Search Results

Search found 8285 results on 332 pages for 'console'.

Page 83/332 | < Previous Page | 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90  | Next Page >

• Accessing a share point site using the object model.

  - by Prashanth

  Hi I am trying to access a share point site using the SP object model from a console application. I am trying to do something like this.. SPSite site = new SPSite(sitePath) //Operations go here This works fine when the share point site and the console app are on the same machine. However when the console app and the site are on different machines, I get an error "The Web application at "http://server/url" could not be found. Verify that you have typed the URL correctly. If the URL should be serving existing content, the system administrator may need to add a new request URL mapping to the intended application" Here are the things that I have already done: 1) I have tried accessing the site via both IP address as well as machine name, assuming that it could be a DNS resolution issue. 2) Initially I impersonated using a farm admin account, still i could not access. Then I added myself as the farm admin, still no joy. 4) The site is accessible via IE. So it is not a permission issue I guess. 5) I have tried almost all the solutions suggested by various links obtained by googling the error message. I am trying this on share point 2010. A similar issue occurs on 2007 also. Sometimes its kind of frustrating to do SharePoint development , since I get the feeling of stumbling from one error to the next, with no clue as to what could be wrong and the error messages not being helpful in the least :(

  Read the article

• Why Enumerable.Range is faster than a direct yield loop?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  Below code is checking performance of three different ways to do same solution. public static void Main(string[] args) { // for loop { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); int accumulator = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= 100000000; ++i) { accumulator += i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, accumulator); } //Enumerable.Range { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = Enumerable.Range(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } //self-made IEnumerable<int> { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = GetIntRange(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } } private static IEnumerable<int> GetIntRange(int start, int count) { int end = start + count; for (int i = start; i < end; ++i) { yield return i; } } } The result is like this: time = 306; result = 987459712 time = 1301; result = 987459712 time = 2860; result = 987459712 It is not surprising that "for loop" is faster than the other two solutions, because Enumerable.Aggregate takes more method invocations. However, it really surprises that "Enumerable.Range" is faster than the "self-made IEnumerable". I thought that Enumerable.Range will take more overhead than the simple GetIntRange method. What is the possible reason for this?

  Read the article

• delete row from result set in web sql with javascript

  - by Kaijin

  I understand that the result set from web sql isn't quite an array, more of an object? I'm cycling through a result set and to speed things up I'd like to remove a row once it's been found. I've tried "delete" and "splice", the former does nothing and the latter throws an error. Here's a piece of what I'm trying to do, notice the delete on line 18: function selectFromReverse(reverseRay,suggRay){ var reverseString = reverseRay.toString(); db.transaction(function (tx) { tx.executeSql('SELECT votecount, comboid FROM counterCombos WHERE comboid IN ('+reverseString+') AND votecount>0', [], function(tx, results){ processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay); }); }, function(){onError}); } function processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay){ var i = suggRay.length; while(i--){ var j = results.rows.length; while(j--){ console.log('searching'); var found = 0; if(suggRay[i].reverse == results.rows.item(j).comboid){ delete results.rows.item(j); console.log('found'); found++; break; } } if(found == 0){ console.log('lost'); } } }

  Read the article

• Can't log in with a valid password using Authlogic and Ruby on Rails?

  - by kbighorse

  We support a bit of an unusual scheme. We don't require a password on User creation, and use password_resets to add a password to the user later, on demand. The problem is, once a password is created, the console indicates the password is valid: user.valid_password? 'test' = true but in my UserSessions controller, @user_session.save returns false using the same password. What am I not seeing? Kimball UPDATE: Providing more details, here is the output when saving the new password: Processing PasswordResetsController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:01:12) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"="Update password", "action"="update", "_method"="put", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "id"="v3iWW5eD9P9frbEQDvxp", "controller"="password_resets", "user"={"password"="johnwayne"}} The applicable SQL is: UPDATE users SET updated_at = '2011-01-31 22:01:12', crypted_password = 'blah', perishable_token = 'blah', password_salt = 'blah', persistence_token = 'blah' WHERE id = 580 I don't see an error per se, @user_session.save just returns false, as if the password didn't match. I skip validating passwords in the User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic do |c| c.validate_password_field = false end Here's the simplified controller code: def create logger.info("SAVED SESSION? #{@user_session.save}") end which outputs: Processing UserSessionsController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:16:59) [POST] Parameters: {"commit"="Login", "user_session"={"remember_me"="0", "password"="johnwayne", "email"="[email protected]"}, "action"="create", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "controller"="user_sessions"} User Columns (2.2ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM users User Load (3.7ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 SAVED SESSION? false CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://localhost:3000/login Lastly, the console indicates that the new password is valid: $ u.valid_password? 'johnwayne' = true Would love to do it all in the console, is there a way to load UserSession controller and call methods directly? Kimball

  Read the article

• Help with why my app crashed?

  - by Moshe

  I'm writing an iPad app that is a "kiosk" app. The iPad should be hanging on the wall and the app should just run. I did a test, starting the app last night (Friday, December 31) and letting it run. This morning, when I woke up, it was not running. I just checked the iPad's console and I can't figure out why it crashed. The iPad was plugged in and so the battery is not the issued. I did disable the idleTimer in my application delegate. The app was seen running as late as midnight last night. I would like to note that my app acts as a Bluetooth server through Game Kit and large portion of the console output is occupied by bluetooth status messages. When I opened the iPad, the app was paused and there was a system alert which prompted me to check an "Expiring Provisioning Profile". I tapped "dismiss" and the alert went away. The app crashed about a second after I dismissed the system alert. Any ideas how I can diagnose this problem? Why would my app crash? Here is my iPad's Console log, as copied from Xcode's organizer. Edit: A bit of Googling lead me to this site which says that alert views cause the app to lose focus. Could that be involved? What can I do to fix the problem? EDIT2: My Crash log describes the situation as: Application Specific Information: appname failed to resume in time Elapsed total CPU time (seconds): 10.010 (user 8.070, system 1.940), 100% CPU Elapsed application CPU time (seconds): 9.470, 95% CPU

  Read the article

• Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

  - by Weeble

  I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

  Read the article

• Decimal problem in Java

  - by Jerome

  I am experimenting with writing a java class for financial engineering (hobby of mine). The algorithm that I desire to implement is: 100 / 0.05 = 2000 Instead I get: 100 / 0.05 = 2000.9999999999998 I understand the problem to be one with converting from binary numbers to decimals (float -- int). I have looked at the BigDecimal class on the web but have not quite found what I am looking for. Attached is the program and a class that I wrote: // DCF class public class DCF { double rate; double principle; int period; public DCF(double $rate, double $principle, int $period) { rate = $rate; principle = $principle; period = $period; } // returns the console value public double consol() { return principle/rate; } // to string Method public String toString() { return "(" + rate + "," + principle + "," + period + ")"; } } Now the actual program: // consol program public class DCFmain { public static void main(String[] args) { // create new DCF DCF abacus = new DCF(0.05, 100.05, 5); System.out.println(abacus); System.out.println("Console value= " + abacus.consol() ); } } Output: (0.05,100.05,5) Console value= 2000.9999999999998 Thanks!

  Read the article

• Why can't I get the value of this text input?

  - by Spilot

  It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• JQuery can't return xml value

  - by Mistergreen

  I have this simple xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <library> <item name="box_shelf"> <imageback src="images/box_shelf_color.png"/> <outline src="images/box_shelf_outline.png"/> <sku> <wh sku="4696424171" /> <ch sku="4696424179" /> <choc sku="4696425863" /> <ma sku="4696424175" /> </sku> </item> </library> Loading the xml is fine. I then have a function to parse certain nodes. function parseImageXml(mainNode,targetNode) { $(libraryXML).find('item').each(function() { if($(this).attr('name') == mainNode) { var $temp = $(this).find(targetNode).attr('src'); console.log("******"+$temp); return $temp; } }); } The console log is fine with ******images/box_shelf_outline.png ******images/box_shelf_color.png But when I try to return the value into variables, I get undefined. var image_outline = ''+parseImageXml("box_shelf","outline"); var image_back = parseImageXml("box_shelf","imageback"); console.log(image_outline+":"+image_back); undefined:undefined Any insight would be great, thanks

  Read the article

• how to call the method in thread with aruguments and return some value

  - by ratty

  i like to call the method in thread with aruguments and return some value here example class Program { static void Main() { Stopwatch stop = new Stopwatch(); stop.Start(); Thread FirstThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(Fun1)); Thread SecondThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(Fun2)); FirstThread.Start(); SecondThread.Start(); } public static void Fun1() { for (int i = 1; i <= 1000; i++) { Console.WriteLine("Fun1 writes:{0}", i); } } public static void Fun2() { for (int i = 1000; i >= 6; i--) { Console.WriteLine("Fun2 writes:{0}", i); } } } i know this above example run successfully but if method fun1 like this public int fun1(int i) { for (int n = i; n >= i+10; n++) { Console.WriteLine("Fun2 writes:{0}", i); } } then how can i call this in thread. Is it possible .Any body Help for me

  Read the article

• Chrome extension sendRequest from async callback not working?

  - by Eugene

  Can't figure out what's wrong. onRequest not triggered on call from async callback method, the same request from content script works. The sample code below. background.js ============= ... makeAsyncRequest(); ... chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { switch (request.id) { case "from_content_script": // This works console.log("from_content_script"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; case "from_async": // Not working! console.log("from_async"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; } }); methods.js ========== makeAsyncRequest = function() { ... var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 4) { ... // It works console.log("makeAsyncRequest callback"); chrome.extension.sendRequest({id: "from_async"}, function(response) { }); } } ... }; UPDATE: manifest configuration file. Don't no what's wrong here. { "name": "TestExt", "version": "0.0.1", "icons": { "48": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "description": "write it later", "background_page": "background.html", "options_page": "options.html", "browser_action": { "default_title": "TestExt", "default_icon": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "permissions": [ "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*", "file://*/*", "webNavigation" ] }

  Read the article

• Service reference not generating client types

  - by Cranialsurge

  I am trying to consume a WCF service in a class library by adding a service reference to it. In one of the class libraries it gets consumed properly and I can access the client types in order to generate a proxy off of them. However in my second class library (or even in a console test app), when i add the same service reference, it only exposes the types that are involved in the contract operations and not the client type for me to generate a proxy against. e.g. Endpoint has 2 services exposed - ISvc1 and ISvc2. When I add a service reference to this endpoint in the first class library I get ISvc1Client andf ISvc2Client to generate proxies off of in order to use the operations exposed via those 2 contracts. In addition to these clients the service reference also exposes the types involved in the operations like (type 1, type 2 etc.) this is what I need. However when i try to add a service reference to the same endpoing in another console application or class library only Type 1, Type 2 etc. are exposed and not ISvc1Client and ISvc2Client because of which I cannot generate a proxy to access the operations I need. I am unable to determine why the service reference gets properly generated in one class library but not in the other or the test console app.

  Read the article

• Same IL code, different output - how is it possible?

  - by Hali

  When I compile this code with mono (gmcs) and run it, it outputs -1 (both with mono and .Net framework). When I compile it with VS (csc), it outputs -1 when I run it with mono, and 0 when I run it with the .Net framework. The code in question is: using System; public class Program { public static void Main() { Console.WriteLine(string.Compare("alo\0alo\0", "alo\0alo\0\0", false, System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture)); } } Compiled with VS: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 29 (0x1d) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0006: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000b: ldc.i4.0 IL_000c: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0011: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0016: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001b: nop IL_001c: ret } // end of method Program::Main Compiled with mono: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 27 (0x1b) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0005: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000a: ldc.i4.0 IL_000b: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0010: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0015: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001a: ret } // end of method Program::Main The only difference is the two extra NOP instructions in the VS version. How is it possible?

  Read the article

• switch statement in for loop and if statement not completing

  - by user2373912

  I'm trying to find out how many of each character are in a string. I've searched around for a while and can't seem to figure out why my switch statement is stopping after the first case. function charFreq(string){ var splitUp = string.split(""); console.log(splitUp); var a; var b; var c; var v; for (var i = 0; i<splitUp.length; i++){ if (i<1){ switch (splitUp[i]){ case "a": a = 1; break; case "b": b = 1; break; case "c": c = 1; break; case "v": v = 1; break; } } else { switch (splitUp[i]){ case "a": a += 1; break; case "b": b += 1; break; case "c": c += 1; break; case "v": v += 1; break; } } } console.log("There are " + a + " A's, " + b + " B's, " + c + " C's, and " + v + " V's.") } charFreq("aaabccbbavabac"); What am I doing wrong that would make the console read: There are 6 A's, NaN B's, NaN C's, and NaN V's.

  Read the article

• XMLHttpRequest leak

  - by Raja

  Hi everyone, Below is my javascript code snippet. Its not running as expected, please help me with this. <script type="text/javascript"> function getCurrentLocation() { console.log("inside location"); navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { insert_coord(new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude)); }); } function insert_coord(loc) { var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST","start.php",true); request.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(request); }; request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("lat=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lat()) + "&lng=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lng())); return request; } function callback(req) { console.log("inside callback"); if(req.readyState == 4) if(req.status == 200) { document.getElementById("scratch").innerHTML = "callback success"; //window.setTimeout("getCurrentLocation()",5000); setTimeout(getCurrentLocation,5000); } } getCurrentLocation(); //called on body load </script> What i'm trying to achieve is to send my current location to the php page every 5 seconds or so. i can see few of the coordinates in my database but after sometime it gets weird. Firebug show very weird logs like simultaneous POST's at irregular intervals. Here's the firebug screenshot: IS there a leak in the program. please help. EDIT: The expected outcome in the firebug console should be like this :- inside location POST .... inside callback /* 5 secs later */ inside location POST ... inside callback /* keep repeating */

  Read the article

• How do I debug JavaScript .onlick event?

  - by user3700824

  I'm learning JavaScript but seem to be having a problem. I have a piece of code that is executed when the page is fully loaded. The function then gathers all the button elements on my HTML page. From here I loop through getting each button's title attribute and then assign an onclick event to the button that is equal to a function that writes to the console.log with the title. I have tried various ways of doing this but it is not working. Here is the JavaScript code that I'm working with. Currently all it does is loop through calling the function and logging the tile to the console.log, but this is not supposed to happen. Each time I click the button it should call the function with its title and log that. window.onload = myPageIsReady; function myPageIsReady(){ var myList = document.getElementsByTagName("button"); var myTitle = []; for(var i = 0; i < myList.length; i++){ myTitle[i] = myList[i].getAttribute("title"); myList[i].onclick = getMyTitle(myTitle[i]); }; function getMyTitle(myTitle){ console.log(myTitle); }; };

  Read the article

• javascript watching for variable change via a timer

  - by DA

  I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

  Read the article

• MS Exam 70-536 - How to throw and handle exception from thread?

  - by Max Gontar

  Hello! In MS Exam 70-536 .Net Foundation, Chapter 7 "Threading" in Lesson 1 Creating Threads there is a text: Be aware that because the WorkWithParameter method takes an object, Thread.Start could be called with any object instead of the string it expects. Being careful in choosing your starting method for a thread to deal with unknown types is crucial to good threading code. Instead of blindly casting the method parameter into our string, it is a better practice to test the type of the object, as shown in the following example: ' VB Dim info As String = o as String If info Is Nothing Then Throw InvalidProgramException("Parameter for thread must be a string") End If // C# string info = o as string; if (info == null) { throw InvalidProgramException("Parameter for thread must be a string"); } So, I've tried this but exception is not handled properly (no console exception entry, program is terminated), what is wrong with my code (below)? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Thread thread = new Thread(SomeWork); try { thread.Start(null); thread.Join(); } catch (InvalidProgramException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } finally { Console.ReadKey(); } } private static void SomeWork(Object o) { String value = (String)o; if (value == null) { throw new InvalidProgramException("Parameter for "+ "thread must be a string"); } } } Thanks for your time!

  Read the article

• HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick?

  - by bhups

  I am using the video element in my HTML as following:<div id="container" style="background:black; overflow:hidden;width:320px;height:240px" <video style="background:black;display:block" id="vdo" height="240px" width="320px" src="http://mydomain/vid.mp4"</video</div And in javascript I am doing this:var video=document.getElementById('vdo'); var container=document.getElementById('container'); video.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); container.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); On desktop safari/chrome everything is working fine. I can see two "clicked" in the console. But on ipad there is nothing. First I tried with iOS versin 3.2, then I updated it to the latest one 4.2.1 without any success.I found a similar question HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick or touchstart events? where it suggests not to use controls in video tag and I am not using it.

  Read the article

• Why does this log output show the same answer in each iteration?

  - by Will Hancock

  OK, I was reading an article on optimising JS for Googles V8 engine, when i saw this code example... I nearly skimmed over it, but then I saw this; |=; a[0] |= b; a = new Array(); a[0] = 0; for (var b = 0; b < 10; b++) { console.log(a, b) a[0] |= b; // Much better! 2x faster. } a[0] |= b; So I ran it, in my console, with a console.log in the loop and resulted in 15; [15] 0 [15] 1 [15] 2 [15] 3 [15] 4 [15] 5 [15] 6 [15] 7 [15] 8 [15] 9 WHAT?!?! Where the hell does it get 15 from, on every iteration?!?!?! I've been a web dev for 7 years, and this has stumped me and a fellow colleague. Can somebody talk me through this code? Cheers.

  Read the article

• Initializing AngularJS service factory style

  - by wisemanIV

  I have a service that retrieves data via REST. I want to store the resulting data in service level variable for use in multiple controllers. When I put all the REST logic directly into controllers everything works fine but when I attempt to move the retrieval / storing of data into a service the controller is not being updated when the data comes back. I've tried lots of different ways of maintain the binding between service and controller. Controller: myApp.controller('SiteConfigCtrl', ['$scope', '$rootScope', '$route', 'SiteConfigService', function ($scope, $rootScope, $route, SiteConfigService) { $scope.init = function() { console.log("SiteConfigCtrl init"); $scope.site = SiteConfigService.getConfig(); } } ]); Service: myApp.factory('SiteConfigService', ['$http', '$rootScope', '$timeout', 'RESTService', function ($http, $rootScope, $timeout, RESTService) { var siteConfig = {} ; RESTService.get("https://domain/incentiveconfig", function(data) { siteConfig = data; }); return { getConfig:function () { console.debug("SiteConfigService getConfig:"); console.debug(siteConfig); return siteConfig; } }; } ]);

  Read the article

• jQuery Ajax loads URL multiple times, how do I unbind/rebind properly?

  - by gmoz22

  I load a SELECT element via Ajax (list of brands), get its selected value (brand id) and load another SELECT via another Ajax URL (list of templates for currently selected brand). Here's my code: $(document).ready( function() { // DO NOT cache Ajax calls $.ajaxSetup ({ cache: false }); // loader var ajax_load = "Loading..."; // Brands List URL var loadBrandUrl = "getBrandsList.php"; // Templates List URL var loadTemplateUrl = "getTemplatesList.php"; $("#brandslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadBrandUrl) .ajaxComplete(function(){ // Brands select loaded /* Load Templates SELECT the first time since no .change() has happened */ var selectedBrand = $("#brandslistSelect option:selected").attr("value"); // get the value console.log(selectedBrand); // Log selected brand to console // get Templates select, commented for now since it does an infinite loop // $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ); /* End initial load template */ /* On interaction with the Brands SELECT */ $("#brandslistSelect").change(function () { // on interaction with select selectedBrand = $("#brandslistSelect option:selected").attr("value"); // get the value // get Templates SELECT $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ) }); /* End interaction with the Brands SELECT */ }); }); It returns selectedBrand in the console 3 times : selectedBrand = undefined selectedBrand = undefined selectedBrand = 101 Now, if I uncomment the following line, same output as above but it also loads the templates URL indefinitely : // $("#templateslistSelect").html(ajax_load).load(loadTemplateUrl, { BrandId: selectedBrand } ); Any idea how I could modify this code to make it work as intended? Thanks for your help stackOverflow community!

  Read the article

• data filter using dataloadoptions

  - by Tassadaque

  Using dataloadoptions i have tried the following example Northwnd db = new Northwnd(@"northwnd.mdf"); // Preload Orders for Customer. // One directive per relationship to be preloaded. DataLoadOptions ds = new DataLoadOptions(); ds.LoadWith<Customer>(c => c.Orders); ds.AssociateWith<Customer> (c => c.Orders.Where(p => p.ShippedDate != DateTime.Today)); db.LoadOptions = ds; var custQuery = from cust in db.Customers where cust.City == "London" select cust; foreach (Customer custObj in custQuery) { Console.WriteLine("Customer ID: {0}", custObj.CustomerID); foreach (Order ord in custObj.Orders) { Console.WriteLine("\tOrder ID: {0}", ord.OrderID); foreach (OrderDetail detail in ord.OrderDetails) { Console.WriteLine("\t\tProduct ID: {0}", detail.ProductID); } } } Now i need to ask how can i display Category ID and Category Name of the productID (i am supposing that One product can be in at most one category) by extending the above example Regards

  Read the article

• Context problem while loading Assemblies via Structuremap

  - by Zebi

  I want to load plugins in a smiliar way as shown here however the loaded assemblies seem not to share the same context. Trying to solve the problem I just build a tiny spike containing two assemblies. One console app and one library. The console app contains the IPlugin interface and has no references to the Plugin dll. I am scanning the plugin dir using a custom Registration convention: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.Scan(s => { s.AssembliesFromPath(@"..\Plugin"); s.With(new PluginScanner()); })); public void Process(Type type, Registry registry) { if (!type.Name.StartsWith("P")) return; var instance = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(type); registry.For<IPlugin>().Add((IPlugin)instance); } Which thows an invalid cast exception saying he can not convert the plugin Type to IPlugin. public class P1 : IPlugin { public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("Hello from P1"); } } Further if I just construct the instance (which works fine by the way) and try to access ObjectFactory in the plugin ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows that they don't even share the same container instance. Experimenting around with MEF, Structuremap and loading the assembly manually whith Assembly.Load("Plugin") shows if loaded with Assembly.Load it works fine. Any ideas how I can fix this to work with StructureMaps assembly scanning?

  Read the article

• Javascript document.open asynchronous?

  - by Alex Schneider

  So on my site there is a Javascript function that will load a new site from the server via XMLHttpRequest. After that it replaces the current page with the new one: var post = new XMLHttpRequest(); post.open('POST', data); post.onload = function() { var do = document.open("text/html", "replace"); do.write(post.responseText); do.close(); goOn(); } function goOn() { console.log($('img:visible')); } Some could assume that after do.close() the document has changed and is ready. But it is not, e.g. if i load very much/big data/responseText the function goOn() only logs an empty result. Obviously goOn() gets in that case called before the DOM is ready to be read! Unfortunately the is no "ready" event fired after write() finished.... How can i be sure it is finished? /EDIT: goOn() logs this to Chrome Console: [prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1], context: #document, selector: "img:visible"] context: #document length: 0 prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1] selector: "img:visible" __proto__: Object[0] But if i right after that type $('img:visible') into console manually it shows me all images....

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90  | Next Page >