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  • Create new folder for new sender name and move message into new folder

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background I'd like to have Outlook 2010 automatically move e-mails into folders designated by the person's name. For example: Click Rules Click Manage Rules & Alerts Click New Rule Select "Move messages from someone to a folder" Click Next The following dialog is shown: Problem The next part usually looks as follows: Click people or public group Select the desired person Click specified Select the desired folder Question How would you automate those problematic manual tasks? Here's the logic for the new rule I'd like to create: Receive a new message. Extract the name of the sender. If it does not exist, create a new folder under Inbox Move the new message into the folder assigned to that person's name I think this will require a VBA macro. Related Links http://www.experts-exchange.com/Software/Office_Productivity/Groupware/Outlook/A_420-Extending-Outlook-Rules-via-Scripting.html http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office/ee814735.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/office/ee814736.aspx http://stackoverflow.com/questions/11263483/how-do-i-trigger-a-macro-to-run-after-a-new-mail-is-received-in-outlook http://en.kioskea.net/faq/6174-outlook-a-macro-to-create-folders http://blogs.iis.net/robert_mcmurray/archive/2010/02/25/outlook-macros-part-1-moving-emails-into-personal-folders.aspx Update #1 The code might resemble something like: Public WithEvents myOlApp As Outlook.Application Sub Initialize_handler() Set myOlApp = CreateObject("Outlook.Application") End Sub Private Sub myOlApp_NewMail() Dim myInbox As Outlook.MAPIFolder Dim myItem As Outlook.MailItem Set myInbox = myOlApp.GetNamespace("MAPI").GetDefaultFolder(olFolderInbox) Set mySenderName = myItem.SenderName On Error GoTo ErrorHandler Set myDestinationFolder = myInbox.Folders.Add(mySenderName, olFolderInbox) Set myItems = myInbox.Items Set myItem = myItems.Find("[SenderName] = " & mySenderName) myItem.Move myDestinationFolder ErrorHandler: Resume Next End Sub Update #2 Split the code as follows: Sent a test message and nothing happened. The instructions for actually triggering a message when a new message arrives are a little light on details (for example, no mention is made regarding ThisOutlookSession and how to use it). Thank you.

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  • SQL Server 2008 R2 - Cannot create database snapshot

    - by Chris Diver
    Server: Windows Server 2008 R2 X64 Enterprise SQL: SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise X64 I have a default SQL Server instance, the SQL Server service account is running as a domain user. I am trying to create a database snapshot in the directory where the mdf files are stored. The T-SQL syntax is correct. The file system is NTFS. The error message I get is: Msg 1823, Level 16, State 2, Line 1 A database snapshot cannot be created because it failed to start. Msg 5119, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot make the file "e:\MSSQL10_50.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\TestDB.ss" a sparse file. Make sure the file system supports sparse files. The local SQLServerMSSQLUser$db$MSSQLSERVER group has Full Control permission on the folder where I am trying to create the snapshot. I can fix the problem in two ways, neither of which are suitable. Add the SQL Server service (domain) account to the local Administrators group and restart the SQL service. Grant the local SQLServerMSSQLUser$db$MSSQLSERVER group Full control on E:\ I have tried to change the owner of the DATA directory to SQLServerMSSQLUser$db$MSSQLSERVER to no avail. I have no issue creating a new database Why can I not create a snapshot by giving permission only on the DATA folder? Update 23/09/2010: I have tried mrdenny's suggestion with no luck (but learned something new in the process), I suspect the problem may be due to the fact that the domain is a windows 2000 domain running in mixed mode. I had to install hotfix KB976494 for Server 2008 R2, as the SQL Server 2008 R2 installer would not verify the service account correctly with the domain. I noticed that Server 2000 isn't a supported operating system for SQL 2008 R2 but cannot find anything that would suggest it shouldn't work in a 2000 domain. I dis-joined the test server from the domain and changed the service accounts to the local service account and I still have the same issue. I will try to re-install the server without joining the domain and without the hotfix and see if the issue persists.

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  • Minimum permissions needed to create a user Home Folder in Windows Active Directory

    - by Jim
    We would like the Help Desk to have the responsibility of creating User Home folders instead of our 2nd level support. The help desk global group is already an Account Operator, so in Active Directory they are able to edit all User Attributes just fine. The problem is figuring out the minimum level of permissions needed on the File Server to create the home share, with out giving them access to everyone home share. So if they open AD Users and Computer, open the properties for a user, and enter \home\users\%username% in the profile tab and then click OK, they get the following error. The \home\users\username home folder was not created because you do not have create access on the server. The user account has been updated with the new home folder value but you must create the directory manually after obtaining the required access right. Right now I have given the Helpdesk group Full Control on the root folder only (no files or subdirectories) The directory is actually created, but the permissions on the newly created folder only show administrators full control, and no permissions for the configured user account. It sure sounds like I'd have to make the helpdesk local admins on the file servers, which is what I'd like to avoid. Especially since the file servers are a large cluster hosting much much more than the entire orgs home share structure.

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  • Error code 1005 (errno: 121) upon create table while restoring MySQL database from a dump

    - by Jonathan
    I have a linux prod machine and a Win7 64bit dev machine. My workflow includes dumping the production MySQL database on the linux machine and restoring it in my local MySQL database on the windows machine (using SQLyog). This worked fine for a long time. Following some trouble, I formatted and reinstalled my windows dev machine. Since then I'm unable to restore the db on it. I keep receiving the following error: Query: CREATE TABLE `auth_group` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `name` varchar(80) collate utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `name` (`name`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=2 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci Error occured at:2010-06-26 17:16:14 Line no.:30 Error Code: 1005 - Can't create table 'ap_site.auth_group' (errno: 121) Notice that this is the first create table statement in the sql dump file. This error occurs both on MySQL Community Server 5.1.41 and 5.1.48 and with SQLyog Community 8.0.4 and 8.5.1. I really don't know what's different in my configuration from before the reinstall and now and why does it have this effect. Restoring from sql dump is something I need to keep on doing, so I need a permanent fix and not a tailored workaround.

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  • How to create an alias for a named SQL Server instance

    - by Svish
    On my developer computer I have an SQL Server instance named *developer_2005*. In the resource setting files of a C# application we are creating, the instance name is set to foobar (not really, but just as an example). So when I run the application (in debug or realease) it tries to connect to an SQL Server on localhost, named foobar. I am wondering if it is possible to create an alias or something like that, so that the application actually finds an SQL Server on localhost named foobar, but it is actually connecting to the instance named *developer_2005*. The connection string in the config file of the application is Data Source=localhost\foobar;Initial Catalog=barfoo;Integrated Security=True with provider name System.Data.SqlClient. If I change localhost\foobar to *localhost\developer_2005* then the application can connect like it should. How can I create an alias so that I won't have to change the string in the file? I tried, in SQL Server Management Studio, to create a Server Registration with registered server name "localhost\developer", but this didn't seem to do any good. Not even sure what that really did... But then I discovered SQL Server Configuration Manager\SQL Native Client COnfiguration\Aliases. And I kind of assume this is where the solution lies. But I can't quite figure out how to add a new one... When creating a new one, I have to provide Alias Name, Port No, Protocol and Server, and I don't really have a clue what to put in either of them.

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  • Error code 1005 (errno: 121) upon create table while restoring MySQL database from a dump

    - by Jonathan
    I have a linux prod machine and a Win7 64bit dev machine. My workflow includes dumping the production MySQL database on the linux machine and restoring it in my local MySQL database on the windows machine (using SQLyog). This worked fine for a long time. Following some trouble, I formatted and reinstalled my windows dev machine. Since then I'm unable to restore the db on it. I keep receiving the following error: Query: CREATE TABLE `auth_group` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `name` varchar(80) collate utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `name` (`name`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=2 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci Error occured at:2010-06-26 17:16:14 Line no.:30 Error Code: 1005 - Can't create table 'ap_site.auth_group' (errno: 121) Notice that this is the first create table statement in the sql dump file. This error occurs both on MySQL Community Server 5.1.41 and 5.1.48 and with SQLyog Community 8.0.4 and 8.5.1. I really don't know what's different in my configuration from before the reinstall and now and why does it have this effect. Restoring from sql dump is something I need to keep on doing, so I need a permanent fix and not a tailored workaround.

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  • How to create an GUI that communicate with the USB Devices using win32 programming [migrated]

    - by VINAYAK
    I am doing my Project using win 32 programming.I am just learning about win32 programming and able to create an UI.I want to communicate with an USB Device with that UI.SO,How can i go for that?Is there any predefined functions will be there are we need to create the function for communicating with the OS and get the devices List and got the details about them. My purpose is to , 1.Creating an UI that tells about the Basic information about the device(We want to send a control request to the device to get the descriptors). 2.For that first of all i want to communicate with the OS for device attachment.That will lead to get the information about the device and Enumeration takes place and then only i request the device information through descriptors by using standard Requests. 3.And also i want to create the driver for my device.That will also need to achieve for communicating with OS(Windows). So,can anyone help me about this?How can i achieve this or approach this? Note: I am at the entry level now so anyone give response will be in a detailed format like step by step process would be appreciable.

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  • how to sum the amount of cells with the same number in a column - Microsoft Excel 2010

    - by jerlebrink
    My english isn't that good, I hope you understand what I wan't to accomplish I have a column (A) with different zip codes ( total of 3583 rows). I need a formula/function to go through each cell and the come up with sum of how many instances (column B) there are of the same zip code (column C).There are probably more than hundred different zip codes so I can't do it manually. Thanks in advance.

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  • ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

    - by Loopo
    I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

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  • Excel Conditional Summing

    - by Ben
    I want to create a formula so that I can keep track of how many feet get out of a drill bit. The data will be arranged in this way: Bit ID Ft Drilled 15685 200 15685 201 6000 365 15685 169 6000 535 2 205 2 190 2 465 6000 600 15685 523 I want to show results of the total footage drilled by: Bit ID Total Ft Drilled 15685 x 6000 x 2 x Any ideas on formulas? Thanks.

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  • Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

    - by Iszi
    I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

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  • excel 2007 enter new date

    - by Lalajee
    I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Create links programmatically inside an EmberJS view

    - by Michael Gallego
    I have a pretty complex view to render which involves some kind of recursion (the typical folder/file nested list). The fact that it contains heterogeneous objects (folders and files) make it even harder to write Handlebars templates. Therefore, the only solution I've found is to create a view, and manually fill the render buffer. I came with the following solution: App.LibraryContentList = Ember.View.extend({ tagName: 'ol', classNames: ['project-list', 'dd-list'], nameChanged: function() { this.rerender(); }.observes('[email protected]'), render: function(buffer) { // We only start with depth of zero var content = this.get('content').filterProperty('depth', 0); content.forEach(function(item) { this.renderItem(buffer, item); }, this); }, renderItem: function(buffer, item) { switch (item.constructor.toString()) { case 'Photo.Folder': this.renderFolder(buffer, item); break; case 'Photo.File': this.renderFile(buffer, item); break; } }, renderFolder: function(buffer, folder) { buffer.push('<li class="folder dd-item">'); buffer.push('<span class="dd-handle">' + folder.get('name') + '</span>'); // Merge sub folders and files, and sort them by sort order var content = this.mergeAndSort(); if (content.get('length') > 0) { buffer.push('<ol>'); content.forEach(function(item) { this.renderItem(buffer, item); }, this); buffer.push('</ol>'); } buffer.push('</li>'); }, renderFile: function(buffer, album) { buffer.push('<li class="album dd-item">'); buffer.push('<span class="dd-handle">' + file.get('name') + '</span>'); buffer.push('</li>'); } }); Now, what I'd like is to be able to add links so that each folder and each file is clickable and redirect to another route. But how am I supposed to do that, as I don't have access to the linkTo helper? I've tried to play with the LinkView view, but without any success. Should I register handlers manually for each item? I've also thought about breaking that with a CollectionView instead, and splitting the content by depth so that I could render it using templates, but it seems more complicated. Any thoughts?

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  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • How do I create a class in Javascript?

    - by William
    This is what I got so far, and it's not working at all :( <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Class Test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #ffffff;} #box { position: absolute; left: 610px; top: 80px; height: 50px; width: 50px; background-color: #ff0000; color: #000000;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> document.onkeydown=function(event){keyDown(event)}; document.onkeyup=function(event){keyUp(event)}; var box = 0; function Player () { var speed = 5; var x = 50; var y = 50; } function update() { box.style.left = this.x + "px"; box.style.top = this.y + "px"; box.innerHTML = "<h6 style=\"margin: 0px 0px 0px 0px; padding: 0px 0px 0px 0px;\">X: "+ this.x + "<br /> Y: " + this.y + "</h6>"; } var player = new Player(); var keys = new Array(256); var i = 0; for (i = 0;i <= 256; i++){ keys[i] = false; } function keyDown(event){ keys[event.keyCode] = true; } function keyUp(event){ keys[event.keyCode] = false; } function update(){ if(keys[37]) player.x -= player.speed; if(keys[39]) player.x += player.speed; player.update(); } setInterval(update, 1000/60); </script> </head> <body> <div id="box" ></div> <script type="text/javascript"> box = document.getElementById('box'); box.innerHTML = "<h6 style=\"margin: 0px 0px 0px 0px; padding: 0px 0px 0px 0px;\">X: "+ player.x + "<br /> Y: " + player.y + "</h6>"; </script> </body> </html>

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  • rake db:create not working for legacy rails app (2.3.5) using MySQL (5.5.28)

    - by ridicter
    I'm a new Rails Developer, and I'm working on a legacy Rails app. Whenever I run the rake db:create command, I get an error that the database couldn't be created. I have found many StackOverflow questions related to this, but in troubleshooting nearly all permutations of solutions, I couldn't resolve the issue. I created the three Dbs (dev, prod, test), created the user with all access privileges to these dbs, and ran rake db:create. I'm running Mac OS X Lion, MySQL 5.5.28, Rails 2.3.5, Ruby 1.8.7. Here are my settings development: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 database: adva_development username: adva password: **** host: localhost socket: /tmp/mysql.sock Here's the error: Couldn't create database for {"adapter"=>"mysql", "username"=>"adva", "host"=>"localhost", "encoding"=>"utf8", "database"=>"adva_development", "socket"=>"/tmp/mysql.sock", "password"=>"****"}, charset: utf8, collation: utf8_unicode_ci (if you set the charset manually, make sure you have a matching collation) I have done the following troubleshooting: Verified user and password are correct, and the user has access to the DB. (Double checked user access with SELECT * FROM mysql.db WHERE Db = 'adva_development' \G; User has all privileges.) Verify the socket is correct. I don't really understand sockets, but I can plainly see it at /tmp/mysql.sock. Checked collation and character set. I found out I had created the DB in latin charset and collation, so I recreated them. I ran show variables like "collation_database"; and show variables like "character_set_database"; and came back with utf8 and utf8_unicode_ci respectively. I followed the instructions in this question. After uninstalling mysql gem, I ran the following but came up with the same error: gem install --no-rdoc --no-ri mysql -- --with-mysql-dir=/usr/local/mysql-5.5.28-osx10.6-x86_64/bin --with-mysql-config=/usr/local/mysql-5.5.28-osx10.6-x86_64/bin/mysql_config Following Matt's suggestion, here's what a rake --trace db:create reveals: ** Invoke db:create (first_time) ** Invoke db:load_config (first_time) ** Invoke rails_env (first_time) ** Execute rails_env ** Execute db:load_config ** Execute db:create Couldn't create database for {"database"=>"adva_development", "adapter"=>"mysql", "host"=>"127.0.0.1", "password"=>"woof2adva", "username"=>"adva", "encoding"=>"utf8"}, charset: utf8, collation: utf8_unicode_ci (if you set the charset manually, make sure you have a matching collation) After 3 days and six or seven hours, I have pretty much run out of options. I tried various random things, like replacing localhost with 127.0.0.1 to no avail. Could there be something wrong related to my specific environment? Mac OS X Lion + MySQL 5.5.28? I plan on trying on setting up everything in a Linux environment. Thanks!

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  • How to copy the memeory allocated in device function back to main memory

    - by xhe8
    I have a CUDA program containing a host function and a device function Execute(). In the host function, I allocate a global memory output which will then be passed to the device function and used to store the address of the global memory allocated within the device function. I want to access the in-kernel allocated memory in the host function. The following is the code: #include <stdio.h> typedef struct { int * p; int num; } Structure_A; \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output); int main(){ Structure_A *output; cudaMalloc((void***)&output,sizeof(Structure_A)*1); dim3 dimBlockExecute(1,1); dim3 dimGridExecute(1,1); Execute<<<dimGridExecute,dimBlockExecute>>>(output); Structure_A * output_cpu; int * p_cpu; cudaError_t err; output_cpu= (Structure_A*)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(output_cpu,output,sizeof(Structure_A),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error a: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } p_cpu=(int *)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error b: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } printf("output=(%d,%d)\n",output_cpu[0].num,p_cpu[0]); return 0; } \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output){ int thid=threadIdx.x; output[thid].p= (int*)malloc(thid+1); output[thid].num=(thid+1); output[thid].p[0]=5; } I can compile the program. But when I run it, I got a error showing that there is a invalid argument in the following memory copy function. "err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost);" CUDA version is 4.2. CUDA card: Tesla C2075 OS: x86_64 GNU/Linux

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  • "Can't create table" when having to many partitions

    - by Chris
    I am currently having a problem I dont understand. Wherever I look it says mySQL (5.5) / InnoDB doesnt have a table limit. I wanted to test the InnoDB compression and was about to create an empty copy of an existing table and ran into the following problem. this one works: CREATE TABLE `hsc` ( LOTS OF STUFF ) ENGINE=InnoDB CHARSET=utf8 PARTITION BY RANGE (pid) SUBPARTITION BY HASH (cons) SUBPARTITIONS 2 (PARTITION hsc_p0 VALUES LESS THAN (10000) , PARTITION hsc_p1 VALUES LESS THAN (20000) , PARTITION hsc_p2 VALUES LESS THAN (30000) , PARTITION hsc_p3 VALUES LESS THAN (40000) , PARTITION hsc_p4 VALUES LESS THAN (50000) , PARTITION hsc_p40 VALUES LESS THAN (4000000) ); this one doesn't: CREATE TABLE `hsc` ( LOTS OF STUFF ) ENGINE=InnoDB CHARSET=utf8 PARTITION BY RANGE (pid) SUBPARTITION BY HASH (cons) SUBPARTITIONS 2 (PARTITION hsc_p0 VALUES LESS THAN (10000) , PARTITION hsc_p1 VALUES LESS THAN (20000) , PARTITION hsc_p2 VALUES LESS THAN (30000) , PARTITION hsc_p3 VALUES LESS THAN (40000) , PARTITION hsc_p4 VALUES LESS THAN (50000) , PARTITION hsc_p5 VALUES LESS THAN (75000) , PARTITION hsc_p6 VALUES LESS THAN (100000) , PARTITION hsc_p7 VALUES LESS THAN (125000) , PARTITION hsc_p8 VALUES LESS THAN (150000) , PARTITION hsc_p9 VALUES LESS THAN (175000) , PARTITION hsc_p40 VALUES LESS THAN (4000000) ); ERROR 1005 (HY000): Can't create table 'hsc' (errno: 1) Its reproducable by removing the number of partitions and adding them again. it does not have to do anything with the name of the table as i tried various names. there is also enough empty space on the HDD. /dev/simfs 230G 26G 192G 12% /var/lib/mysql.mnt There should be no limit on the partitions http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.5/en/partitioning-limitations.html Maximum number of partitions. The maximum possible number of partitions for a given table (that does not use the NDB storage engine) is 1024. This number includes subpartitions. i have increased both open_files show variables where variable_name LIKE '%open_files%'; +-------------------+-------+ | Variable_name | Value | +-------------------+-------+ | innodb_open_files | 512 | | open_files_limit | 1536 | +-------------------+-------+ No change. Any clues where should I start looking? UPDATE: the whole thing is running in an openvz environment. i saw in users_beancounters that the numflock was a problem, so i increased it. but the problem still persists. maybe this helps: ulimit -a core file size (blocks, -c) 0 data seg size (kbytes, -d) unlimited scheduling priority (-e) 0 file size (blocks, -f) unlimited pending signals (-i) 515011 max locked memory (kbytes, -l) 64 max memory size (kbytes, -m) unlimited open files (-n) 1024 pipe size (512 bytes, -p) 8 POSIX message queues (bytes, -q) 819200 real-time priority (-r) 0 stack size (kbytes, -s) 10240 cpu time (seconds, -t) unlimited max user processes (-u) 515011 virtual memory (kbytes, -v) unlimited file locks (-x) unlimited cat /proc/user_beancounters Version: 2.5 uid resource held maxheld barrier limit failcnt 200: kmemsize 9309653 13357056 14372700 14790164 0 lockedpages 0 1008 2048 2048 0 privvmpages 675424 686528 1048576 1572864 0 shmpages 33 673 21504 21504 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numproc 49 90 240 240 0 physpages 243761 246945 0 9223372036854775807 0 vmguarpages 0 0 1048576 1048576 0 oomguarpages 81672 83305 1048576 1048576 0 numtcpsock 6 8 360 360 0 numflock 175 188 512 512 8 numpty 1 9 16 16 0 numsiginfo 0 48 256 256 0 tcpsndbuf 104640 263912 1720320 2703360 0 tcprcvbuf 98304 131072 1720320 2703360 0 othersockbuf 32368 89304 1126080 2097152 0 dgramrcvbuf 0 2312 262144 262144 0 numothersock 19 28 360 360 0 dcachesize 2285052 3624426 3409920 3624960 0 numfile 616 870 9312 9312 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 dummy 0 0 9223372036854775807 9223372036854775807 0 numiptent 24 24 128 128 0

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  • how to serialize function depending on what instance of object calls it, if same instance call in a thread then do serialize else not

    - by LondonDreams
    I have a function which fetches and updates some record from db and I am trying to make sure each if the function is called by same instance of object(same Or different thread) then function should behave synchronized else its a call from different object instance function need not to be synchronized. I have tried it use a lock per client. That is, instead of synchronizing the method directly using explicit locking through lock objects using Map. function is like :- getAndUpdateMyHitCount(myObjId){ //go to db and get unique record by myObjId //fetch value , increment , save update } And this function may get call is same thread by different Or same object instance But as fetching and matching from Map is slow , Is there other optimized way to do this ? Found similar at this Question but dont feel that is optimized

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