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  • About variadic templates

    - by chedi
    Hi, I'm currently experiencing with the new c++0x variadic templates, and it's quit fun, Although I have a question about the process of member instanciation. in this example, I'm trying to emulate the strongly typed enum with the possibility of choose a random valid strong enum (this is used for unit testing). #include<vector> #include<iostream> using namespace std; template<unsigned... values> struct sp_enum; /* this is the solution I found, declaring a globar var vector<unsigned> _data; and it work just fine */ template<> struct sp_enum<>{ static const unsigned _count = 0; static vector<unsigned> _data; }; vector<unsigned> sp_enum<>::_data; template<unsigned T, unsigned... values> struct sp_enum<T, values...> : private sp_enum<values...>{ static const unsigned _count = sp_enum<values...>::_count+1; static vector<unsigned> _data; sp_enum( ) : sp_enum<values...>(values...) {_data.push_back(T);} sp_enum(unsigned v ) {_data.push_back(v);} sp_enum(unsigned v, unsigned...) : sp_enum<values...>(values...) {_data.push_back(v);} }; template<unsigned T, unsigned... values> vector<unsigned> sp_enum<T, values...>::_data; int main(){ enum class t:unsigned{Default = 5, t1, t2}; sp_enum<t::Default, t::t1, t::t2> test; cout <<test._count << endl << test._data.size() << endl; for(auto i= test._data.rbegin();i != test._data.rend();++i){cout<< *i<< ":";} } the result I'm getting with this code is : 3 1 5: can someone point me what I'm messing here ??? Ps: using gcc 4.4.3

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  • handling NSStream events when using EASession in MonoTouch

    - by scotru
    Does anyone have an example of how to handle read and write NSStream events in Monotouch when working with accessories via EASession? It looks like there isn't a strongly typed delegate for this and I'm having trouble figuring out what selectors I need to handle on the delegates of my InputStream and OutputStream and what I actually need to do with each selector in order to properly fill and empty the buffers belonging to the EASession object. Basically, I'm trying to port Apple's EADemo app to Monotouch right now. Here's the Objective-C source that I think is relevant to this problem: / / asynchronous NSStream handleEvent method - (void)stream:(NSStream *)aStream handleEvent:(NSStreamEvent)eventCode { switch (eventCode) { case NSStreamEventNone: break; case NSStreamEventOpenCompleted: break; case NSStreamEventHasBytesAvailable: [self _readData]; break; case NSStreamEventHasSpaceAvailable: [self _writeData]; break; case NSStreamEventErrorOccurred: break; case NSStreamEventEndEncountered: break; default: break; } } / low level write method - write data to the accessory while there is space available and data to write - (void)_writeData { while (([[_session outputStream] hasSpaceAvailable]) && ([_writeData length] > 0)) { NSInteger bytesWritten = [[_session outputStream] write:[_writeData bytes] maxLength:[_writeData length]]; if (bytesWritten == -1) { NSLog(@"write error"); break; } else if (bytesWritten > 0) { [_writeData replaceBytesInRange:NSMakeRange(0, bytesWritten) withBytes:NULL length:0]; } } } // low level read method - read data while there is data and space available in the input buffer - (void)_readData { #define EAD_INPUT_BUFFER_SIZE 128 uint8_t buf[EAD_INPUT_BUFFER_SIZE]; while ([[_session inputStream] hasBytesAvailable]) { NSInteger bytesRead = [[_session inputStream] read:buf maxLength:EAD_INPUT_BUFFER_SIZE]; if (_readData == nil) { _readData = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; } [_readData appendBytes:(void *)buf length:bytesRead]; //NSLog(@"read %d bytes from input stream", bytesRead); } [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:EADSessionDataReceivedNotification object:self userInfo:nil]; } I'd also appreciate any architectural recommendations on how to best implement this in monotouch. For example, in the Objective C implementation these functions are not contained in any class--but in Monotouch would it make sense to make them members of my

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  • How can I include additional markup within a 'Content' inner property of an ASP.Net WebControl?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I've searched the site and I cannot find a solution for my problem, so apologies if it's already been answered (I'm sure someone must have asked this before). I have written a jQuery Popup window that I've packaged up as a WebControl and IScriptControl. The last step is to be able to write the markup within the tags of my control. I've used the InnerProperty attribute a few times, but only for including lists of strongly typed classes. Here's my property on the WebControl: [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public something??? Content { get { if (_content == null) { _content = new something???(); } return _content; } } private something??? _content; Here's the HTML Markup of what I'm after: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_Test" Hidden="false" Width="100px" Height="100px" Modal="true" WindowCaption="Test Window" CssClass="window"> <Content> <div style="display:none;"> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </div> <%--Etc--%> <%--Etc--%> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> Unfortunately I don't know what type my Content property should be. I basically need to replicate the UpdatePanel's ContentTemplate. EDIT: So the following allows a Template container to be automatically created, but no controls show up, what's wrong with what I'm doing? [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public ITemplate Content { get { return _content; } set { _content = value; } } private ITemplate _content; EDIT2: Overriding the CreateChildControls allows the controls within the ITemplate to be rendered: protected override void CreateChildControls() { if (this.Content != null) { this.Controls.Clear(); this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } base.CreateChildControls(); } Unfortunately I cannot now access the controls within the ITemplate from the codebehind file on the file. I.e. if I put a button within my mark as so: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_StatusFilter"> <Content> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btn_Test" Text="Cannot access this from code behind?" /> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> I then cannot access btn_Test from the code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { btn_Test.Text = "btn_Test is not present in Intellisense and is not accessible to the page. It does, however, render correctly."; }

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  • get_or_create generic relations in Django & python debugging in general

    - by rabidpebble
    I ran the code to create the generically related objects from this demo: http://www.djangoproject.com/documentation/models/generic_relations/ Everything is good intially: >>> bacon.tags.create(tag="fatty") <TaggedItem: fatty> >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="fatty") >>> tag <TaggedItem: fatty> >>> newtag False But then the use case that I'm interested in for my app: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome") Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/manager.py", line 123, in get_or_create return self.get_query_set().get_or_create(**kwargs) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 343, in get_or_create raise e IntegrityError: app_taggeditem.content_type_id may not be NULL I tried a bunch of random things after looking at other code: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome", content_type=TaggedItem) ValueError: Cannot assign "<class 'generics.app.models.TaggedItem'>": "TaggedItem.content_type" must be a "ContentType" instance. or: >>> tag, newtag = bacon.tags.get_or_create(tag="wholesome", content_type=TaggedItem.content_type) InterfaceError: Error binding parameter 3 - probably unsupported type. etc. I'm sure somebody can give me the correct syntax, but the real problem here is that I have no idea what is going on. I have developed in strongly typed languages for over ten years (x86 assembly, C++ and C#) but am new to Python. I find it really difficult to follow what is going on in Python when things like this break. In the languages I mentioned previously it's fairly straightforward to figure things like this out -- check the method signature and check your parameters. Looking at the Django documentation for half an hour left me just as lost. Looking at the source for get_or_create(self, **kwargs) didn't help either since there is no method signature and the code appears very generic. A next step would be to debug the method and try to figure out what is happening, but this seems a bit extreme... I seem to be missing some fundamental operating principle here... what is it? How do I resolve issues like this on my own in the future?

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  • Nservicebus serization issue of derived types

    - by Tiju John
    Hi Guys, for the context setting, I am exchanging messages between my nServiceBus client and nSerivceBus server. its is the namespace xyz.Messages and and a class, Message : IMessage I have more messages that are in the other dlls, like xyz.Messages.Domain1, xyz.Messages.Domain2, xyz.Messages.Domain3. and messages that derive form that base message, Message. I have the endpoints defined as like : at client <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzServerQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> at Server <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="xyz.Messages" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain1" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> <add Messages="xyz.Messages.Domain2" Endpoint="xyzClientQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> and the bus initialized as IBus serviceBus = Configure.With() .SpringBuilder() .XmlSerializer() .MsmqTransport() .UnicastBus() .LoadMessageHandlers() .CreateBus() .Start(); now when i try sending instance of Message type or any type derived types of Message, it successfully sends the message over and at the server, i get the proper type. eg. Message message= new Message(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers Message type message = new MessageDerived1(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived1 type message = new MessageDerived2(); Bus.Send(message); // works fine, transfers MessageDerived2 type My problem arises when any type, say MessageDerived1, contains a member variable of type Message, and when i assign it to a derived type, the type is not properly transferred over the wire. It transfers only as Message type, not the derived type. public class MessageDerived2 : Message { public Message message; } MessageDerived2 messageDerived2= new MessageDerived2(); messageDerived2.message = new MessageDerived1(); message = messageDerived2; Bus.Send(message); // incorrect behaviour, transfers MessageDerived2 correctly, but looses type of MessageDerived2.Message (it deserializes as Message type, instead of MessageDerived1) any help is strongly appreciated. Thanks TJ

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  • PCI-DSS compliance for business with only swipe terminals [migrated]

    - by rowatt
    I support the IT infrastructure for a small retail business which is now required to undergo a PCI-DSS assessment. The payment service and terminal provider (Streamline) has asked that we use Trustwave to do the PCI-DSS certification. The problem I face is that if I answer all questions and follow Trustwave's requirements to the letter, we will have to invest significantly in networking equipment to segment LANs and /or do internal vulnerability scanning, while at the same time Streamline assures me that the terminals we have (Verifone VX670-B and MagIC3 X-8) are secure, don't store any credit card information and are PCI-DSS compliant so by implication we don't need to take any action to ensure their network security. I'm looking for any suggestions as to how we can most easily meet the networking requirements for PCI-DSS. Some background on our current network setup: single wired LAN, also with WiFi turned on (though if this creates any PCI-DSS complexities we can turn it off). single Netgear ADSL router. This is the only firewall we have in place, and the firewall is out the box configuration (i.e. no DMZ, SNMP etc). Passwords have been changed though :-) a few windows PCs and 2 windows based tills, none of which ever see any credit card information at all. two swipe terminals. Until a few months ago (before we were told we had to be PCI-DSS certified) these terminals did auth/capture over the phone. Streamline suggested we moved to their IP Broadband service, which instead uses an SSL encrypted channel over the internet to do auth/capture, so we now use that service. We don't do any ecommerce or receive payments over the internet. All transactions are either cardholder present, or MOTO with details given over phone and typed direct into terminal. We're based in the UK. As I currently understand it we have three options in order to get PCI-DSS certification. segment our network so the POS terminals are isolated from all PCs, and set up internal vulnerability scanning on that network. don't segment the network, and have to do more internal scanning and have more onerous management of PCs than I think we need (for example, though the tills are Windows based, they are fully managed so I have no control over software update policies, anti virus etc). All PCs have anti virus (MSE) and windows updates automatically applied, but we don't have any centralised go back to auth/capture over phone lines. I can't imagine we are the first merchant to be in this situation. I'm looking for any recommendations a simple, cost effective way to be PCI-DSS compliant - either by doing 1 or 2 above with (hopefully) simple and inexpensive equipment/software, or any other ways if there's a better way to do this. Or... should we just go back to the digital stone age and do auth/capture over the phone, which means we don't need to do anything on our network to be PCI-DSS certified?

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  • Firefox: non-Vimperator way to do mouseless browsing?

    - by Peter Mortensen
    Is it possible to do efficient browsing with Firefox using only the keyboard (like in Opera)? By efficient I mean something faster than using TAB - this takes far too long. The arrow keys should be for navigation (in Opera it is Shift + arrow key). It can done with the Vimperator add-on, but isn't there a simpler way? Update 2: the closest to Opera's way is to enable caret navigation (F7 toggles this mode). It doesn't jump between links so it is a little bit slower, but the normal navigation (arrow keys, page up, page down, etc.) works and the focus/caret/cursor follows (in contrast to a text editor for page up/down). And text can be selected and copied like in a text editor. The biggest drawback is that in practice it is necessary to switch in and out of caret mode. And there is no indication of which mode is currently active. Update 1: a work-around (proposed by several but is not really what I am looking for) can be used if 3 settings are changed (to make it practical). After these changes the first few letters of a link text can be typed and that link will selected so pressing Enter will open it. Using the work-around the screen will jump around if it is a long page as it does not restrict itself to the current visible page, but it is usable. First settings change: menu Tools/Options/Advanced/tab General/Accessibility/Search for text when I start typing Turn this option on. Second settings change: set option to only go to links; in address bar enter: about:config followed by Enter. Then: press "I'll be careful, I promise", find the line accessibility.typeaheadfind.linksonly, select it and change the value to True by either hitting Enter or Shift+F10/Toggle (accessibility.typeaheadfind.linksonly is on line 11 when I tried). Third settings change: turn off case-sensitivity. Set accessibility.typeaheadfind.casesensitive to 0 (same procedure as for accessibility.typeaheadfind.linksonly, see above. When Enter is pressed a dialog box will appear with the current value. Type 0 and press Enter). To use: type some part of the link. If there are several possibilities use Ctrl+G (or F3) to jump between them. Use Ctrl+Enter to open in a new tab. Platform: Firefox 3.0.6, Windows XP 64 bit SP2.

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  • Why do my Application Compatibility Toolkit Data Collectors fail to write to my ACT Log Share?

    - by Jay Michaud
    I am trying to get the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit 5.6 (version 5.6.7320.0) to work, but I cannot get the Data Collectors to write to the ACT Log Share. The configuration is as follows. Machine: ACT-Server Domain: mydomain.example.com OS: Windows 7 Enterprise 64-bit Edition Windows Firewall configuration: File and Printer Sharing (SMB-In) is enabled for Public, Domain, and Private networks ACT Log Share: ACT Share permissions*: Group/user names Allow permissions --------------------------------------- Everyone Full Control Administrator Full Control Domain Admins Full Control Administrators Full Control ANONYMOUS LOGON Full Control Folder permissions*: Group/user name Allow permissions Apply to ------------------------------------------------- ANONYMOUS LOGON Read, write & execute This folder, subfolders, and files Domain Admins Full control This folder, subfolders, and files Everyone Read, write & execute This folder, subfolders, and files Administrators Full control This folder, subfolders, and files CREATOR OWNER Full control Subfolders and files SYSTEM Full control This folder, subfolders, and files INTERACTIVE Traverse folder / This folder, subfolders, and files execute file, List folder / read data, Read attributes, Read extended attributes, Create files / write data, Create folders / append data, Write attributes, Write extended attributes, Delete subfolders and files, Delete, Read permissions SERVICE (same as INTERACTIVE) BATCH (same as INTERACTIVE) *I am fully aware that these permissions are excessive, but that is beside the point of this question. Some of the clients running the Data Collector are domain members, but some are not. I am working under the assumption that this is a Windows file sharing permission issue or a network access policy issue, but of course, I could be wrong. It is my understanding that the Data Collector runs in the security context of the SYSTEM account, which for domain members appears on the network as MYDOMAIN\machineaccount. It is also my understanding from reading numerous pieces of documentation that setting the ANONYMOUS LOGON permissions as I have above should allow these computer accounts and non-domain-joined computers to access the share. To test connectivity, I set up the Windows XP Mode virtual machine (VM) on ACT-Server. In the VM, I opened a command prompt running as SYSTEM (using the old "at" command trick). I used this command prompt to run explorer.exe. In this Windows Explorer instance, I typed \ACT-Server\ACT into the address bar, and then I was prompted for logon credentials. The goal, though, was not to be prompted. I also used the "net use /delete" command in the command prompt window to delete connections to the ACT-Server\IPC$ share each time my connection attempt failed. I have made sure that the appropriate exceptions are Since ACT-Server is a domain member, the "Network access: Sharing and security model for local accounts" security policy is set to "Classic - local users authenticate as themselves". In spite of this, I still tried enabling the Guest account and adding permissions for it on the share to no effect. What am I missing here? How do I allow anonymous logons to a shared folder as a step toward getting my ACT Data Collectors to deposit their data correctly? Am I even on the right track, or is the issue elsewhere?

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  • Another serialization ? - c#

    - by ltech
    I had asked this Yesterday If my xsd schema changes to <xs:element name="Document" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="MetaDoc" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="ATTRIBUTES" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="author" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="max_versions" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="summary" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> My xsd - class generation becomes /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("MetaDoc", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[]), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("ATTRIBUTES", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false, NestingLevel=1)] public DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[][][] Document { get { return this.documentField; } set { this.documentField = value; } } If I am deriving to CollectionBase, as shown in my previous post, how would I manage the XmlArrayItemAttribute ? so that I can read this part of my input xml into my strongly types object <Document> <MetaDoc> <ATTRIBUTES> <author>asas</author> <max_versions>1</max_versions> <summary>aasasqqqq</summary> </ATTRIBUTES> </MetaDoc> </Document>

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  • Why always fires OnFailure when return View() to Ajax Form ?

    - by Wahid Bitar
    I'm trying to make a log-in log-off with Ajax supported. I made some logic in my controller to sign the user in and then return simple partial containing welcome message and log-Off ActionLink my Action method looks like this : public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnModel model, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ValidateUser(model.UserName, model.Password)) { FormsService.SignIn(model.UserName, model.RememberMe); if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { //HERE IS THE PROBLEM :( return View("LogedInForm"); } else { if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) return Redirect(returnUrl); else return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The user name or password provided is incorrect."); if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { return Content("There were an error !"); } } } return View(model); } and I'm trying to return this simple partial : Welcome <b><%= Html.Encode(Model.UserName)%></b>! <%= Html.ActionLink("Log Off", "LogOff", "Account") %> and of-course the two partial are strongly-typed to LogOnModel. But if i returned View("PartialName") i always get OnFailure with status code 500. While if i returned Content("My Message") everything is going right. so please tell me why i always get this "StatusCode = 500" ??. where is the big mistake ??. By the way in my Site MasterPage i rendered partial to show long-on simple form this partial looks like this : <script type="text/javascript"> function ShowErrorMessage(ajaxContext) { var response = ajaxContext.get_response(); var statusCode = response.get_statusCode(); alert("Sorry, the request failed with status code " + statusCode); } function ShowSuccessMessage() { alert("Hey everything is OK!"); } </script> <div id="logedInDiv"> </div> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("LogOn", "Account", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "logedInDiv", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, OnSuccess = "ShowSuccessMessage", OnFailure = "ShowErrorMessage" })) { %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.UserName)%> <%= Html.PasswordFor(m => m.Password)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.RememberMe)%> <input type="submit" value="Log On" /> < <% } %>

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  • Apache refusing to change DocumentRoot

    - by mingos
    I've installed Zend Server CE 5.1.0 on Windows 7 Ultimate 64 bit in its default location, meaning the path to my htdocs is C:\Program Files (x86)\Zend\Apache2\htdocs. Not something that I would like to type each time I check out a project from SVN in Eclipse or something. I'd like to set the DocumentRoot to a different folder, namely D:\www. What I've done I edited conf/httpd.conf, with the significant lines being: DocumentRoot "D:\www" <Directory "D:\www"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> Include conf/extra/httpd-vhosts.conf I edited conf/extra/httpd-vhosts.conf to add a virtual host: NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot D:\www ServerName localhost ServerAlias localhost SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development SetEnv APPLICATION_DOMAIN localhost </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot D:\www\UmbraCMS ServerName umbracms.local ServerAlias umbracms.local SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development SetEnv APPLICATION_DOMAIN umbracms.local </VirtualHost> I edited C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts to add this line: 127.0.0.1 umbracms.local And I also added a PHP project to D:\www\UmbraCMS. And restarted Apache. Actually, I restarted the computer, too, just in case. What's supposed to happen After typing http://umbracms.local/ in the browser's address bar, I want to see my PHP project launch, obviously. What's actually happening No matter whether whether I type http://umbracms.local/ or http://localhost/, I'm taken to the test zend page, located in C:\Program Files (x86)\Zend\Apache2\htdocs\index.html, as if neither DocumentRoot was changed nor name-based virtual hosting worked. Interestingly, when I put another project in C:\Program Files (x86)\Zend\Apache2\htdocs\bugraid\ and then, in the browser, typed http://localhost/bugraid, the project actually opened, or at least tried to, as it completely ignored the project's .htaccess file. Extra considerations Zend Server's Apache version is 2.2.16, PHP version is 5.3.0 I've installed MySQL CE 5.5.13 separately, and it works, both from command line and via MySQL Workbench. I have XAMPP installed, but none of its components are started up. It's got its own install of Apache 2.2.17 and MySQL 5.5.1. PHP version is 5.3.5 (I think). Question Have you had a similar situation before? What else might need taking care of in order to have Zend Server's Apache use D:\www as document root for my PHP projects?

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • How to access static members in a Velocity template?

    - by matt b
    I'm not sure if there is a way to do this in Velocity or not: I have a User POJO which a property named Status, which looks like an enum (but it is not, since I am stuck on Java 1.4), the definition looks something like this: public class User { // default status to User private Status status = Status.USER; public void setStatus(Status status) { this.status = status; } public Status getStatus() { return status; } And Status is a static inner class: public static final class Status { private String statusString; private Status(String statusString) { this.statusString = statusString; } public final static Status USER = new Status("user"); public final static Status ADMIN = new Status("admin"); public final static Status STATUS_X = new Status("blah"); //.equals() and .hashCode() implemented as well } With this pattern, a user status can easily be tested in a conditional such as if(User.Status.ADMIN.equals(user.getStatus())) ... ... without having to reference any constants for the status ID, any magic numbers, etc. However, I can't figure out how to test these conditionals in my Velocity template with VTL. I'd like to just print a simple string based upon the user's status, such as: Welcome <b>${user.name}</b>! <br/> <br/> #if($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.USER) You are a regular user #elseif($user.status == com.company.blah.User.Status.ADMIN) You are an administrator #etc... #end But this throws an Exception that looks like org.apache.velocity.exception.ParseErrorException: Encountered "User" at webpages/include/dashboard.inc[line 10, column 21] Was expecting one of: "[" ... From the VTL User Guide, there is no mention of accessing a Java class/static member directly in VTL, it appears that the right hand side (RHS) of a conditional can only be a number literal, string literal, property reference, or method reference. So is there any way that I can access static Java properties/references in a Velocity template? I'm aware that as a workaround, I could embed the status ID or some other identifier as a reference in my controller (this is a web MVC application using Velocity as the View technology), but I strongly do not want to embed any magic numbers or constants in the view layer.

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  • Unable to serialize correctly- c#

    - by ltech
    I had asked this Yesterday If my xsd schema changes to <xs:element name="Document" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="MetaDoc" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="ATTRIBUTES" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="author" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="max_versions" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xs:element name="summary" type="xs:string" minOccurs="0" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> My xsd - class generation becomes /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("MetaDoc", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[]), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false)] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItemAttribute("ATTRIBUTES", typeof(DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES), Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, IsNullable=false, NestingLevel=1)] public DocumentMetaDocATTRIBUTES[][][] Document { get { return this.documentField; } set { this.documentField = value; } } If I am deriving to CollectionBase, as shown in my previous post, how would I manage the XmlArrayItemAttribute ? so that I can read this part of my input xml into my strongly types object <Document> <MetaDoc> <ATTRIBUTES> <author>asas</author> <max_versions>1</max_versions> <summary>aasasqqqq</summary> </ATTRIBUTES> </MetaDoc> </Document>

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  • graphic error on console

    - by Christian Elsner
    I have Linux on an embedded system. There is no graphic system, but I still have graphic errors. For example, if I type: ifconfig eth2 hw ether 00:0e:8c:d0:59:d2 I see: ifconfig eth hw ether 00:0e:8:2:2 If I type Enter, it accepts the command I typed, so it's just a matter of displaying. Everything is fine, when I log in via SSH. Anyone any ideas, what could be the cause or where to look at? Output of lspci: 00:00.0 Host bridge: Intel Corporation 3100 Chipset Memory I/O Controller Hub 00:00.1 Unassigned class [ff00]: Intel Corporation 3100 DRAM Controller Error Reporting Registers 00:01.0 System peripheral: Intel Corporation 3100 Chipset Enhanced DMA Controller 00:02.0 PCI bridge: Intel Corporation 3100 Chipset PCI Express Port A 00:03.0 PCI bridge: Intel Corporation 3100 Chipset PCI Express Port A1 00:1c.0 PCI bridge: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset PCI Express Root Port 1 (rev 01) 00:1c.1 PCI bridge: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset PCI Express Root Port 2 (rev 01) 00:1d.0 USB Controller: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset UHCI USB Controller #1 (rev 01) 00:1d.1 USB Controller: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset UHCI USB Controller #2 (rev 01) 00:1d.7 USB Controller: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset EHCI USB2 Controller (rev 01) 00:1e.0 PCI bridge: Intel Corporation 82801 PCI Bridge (rev c9) 00:1f.0 ISA bridge: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset LPC Interface Controller (rev 01) 00:1f.2 IDE interface: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset SATA IDE Controller (rev 01) 00:1f.3 SMBus: Intel Corporation 631xESB/632xESB/3100 Chipset SMBus Controller (rev 01) 02:00.0 Ethernet controller: Intel Corporation 82574L Gigabit Network Connection 03:01.0 Network controller: Siemens Nixdorf AG Device 4003 (rev 02) 03:01.1 Unassigned class [ff00]: Siemens Nixdorf AG Device 4003 (rev 02) 03:02.0 Ethernet controller: Siemens Nixdorf AG Device 4047 (rev 01) 03:03.0 Ethernet controller: National Semiconductor Corporation DP83815 (MacPhyter) Ethernet Controller 03:04.0 Unassigned class [ff00]: Siemens Nixdorf AG Device 4057 (rev 01) 04:00.0 PCI bridge: Texas Instruments XIO2000(A)/XIO2200(A) PCI Express-to-PCI Bridge (rev 03) 05:00.0 Ethernet controller: Advanced Micro Devices [AMD] 79c970 [PCnet32 LANCE] (rev 44) 06:00.0 PCI bridge: Texas Instruments XIO2000(A)/XIO2200(A) PCI Express-to-PCI Bridge (rev 03) 07:00.0 VGA compatible controller: Silicon Motion, Inc. SM720 Lynx3DM (rev c1) 07:01.0 USB Controller: NEC Corporation USB (rev 43) 07:01.1 USB Controller: NEC Corporation USB (rev 43) 07:01.2 USB Controller: NEC Corporation USB 2.0 (rev 04) The whole thing is running on an Intel Core 2 Duo U2500

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  • Objective-c design advice for use of different data sources, swapping between test and live

    - by user200341
    I'm in the process of designing an application that is part of a larger piece of work, depending on other people to build an API that the app can make use of to retrieve data. While I was thinking about how to setup this project and design the architecture around it, something occurred to me, and I'm sure many people have been in similar situations. Since my work is depending on other people to complete their tasks, and a test server, this slows work down at my end. So the question is: What's the best practice for creating test repositories and classes, implementing them, and not having to depend on altering several places in the code to swap between the test classes and the actual repositories / proper api calls. Contemplate the following scenario: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [[GetDataFromApiCommand alloc]init]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; Once the data is available via the API, "GetDataFromApiCommand" could use the actual API, but until then a set of mock data could be returned upon the call of [getDataCommand getData] There might be multiple instances of this, in various places in the code, so replacing all of them wherever they are, is a slow and painful process which inevitably leads to one or two being overlooked. In strongly typed languages we could use dependency injection and just alter one place. In objective-c a factory pattern could be implemented, but is that the best route to go for this? GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [GetDataFromApiCommandFactory buildGetDataFromApiCommand]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; What is the best practices to achieve this result? Since this would be most useful, even if you have the actual API available, to run tests, or work off-line, the ApiCommands would not necessarily have to be replaced permanently, but the option to select "Do I want to use TestApiCommand or ApiCommand". It is more interesting to have the option to switch between: All commands are test and All command use the live API, rather than selecting them one by one, however that would also be useful to do for testing one or two actual API commands, mixing them with test data. EDIT The way I have chosen to go with this is to use the factory pattern. I set up the factory as follows: @implementation ApiCommandFactory + (ApiCommand *)newApiCommand { // return [[ApiCommand alloc]init]; return [[ApiCommandMock alloc]init]; } @end And anywhere I want to use the ApiCommand class: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [ApiCommandFactory newApiCommand]; When the actual API call is required, the comments can be removed and the mock can be commented out. Using new in the message name implies that who ever uses the factory to get an object, is responsible for releasing it (since we want to avoid autorelease on the iPhone). If additional parameters are required, the factory needs to take these into consideration i.e: [ApiCommandFactory newSecondApiCommand:@"param1"]; This will work quite well with repositories as well.

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  • asp.net mvc & jquery dialog: What approach do I take to add items to a dropdownlist/select list with

    - by Mark Redman
    Hi, I am new to MVC and have a grasp of the basic model, but still doing everything with postbacks etc. One aspect of the UI I want to build is to have a drop-down-list of items with a button to add an item to the database and refresh the list. Achieving this with WebForms was straight forward as everything was wrapped in UpdatePanels, but what is the best approach to achieve this using MVC? Part of the markup for the list and button look like this: <table> <tr> <td><%=Html.DropDownList("JobTitleSelectList", Model.JobTitleSelectList, "(select job title)", new { @class = "data-entry-field" })%></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><a id="AddJobTitleDialogLink" href="javascript: addJobTitleDialog();" title="Add Job Title"><img id="AddJobTitleButtonImage" src="/Content/Images/Icons/16x16/PlusGrey.png" border="0" /></a></td> </tr> </table> The Dialog is a standard jquery Ui dialog, looks like this: <div id="SingleTextEntryDialog" style="display:none"> <table> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td><input id="SingleTextEntryDialogText" type="text" size="25" /></td> </tr> </table> </div> I am guessing I need to put this into a UserControl / PartialView (are they the same thing?) Also with the strongly typed View how do I pass the Model or just the SelectList Property to the UserControl or is this not the case? Nor sure if there should be form in the dialog div? or how that is going to postback via ajax. Some examples show a lot of ajax code in the page something like: $.ajax({...}); I assume doing this using jquery is more code than asp.net webforms, but there is just more code to see doing a "View Source" on a page? Your comments appreciated.

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  • web service filling gridview awfully slow, as is paging/sorting

    - by nat
    Hi I am making a page which calls a web service to fill a gridview this is returning alot of data, and is horribly slow. i ran the svcutil.exe on the wsdl page and it generated me the class and config so i have a load of strongly typed objects coming back from each request to the many service functions. i am then using LINQ to loop around the objects grabbing the necessary information as i go, but for each row in the grid i need to loop around an object, and grab another list of objects (from the same request) and loop around each of them.. 1 to many parent object child one.. all of this then gets dropped into a custom datatable a row at a time.. hope that makes sense.... im not sure there is any way to speed up the initial load. but surely i should be able to page/sort alot faster than it is doing. as at the moment, it appears to be taking as long to page/sort as it is to load initially. i thought if when i first loaded i put the datasource of the grid in the session, that i could whip it out of the session to deal with paging/sorting and the like. basically it is doing the below protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //init the datatable //grab the filter vars (if there are any) WebServiceObj WS = WSClient.Method(args); //fill the datatable (around and around we go) foreach (ParentObject po in WS.ReturnedObj) { var COs = from ChildObject c in WS.AnotherReturnedObj where c.whatever.equals(...) ...etc foreach(ChildObject c in COs){ myDataTable.Rows.Add(tlo.this, tlo.that, c.thisthing, c.thatthing, etc......); } } grdListing.DataSource = myDataTable; Session["dt"] = myDataTable; grdListing.DataBind(); } protected void Listing_PageIndexChanging(object sender, GridViewPageEventArgs e) { grdListing.PageIndex = e.NewPageIndex; grdListing.DataSource = Session["dt"] as DataTable; grdListing.DataBind(); } protected void Listing_Sorting(object sender, GridViewSortEventArgs e) { DataTable dt = Session["dt"] as DataTable; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); string sortDirection = " ASC"; if (e.SortDirection == SortDirection.Descending) sortDirection = " DESC"; dv.Sort = e.SortExpression + sortDirection; grdListing.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); grdListing.DataBind(); } am i doing this totally wrongly? or is the slowness just coming from the amount of data being bound in/return from the Web Service.. there are maybe 15 columns(ish) and a whole load of rows.. with more being added to the data the webservice is querying from all the time any suggestions / tips happily received thanks

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  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

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  • Nginx + Passenger running a RoR app is returning 401 when 302 is expected

    - by DBruns
    I've got a RoR app running on Passenger on top of Nginx. I'm using devise for my authentication method and have a link that gets sent in an email to users that requires authentication to view. If a user clicks the link from Outlook, and IE is the default browser, IE makes an HTTP request using the following headers: GET http://www.company.com/custom_layouts/108 HTTP/1.1 Accept: */* Accept-Language: en-us User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Connection: Keep-Alive Host: www.company.com Returning: HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Content-Type: /; charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive Status: 401 X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.15 WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Application" Cache-Control: no-cache X-UA-Compatible: IE=Edge,chrome=1 Set-Cookie: _vxwer_session=[sessionstr]; path=/; HttpOnly X-Runtime: 0.011918 Server: nginx/0.7.67 + Phusion Passenger 2.2.15 (mod_rails/mod_rack) 31 You need to sign in or sign up before continuing. 0 When the exact same URL is typed into the address bar, it does this: GET http://www.company.com/custom_layouts/108 HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, */* Accept-Language: en-US User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Connection: Keep-Alive Host: www.company.com Returning: HTTP/1.1 302 Found Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive Status: 302 X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.15 Location: http://www.company.com/users/sign_in Cache-Control: no-cache X-UA-Compatible: IE=Edge,chrome=1 Set-Cookie: _xswer_session=[session_info_here]; path=/; HttpOnly X-Runtime: 0.010798 Server: nginx/0.7.67 + Phusion Passenger 2.2.15 (mod_rails/mod_rack) 6f <html><body>You are being <a href="http://www.company.com/users/sign_in">redirected</a>.</body></html> 0 I expect them to return the same thing regardless.

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  • What info is really useful in my iptables log and how do I disable the useless bits?

    - by anthony01
    In my iptables rules files, I entered this at the end: -A INPUT -j LOG --log-level 4 --log-ip-options --log-prefix "iptables: " I DROP everything besides INPUT for SSH (port 22) I have a web server and when I try to connect to it through my browser, through a forbidden port number (on purpose), I get something like that in my iptables.log Sep 24 14:05:57 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=64 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=59351 DF PROTO=TCP SPT=63776 DPT=1999 WINDOW=65535 RES=0x00 SYN URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:01 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC= yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=48 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=63377 DF PROTO=TCP SPT=63776 DPT=1999 WINDOW=65535 RES=0x00 SYN URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:09 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=48 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=55025 DF PROTO=TCP SPT=63776 DPT=1999 WINDOW=65535 RES=0x00 SYN URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:25 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=48 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=54521 DF PROTO=TCP SPT=63776 DPT=1999 WINDOW=65535 RES=0x00 SYN URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:55 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=100 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=35050 PROTO=TCP SPT=63088 DPT=22 WINDOW=33304 RES=0x00 ACK PSH URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:55 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=52 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=14076 PROTO=TCP SPT=63088 DPT=22 WINDOW=33264 RES=0x00 ACK URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:55 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=52 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=5277 PROTO=TCP SPT=63088 DPT=22 WINDOW=33248 RES=0x00 ACK URGP=0 Sep 24 14:06:56 myserver kernel: [xx.xx] iptables: IN=eth0 OUT= MAC=aa:bb:cc SRC=yy.yy.yy.yy DST=xx.xx.xx.xx LEN=100 TOS=0x00 PREC=0x00 TTL=54 ID=25501 PROTO=TCP SPT=63088 DPT=22 WINDOW=33304 RES=0x00 ACK PSH URGP=0 As you can see, I typed xx.xx.xx.xx:1999 in my browser, and it tried to connect until it timed out. 1) There are many similar lines for just one event. Do you think I need all of them? How would I avoid duplicates? 2) The last 4 lines are for my port 22. But since I allow port 22 INPUT for my web server, why are they here? 3) Do I need info like LEN,TOS,PREC and others? I'm trying to find a page that explains them one by one, by I can't find anything.

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • waiting for 2 different events in a single thread

    - by João Portela
    component A (in C++) - is blocked waiting for alarm signals (not relevant) and IO signals (1 udp socket). has one handler for each of these. component B (java) - has to receive the same information the component A udp socket receives. periodicaly gives instructions that should be sent through component A udp socket. How to join both components? it is strongly desirable that: the changes to attach component B to component A are minimal (its not my code and it is not very pleasent to mess with). the time taken by the new operations (usually communicating with component B) interfere very little with the usual processing time of component A - this means that if the operations are going to take a "some" time I would rather use a thread or something to do them. note: since component A receives udp packets more frequently that it has component B instructions to forward, if necessary, it can only forward the instructions (when available) from the IO handler. my initial ideia was to develop a component C (in C++) that would sit inside the component A code (is this called an adapter?) that when instanciated starts the java process and makes the necessary connections (that not so little overhead in the initialization is not a problem). It would have 2 stacks, one for the data to give component B (lets call it Bstack) and for the data to give component A (lets call it Astack). It would sit on its thread (lets call it new-thread) waiting for data to be available in Bstack to send it over udp, and listen on the udp socket to put data on the Astack. This means that the changes to component A are only: when it receives a new UDP packet put it on the Bstack, and if there is something on the Astack sent it over its UDP socket (I decided for this because this socket would only be used in the main thread). One of the problems is that I don't know how to wait for both of these events at the same time using only one thread. so my questions are: Do I really need to use the main thread to send the data over component A socket or can I do it from the new-thread? (I think the answer is no, but I'm not sure about race conditions on sockets) how to I wait for both events? boost::condition_variable or something similar seems the solution in the case of the stack and boost::asio::io_service io_service.run() seems like the thing to use for the socket. Is there any other alternative solution for this problem that I'm not aware of? Thanks for reading this long text but I really wanted you to understand the problem.

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  • Model M Keyboard inputs incorrect characters after logging in to Fedora

    - by mickburkejnr
    I recently bought a 24 year old IBM Model M keyboard. From what I gather, it'd been left on a shelf for the last 5 years, so you can imagine the amount of dust dirt and crap that was on it. Before cleaning it, I plugged it in to my laptop (running Fedora 17) using a PS/2 to USB adapter. What I found was, while it still works, the keys I press don't correspond to what is displayed on the screen. So for example, when I type S on the keyboard, I get ß display on the screen instead. At the time, I put this down to the adapter not working properly. Since then, I stripped the keys off the keyboard and cleaned the whole thing. It looks like it's just come out of a box! I then plugged it in to my computer (also running Fedora 17) via a standard PS/2 plug. The computer loaded up to the login screen, and I typed in my password. Pressed enter, and I logged straight in to my machine. At this point, I opened up a text editor and started typing some stuff. To my horror, the keystrokes I was entering weren't coming up as intended. What came up instead were characters that would map to the pressed key but only under a different keyboard language setting. I opened up a program to see what keyboard language had been selected, and the correct one for the keyboard was selected (which is UK in my case). I opened up a window that would show what characters mapped to what keys, and I pressed every single key on the keyboard, and every corresponding block representing each key lit up. I went back to the text editor to try again, but I was still getting these random characters. Whats more is that the backspace key would not work, although in the other utility it would flash when pressed. What I know is that at the login screen the keyboard must have entered the correct characters, otherwise I wouldn't have been able to log in. Further more, keys that don't respond while using a text editor as sending signals to the computer, as illustrated in that keyboard utility. The question is why random characters are displayed when they really shouldn't be? Would this be a hardware fault or a software issue?

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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