from here I'll have to build the page for specific lookbook var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; SignIn(name); } I can't seem to get username name and password in c# side, help is appreciated. Here is my final javascript code c# code remains the same: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd = $('#pwd').val(); $.ajax({ url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx?name="+ name +"&pwd="+pwd, context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks Zachary

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  • Settings variable values in a Moq Callback() call

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I think I may be a bit confused on the syntax of the Moq Callback methods. When I try to do something like this: IFilter filter = new Filter(); List<IFoo> objects = new List<IFoo> { new Foo(), new Foo() }; IQueryable myFilteredFoos = null; mockObject.Setup(m => m.GetByFilter(It.IsAny<IFilter>())).Callback( (IFilter filter) => myFilteredFoos = filter.FilterCollection(objects)).Returns(myFilteredFoos.Cast<IFooBar>()); This throws a exception because myFilteredFoos is null during the Cast<IFooBar>() call. Is this not working as I expect? I would think FilterCollection would be called and then myFilteredFoos would be non-null and allow for the cast. FilterCollection is not capable of returning a null which draws me to the conclusion it is not being called. Also, when I declare myFilteredFoos like this: Queryable myFilteredFoos; The Return call complains that myFilteredFoos may be used before it is initialized.

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  • Clear form field after select for jQuery UI Autocomplete

    - by jonfhancock
    I'm developing a form, and using jQuery UI Autocomplete. When the user selects an option, I want the selection to pop into a span appended to the parent <p> tag. Then I want the field to clear rather than be populated with the selection. I have the span appearing just fine, but I can't get the field to clear. How do you cancel jQuery UI Autocomplete's default select action? Here is my code: var availableTags = ["cheese", "milk", "dairy", "meat", "vegetables", "fruit", "grains"]; $("[id^=item-tag-]").autocomplete({ source: availableTags, select: function(){ var newTag = $(this).val(); $(this).val(""); $(this).parent().append("<span>" + newTag + "<a href=\"#\">[x]</a> </span>"); } }); Simply doing $(this).val(""); doesn't work. What is maddening is that almost the exact function works fine if I ignore autocomplete, and just take action when the user types a comma as such: $('[id^=item-tag-]').keyup(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 188) { var newTag = $(this).val().slice(0,-1); $(this).val(''); $(this).parent().append("<span>" + newTag + "<a href=\"#\">[x]</a> </span>"); } }); The real end result is to get autocomplete to work with multiple selections. If anybody has any suggestions for that, they would be welcome.

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  • Select the Initial Text in a Silverlight TextBox

    - by Dan Auclair
    I am trying to figure out the best way to select all the text in a TextBox the first time the control is loaded. I am using the MVVM pattern, so I am using two-way binding for the Text property of the TextBox to a string on my ViewModel. I am using this TextBox to "rename" something that already has a name, so I would like to select the old name when the control loads so it can easily be deleted and renamed. The initial text (old name) is populated by setting it in my ViewModel, and it is then reflected in the TextBox after the data binding completes. What I would really like to do is something like this: <TextBox x:Name="NameTextBox" Text="{Binding NameViewModelProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedText="{Binding NameViewModelProperty, Mode=OneTime}" /> Basically just use the entire text as the SelectedText with OneTime binding. However, that does not work since the SelectedText is not a DependencyProperty. I am not completely against adding the selection code in the code-behind of my view, but my problem in that case is determining when the initial text binding has completed. The TextBox always starts empty, so it can not be done in the constructor. The TextChanged event only seems to fire when a user enters new text, not when the text is changed from the initial binding of the ViewModel. Any ideas are greatly appreciated!

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  • JQuery how to resubmit form after ajax call success

    - by Steven Rosato
    I am using JQuery to perform form submission through an ajax request. I use form.submit(function() { if( success ) { return true; } validate(); //proceeds to an ajax call return false; } On request success I want to either proceed with form submission or user callback. Therefore, if the user callback is undefined, I will submit the form on form validation success (from my validate function). config = { successCallback: function() { success = true; form.submit(); //does not work } }; validate = function() { $.ajax( ... success: function(data) { //code logic config.successCallback(); } ); }; The ajax success callback will call config.successCallback() and if it was never overridden by the user, it would proceed to normal form submission. I tried using an instance variable (success) to make sure 'return true' would proceed to default form submission. Unfortunately this is not working. It seems that the 'return false' statement that prevents default form submission will neglect any further submit calls even if an instance variable was set. It only works after clicking the submit button another time (that makes it twice for it to work). Is there any workaround for this. I want to both use a user callback when provided but proceed with default form submission when not, and since I am using an ajax function to validate the form, the ajax success callback is complicating things.

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  • XML RPC c# Call returns array of strings and int

    - by chillconsulting
    I'm doing an XML RPC call in ASP.net with c# and the call returns an Array called userinfo with strings and integers in it and I can't seem to figure out how to parse the data and put it into string and int objects... The only thing that compiles is if I make it an Object in the struct. The int returns fines and is referenced easily. Any help would be appreciated - this is what I got. public Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e){ IValidateSSO proxy = XmlRpcProxyGen.Create<IValidateSSO>(); UserInfoSSOValue ret2 = proxy.UserInfoSSO(ssoAuth, ssoValue); int i = ret2.isonid; } public struct UserInfoSSOValue { public Object userinfo; public int isonid; } [XmlRpcUrl("host")] public interface IValidateSSO : IXmlRpcProxy { [XmlRpcMethod("sso.session_userinfo")] UserInfoSSOValue UserInfoSSO(string ssoauth, string sid); } Here is what the xml rpc calls returns (I know it's in php... I'm trying to implement in c#): sso.session_userinfo(string $ssoauth, string $sid) string $ssoauth - authentication string (assigned by ONID support) string $sid - sid to get info on Returns: Array ( [userinfo] => Array ( [lastname] => College [expire_time] => 1118688011 [osuuid] => 12345678901 [sid_length] => 3600 [ip] => 10.0.0.1 [sid] => WiT7ppAEUKS3rJ2lNz3Ue64sGPxnnLL0 [username] => collegej [firstname] => Joe [fullname] => College, Joe Student [email] => [email protected] [create_time] => 1118684410 ) [isonid] => 1 ) array userinfo - array containing basic user information

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  • How to do custom display and auto-select in django admin multi-select field?

    - by rsp
    I'm new to django, so please feel free to tell me if I'm doing this incorrectly. I am trying to create a django ordering system. My order model: class Order(models.Model): ordered_by = models.ForeignKey(User, limit_choices_to = {'groups__name': "Managers", 'is_active': 1}) in my admin ANY user can enter an order, but ordered_by must be someone in the group "managers" (this is the behavior I want). Now, if the logged in user happens to be a manager I want it to automatically fill in the field with that logged in user. I have accomplished this by: class OrderAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): def formfield_for_foreignkey(self, db_field, request, **kwargs): if db_field.name == "ordered_by": if request.user in User.objects.filter(groups__name='Managers', is_active=1): kwargs["initial"] = request.user.id kwargs["empty_label"] = "-------------" return db_field.formfield(**kwargs) return super(OrderAdmin, self).formfield_for_foreignkey(db_field, request, **kwargs) This also works, but the admin puts the username as the display for the select box by default. It would be nice to have the user's real name listed. I was able to do it with this: class UserModelMultipleChoiceField(forms.ModelMultipleChoiceField): def label_from_instance(self, obj): return obj.first_name + " " + obj.last_name class OrderForm(forms.ModelForm): ordered_by = UserModelChoiceField(queryset=User.objects.all().filter(groups__name='Managers', is_active=1)) class OrderAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): form = OrderForm My problem: I can't to both of these. If I put in the formfield_for_foreignkey function and add form = OrderForm to use my custom "UserModelChoiceField", it puts the nice name display but it won't select the currently logged in user. I'm new to this, but my guess is that when I use UserModelChoiceField it "erases" the info passed in via formfield_for_foreignkey. Do I need to use the super() function somehow to pass on this info? or something completely different?

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  • Select All CheckBoxes in GridView ASP.NET using JQuery

    - by dexter
    I have checkBoxes in my Gridview templete columns called "Category A" and "Category B". I want Select-All functionality, i.e. when the user checks the Select-All check Box in category A column, all the checkboxes must get checked under that column. Same for Category B. I am trying with the code below. The problem with my code is, it selects all the check boxes in the entire gridview, "Category A" as well as "Category B"s checkboxes. But, I want only checkboxes selected under the same column. function SelectAllCheckboxesA(chk) { $('#<%=gvSurveys.ClientID %>').find("input:checkbox").each(function() { if (this != chk) { if ($(this).hasClass('CatA') != false) { this.checked = chk.checked; } } else { alert($(this)); } }); } <asp:GridView ID="gvSurveys" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowSorting="True" Width="1500px"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate>Category A <asp:CheckBox ID="chkSelectAllCatA" runat="server" Visible="false" onclick="javascript:SelectAllCheckboxesA(this);" CssClass="SACatA" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkCatA" runat="server" Enabled="false" CssClass="CatA" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> Category B <asp:CheckBox ID="chkSelectAllCatB" runat="server" Visible="false" CssClass="CatB" onclick="javascript:SelectAllCheckboxesB(this);" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkCatB" runat="server" Enabled="false" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView>

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  • java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessag

    - by user362199
    Hi All, I'm using EasyMock(version 2.4) and TestNG for writing UnitTest. I have a following scenario and I cannot change the way class hierarchy is defined. I'm testing ClassB which is extending ClassA. ClassB look like this public class ClassB extends ClassA { public ClassB() { super("title"); } @Override public String getDisplayName() { return ClientMessages.getMessages("ClassB.title"); } } ClassA code public abstract class ClassA { private String title; public ClassA(String title) { this.title = ClientMessages.getMessages(title); } public String getDisplayName() { return this.title; } } ClientMessages class code public class ClientMessages { private static MessageResourse messageResourse; public ClientMessages(MessageResourse messageResourse) { this.messageResourse = messageResourse; } public static String getMessages(String code) { return messageResourse.getMessage(code); } } MessageResourse Class code public class MessageResourse { public String getMessage(String code) { return code; } } Testing ClassB import static org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock.createMock; import org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock; import org.testng.Assert; import org.testng.annotations.Test; public class ClassBTest { private MessageResourse mockMessageResourse = createMock(MessageResourse.class); private ClassB classToTest; private ClientMessages clientMessages; @Test public void testGetDisplayName() { EasyMock.expect(mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title")).andReturn("someTitle"); clientMessages = new ClientMessages(mockMessageResourse); classToTest = new ClassB(); Assert.assertEquals("someTitle" , classToTest.getDisplayName()); EasyMock.replay(mockMessageResourse); } } When I'm running this this test I'm getting following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessage("title") While debugging what I found is, it's not considering the mock method call mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title") as it has been called from the construtor (ClassB object creation). Can any one please help me how to test in this case. Thanks.

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  • Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid

    - by viatropos
    I've been struggling with this for a few days now, haven't pinpointed the problem. I am trying to get OpenID to work in Rails 2.3 and Rails 3, using ruby-openid rack-openid open_id_authentication I am logging in using my viatropos.myopenid.com account, but it consistently returns this error: Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid What could that be from, it's not a very descriptive error... Does it have to do with something ruby-specific, or is this entirely on the OpenID protocol side of things? More specifically, I am using Authlogic and ActiveRecord, so could this be a problem with my User or UserSession models somehow? Or is it more to do with the header or request? In ruby response I'm getting (from puts inside ruby-openid) is: #<OpenID::Consumer::FailureResponse:0x25e282c @reference=nil, @endpoint=#<OpenID::OpenIDServiceEndpoint:0x2601984 @local_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/", @display_identifier=nil, @type_uris=["http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/signon", "http://openid.net/sreg/1.0", "http://openid.net/extensions/sreg/1.1", "http://schemas.openid.net/pape/policies/2007/06/phishing-resistant", "http://openid.net/srv/ax/1.0"], @used_yadis=true, @server_url="http://www.myopenid.com/server", @canonical_id=nil, @claimed_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/">, @message="Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid", @contact=nil> Any tips would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to call Ajax function recursively.

    - by MAS1
    Hi guys, I want to know how to call Ajax function Recursively. My ajax code is like this, <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var step='1'; $.ajax ( { url: 'test1.php', data: {step: step}, success: function(output) { step=eval(output); alert(step); } } ); </script> </head> </html> And php code is like this <?php function writeName() { echo "step=2"; } function ReadName() { echo "In Read Name Function"; } if(isset($_REQUEST['step']) && !empty($_REQUEST['step'])) { $step = $_REQUEST['step']; switch($step) { case '1' : writeName(); break; case '2' : ReadName(); break; default : echo "Empty String"; } } ?> first time this function is get called with value of step variable equal to 1 and Function Write name modified it as 2. Now i want to call this Ajax function with Step variable value equal to 2. So that 2nd php function gets called.

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  • Call to CFC via Ajax-POST does not work

    - by Philipp
    We have the following problem: A CFC-method that is called from AJAX suddenly redirects the request to cfcexplorer instead of executing the request. The strange thing is, that the problem only occurs when we make the ajax call via "POST" method, like this: // This will return the HTTP Status header: // Location: http://url.to:80/CFIDE/componentutils/cfcexplorer.cfc?method=getcfcinhtml&name=web.ajax&path=/web/ajax.cfc $.post( "http://url.to/ajax.cfc", {method: "test"}, function(res) { alert("ajax.cfc POST return:" + res); } ); Making the same request as "GET" request works perfectly: // This will call the method "test" of web/ajax.cfc $.get( "http://url.to/ajax.cfc", {method: "test"}, function(res) { alert("ajax.cfc GET return:" + res); } ); This is the ajax.cfc file (dummy file): <cfcomponent> <cffunction name="test" access="remote" returntype="Any" returnformat="JSON"> <cfset j = {}> <cfset j.data = "this is the data"> <cfreturn serializeJson(j)> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> What really puzzles us is that the request did work in the past (we have a lot of code all making ajax calls via POST and CF-code that expects FORM-data to be present, so we cannot simply change the method to GET) Maybe there was some setting that has changed or similar...

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  • Javascript - innerHTML not working with HTML select menus

    - by Deacon
    Hi guys, In my HTML page I have 2 select menus with IDs "month" and "day" - "day" is empty when the page loads, "month" has 12 options with values 1-12 corresponding to January - December. "month" has an onchange event which calls this function: function showOutboundDays(month) { if(month==4 || month==6 || month==9 || month==11) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option><option value="2">2</option>'; etc. up to 30 else if(month==2) document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 28 else document.getElementById('day').innerHTML='<option value="1">1</option>'; etc. up to 31 } (just imagine there are braces around the option tags to help you see...) I think it's pretty clear to see what I'm trying to achieve...and everything works fine apart from the innerHTML of the select with ID "day" doesn't get filled at all, regardless of what month you pick. And I know the problem is with this stage of the function because when I change the if, elseif and else code-to-be-executed to alerts or something similar, it works fine. Does anybody know what the problem with the innerHTML is? Thanks EDIT: Using Firefox 3.6

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  • Can't call animated png script from external js file

    - by Tomas
    Hello, I'm trying to put an animated PNG dinamicaly from external .js file. First I found a simple animated png solution, which draws an animation wherever you put the code within tags, but now it looks like I don't know how to call the function properly from external file. The script is from www.squaregoldfish.co.uk/software/animatedpng, and it looks something like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="animatedpng.js"></script> <div id="pnganim" align="center"> <script> fishAnim = new AnimatedPNG('fish', 't01.png', 3, 100); fishAnim.draw(false); </script> </div> Now, I'm trying to call this from external.js file and jquery: function addFish(){ $('#pnganim').html('<script type="text/javascript" src="animatedpng.js" />'); fishAnim = new AnimatedPNG('fish', 'fish01.png', 3, 100); myFish = fishAnim.draw(false); $('#pnganim').append(myFish); } ... and it's not working. After I click a button that calls the addFish function, it opens only the first frame on a blank page. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks

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  • Wanted: How to reliably, consistently select an MKMapView annotation

    - by jdandrea
    After calling MKMapView's setCenterCoordinate:animated: method (without animation), I'd like to call selectAnnotation:animated: (with animation) so that the annotation pops out from the newly-centered pushpin. For now, I simply watch for mapViewDidFinishLoadingMap: and then select the annotation. However, this is problematic. For instance, this method isn't called when there's no need to load additional map data. In those cases, my annotation isn't selected. :( Very well. I could call this immediately after setting the center coordinate instead. Ahh, but in that case it's possible that there is map data to load (but it hasn't finished loading yet). I'd risk calling it too soon, with the animation becoming spotty at best. Thus, if I understand correctly, it's not a matter of knowing if my coordinate is visible, since it's possible to stray almost a screenful of distance and have to load new map data. Rather, it's a matter of knowing if new map data needs to be loaded, and then acting accordingly. Any ideas on how to accomplish this, or how to otherwise (reliably) select an annotation after re-centering the map view on the coordinate where that annotation lives? Clues appreciated - thanks!

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  • what is the jquery selector syntax to select this LI item

    - by Jonathan Lyon
    hi all I need to select each list item and change the background image of the parent div homepagecontainer but I can't even select the li element in my script. Here is the code: <div class="transparent" id="programmesbox"> <ul id="frontpage"> <?php query_posts('showposts=20&post_parent=7&post_type=page'); if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <li id="<?php the_id() ?>" ><a class="sprite" href="<?php the_permalink() ?>" title="<?php the_title(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></li> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> </ul> </div> I need to do something like this <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#frontpage li a').hover(function() { alert('here'); //CHANGE BACKGROUND IMAGE OF 'homepage_container' to different image depending on which list item is hovered over } ); </script> This is the URL of the site:- http://www.thebalancedbody.ca/ Thanks so much!! Jonathan

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  • Daemon program that uses select() inside infinite loop uses significantly more CPU when ported from

    - by Jake
    I have a daemon app written in C and is currently running with no known issues on a Solaris 10 machine. I am in the process of porting it over to Linux. I have had to make minimal changes. During testing it passes all test cases. There are no issues with its functionality. However, when I view its CPU usage when 'idle' on my Solaris machine it is using around .03% CPU. On the Virtual Machine running Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.8 that same process uses all available CPU (usually somewhere in the 90%+ range). My first thought was that something must be wrong with the event loop. The event loop is an infinite loop ( while(1) ) with a call to select(). The timeval is setup so that timeval.tv_sec = 0 and timeval.tv_usec = 1000. This seems reasonable enough for what the process is doing. As a test I bumped the timeval.tv_sec to 1. Even after doing that I saw the same issue. Is there something I am missing about how select works on Linux vs. Unix? Or does it work differently with and OS running on a Virtual Machine? Or maybe there is something else I am missing entirely? One more thing I am sure sure which version of vmware server is being used. It was just updated about a month ago though. Thanks.

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  • PHP PDO SQL Server Select statement not replacing question marks

    - by Metropolis
    Awhile ago I wrote a database class which uses PDO in order to connect to SQL Server databases and also to MySQL databases. It has always replaced the question marks fine when using it on the MySQL databases, but for the SQL Server database I had to create a work around which basically replaces the question marks manually. Here is the code for that. if($this->getPDODriver() == 'odbc' && !empty($values_a) && substr_count($query_s, "?") > 0) { $query_s = preg_replace(array_fill(0, substr_count($query_s, "?"), '/\?/'), $values_a, $query_s, 1); $values_a = NULL; } Now, I understand that this completely defeats the purpose of the question marks and PDO, but it has been working fine for me. What I would like to do now though, is find out why the question marks are not getting replaced in the first place, and remove this workaround. If I have a select statement like the following SELECT * FROM database WHERE value = ? That is what the query looks like when I go to prepare it, but when I display the query results, it is a blank array. Just remember, this class is working fine with MySQL, and it is working fine with the work around above. So I know it has something to do with the question marks.

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