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  • How to pass checkbox array to Java from jsp

    - by eddy
    Hi, I'd like to know if there's any way to send data to the server for the selected rows using the checkboxes I've put on those rows? I mean , how can I send only the data of those selected rows to the server? Here's the html code I use: <table> <thead> <tr class="tableheader"> <td width="10%"></td> <td width="30%">Vehicle</td> <td width="40%">Driver</td> <td width="10%">Mileage</td> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectedItems" value="c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>"/> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}" /></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> </table> I really hope you can give some guidance on this. Thanks in beforehand.

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  • Pass parameters to a user control - asp.net

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I have this user control: <user:RatingStars runat="server" product="<%= getProductId() %>" category="<%= getCategoryId() %>"></user:RatingStars> You see that i fill the product and category by calling two methods: public string getProductId() { return productId.ToString(); } public string getCategoryId() { return categoryId.ToString(); } I do not understand why, in the user control, when i take the data received (product and category) it gives me "<%= getProductId() %" instead of giving the id received from that method... Any help would be kindly appreciated...

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  • How to pass a resource file string to a function in an external .js file

    - by hima
    Hi , There is a Messages.resx file under App_GlobalResources in my solution. Everytime i create a string and give a value to the string internal static string Alert_EnterUserName { get { return ResourceManager.GetString("Alert_EnterUserName", resourceCulture); } } is created automatically. Can anybody guide me how to use this string in a function which is present in a seperate .js file? Thanks in advance

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  • Joomla contact form doesn't pass W3C validation

    - by aramaz
    Hi, I get the following error when I try to validate a contact page on my site: document type does not allow element "script" here The element named above was found in a context where it is not allowed. This could mean that you have incorrectly nested elements -- such as a "style" element in the "body" section instead of inside "head" -- or two elements that overlap (which is not allowed). One common cause for this error is the use of XHTML syntax in HTML documents. Due to HTML's rules of implicitly closed elements, this error can create cascading effects. For instance, using XHTML's "self-closing" tags for "meta" and "link" in the "head" section of a HTML document may cause the parser to infer the end of the "head" section and the beginning of the "body" section (where "link" and "meta" are not allowed; hence the reported error). I am using Joomla 1.5.7, and the doctype is <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Any idea how to fix this?

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  • How to pass around event as parameter in c#

    - by Jerry Liu
    Am writing unit test for a multi-threading application, where I need to wait until a specific event triggered so that I know the asyn operation is done. E.g. When I call repository.add(something), I wait for event AfterChange before doing any assertion. So I write a util function to do that. public static void SyncAction(EventHandler event_, Action action_) { var signal = new object(); EventHandler callback = null; callback = new EventHandler((s, e) => { lock (signal) { Monitor.Pulse(signal); } event_ -= callback; }); event_ += callback; lock (signal) { action_(); Assert.IsTrue(Monitor.Wait(signal, 10000)); } } However, the compiler prevents from passing event out of the class. Is there a way to achieve that?

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Javascript pass reference by value

    - by Carlos R. Batista
    Im having this weird reference issue when im trying to get a JSON file through query: var themeData; $.getJSON("json/sample.js", function(data) { themeData = data.theme; console.log(themeData.sample[0].description); }); console.log(themeData.sample[0].description); The first console.log works, the second doesnt. Im guessing because "data" already expired by the time the script gets there and themeData is just a mere pointer to "data". Is there a ways I can make sure themeData gets a duplicate of "data" and not just a pointer to it?

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  • link_to_remote in rails, problem pass :id

    - by nakada
    i have problem use link_to_remote link_to_remote document example say link_to_remote "Delete this post", :update => "posts", :url => { :action => "destroy", :id => post.id } this code make below html code <a href="#" onclick="new Ajax.Updater('posts', '/blog/destroy/3', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true}); return false;">Delete this post</a> but my app don't. my html is <a href="#" onclick="new Ajax.Updater('posts', '/blog/6', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('2C4Yo8OIDN+dm9oieL37uRg++PuWa8LCz18gW5Cu+Vg=')}); return false;">Delete this post</a> where is destroy in url? i expected '/blog/destroy/6' but actually 'blog/6' what's the problem? my rails version is 2.3.5

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  • Pass parameter from page to ActiveX

    - by nCdy
    <object id="Bacs_DBTableRepX" classid="CLSID:CA8B72B3-3B15-40D7-9364-478E25AF5B41" codebase="Bacs_DBTableRepX.cab" style=" Z-INDEX: 102; LEFT: 20px; WIDTH: 1200px; POSITION: absolute; TOP: 80px; HEIGHT: 600px"> <param name="ax_Command" value='<%=GetText()%>'/> </object> Here is my try but it made no sense. Parameter had not being sent. Is there any examples how to sent parameter to my ActiveX or some mistakes in my code ?

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  • How to pass Remote Interface (aidl) throughout Activities ?

    - by Spredzy
    Hi All, I am developing an application using services and Remote interface. I have a question about passing the reference of my Remote interface throughout Activities. In my first Activity, I bind my service with my activity, in order to get a reference to my interface I use private ServiceConnection mConnection = new ServiceConnection() { @Override public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName arg0, IBinder service) { x = X.Stub.asInterface(service); } @Override public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }; x being the reference to my interface. Now I would like to access this interface from another activity, I see two ways to do it but I don't know which one is the "proper" way to do it : passing x with my intent when I call the new Activity redo this.bindService(new Intent(y.this,z.class), mConnection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); in the onCreate() of my new Activity What would you advice me to do ?

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  • Pass dynamic value in URL with CakePHP

    - by Renato Dinhani Conceição
    I have the following method that performs an Ajax request passing some dynamic value obtained from a select input. It works fine, but the dynamic value is passed as parameter in the URL, something like states/listCities/?big_string_of_serialized_parameter . $this->Js->event( 'change', $this->Js->request( array( #url 'controller' => 'states', 'action' => 'listCities'), array( # ajax options that generates the serialized parameter 'update' => '#DealerCityId', 'data' => '$("#DealerStateId").serialize()', 'dataExpression' => true ) ) ); I'm trying to do this in a more friendly URL way, something like states/listCities/2. It's possible in CakePHP to generate a friendly URL like this with dynamic value from a input or is only possible passing the dynamic values as parameters?

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  • how can i pass 2 arrays as datas in googlechart

    - by gin
    I'm using google charts easy php class (here's the link of it) and i want to draw Multiple Vertical Bar Chart, as the documentation says "Separate multiple data sets with |" so i try this , but nothing happens $chart1=new googleChart($a | $b ,'bary' ); *note that both $a & $b are arrays i would appreciate any help :)

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  • Pass javascript array to php by using curly braces key name

    - by user7031
    My js code: $(function(){ var arr = new Array('jj', 'kk', 'oo'); $.post('test12.php', {'arr[]': arr}, function(data){ alert(data); }); }); PHP code: <?php echo print_r($_POST['arr']); The thing is,$.post receive a key named 'arr[]',it should be used in PHP as 'arr[]' instead of 'arr',but '$_POST['arr[]']' doesn't work,'arr' works.Which seems that Jquery might do something with curly braces '[]' before sending something to PHP. Secondly,when I remove the single quotas around 'arr[]',PHP can not receive anything by using $_POST['arr'];,I don't know why? Doing this task in a traditional way with no curly braces: $.post('test12.php', {arr: arr}, function(data){ alert(data); }); It works fine. So when sending javascript array to PHP,why bothering using single quote and curly braces like 'arr[]' instead of using a concise way like arr:arr My return result is Array( [0]=>jj [1]=>kk [2]=>oo ) 1 Notice there is a 1 under the array,why?

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  • pass a pointer of a class

    - by small_potato
    Say I have Class1 and Class2 and I want a shallow copy constructor for Class1. Class1 has a member variable, which is a pointer pointing to a Class2 instance. Also I have to be able to change the Class2 ptr is pointing at. in header file: class Class1 { Class2* ptr; ... } in source file: Class1::Class1() { ptr = new Class2(); } ...... Class2* Class1::Exchange(Class2* newClass2) { Class2* temp; ptr = newClass2; return temp; } ...... Now say Class1 original; Class1 shallowCopy(original); Class2* newClass2 = new Class2(); Class2* oldClass2; oldClass2 = orignal.Exchange(newClass2); delete oldClass2; now I want is associate original.ptr with shallowCopy.ptr, when I implement the shallow copy constructor, how do I make sure these two pointer always point at the same Class2? I mean in the class above, the oldClass2 is deleted, so ptr of shallowCopy is pointing at nothing. If I don't delete oldClass2, ptrs of original and shallowCopy are pointing at different Class2 instance.

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  • Arduino variable going blank after first pass.

    - by user541597
    I have an arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y){ int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6"){ if (hour > 17){ hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); }else if (hour < 18){ //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12"){ if (hour > 11){ hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12){ hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24"){ hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } sketch starts for example at 1:00am timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet == system time my loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime){ timet = convert(timet) } From this now when ever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I am getting the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert however everytime after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor, this works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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  • How to pass or display mySQL data based on subscription or billing

    - by spm
    I want to build a PHP based site where, the user can view data based on the types of data they've paid for. Allow me to use something simple for an example. Let's say historical data for basketball was not readily available but could be purchased. Simple information such as the Winner, Loser, Final score and date are all stored in a mySQL table. What would be involved so that, when the user logs in, they can only see the historical data they have paid for. My theories so far about the architecture: I imagined a mySQL table storing True or False values for all historical game data they have paid for. Based on this, a 'data chart' object enables the user to view all data within their mySQL row which has a value of 'true.' Follow ups: Assuming I am correct, what methods are popular or practical for this type of service.

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  • Codeigniter: Pass data to library funciton

    - by Kevin Brown
    I need my function to do one of two things based on the method variable, but I don't know how to get it done... My controller: function survey($method) { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data); } Library function: function survey_form($container,$method) { if($method == 1){ $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); } if($method == 2){ Do stuff... }

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  • C++: Pass array created in the function call line

    - by Jarx
    How can I achieve a result like somebody would expect it according to the following code example: // assuming: void myFunction( int* arr ); myFunction( [ 123, 456, 789 ] ); // as syntactical sugar for... int values[] = { 123, 456, 789 }; myFunction( values ); The syntax I thought would work spit out a compile error. How can I define an argument array directly in the line where the function is called?

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  • Pass codeigniter translation array to jQuery Function

    - by grolle
    Hi, I’ve a problem by passing an array to a jQuery function. Some code: // in the language file $lang['daynames'] = array('So','Mo','Di','Mi','Do','Fr','Sa'); //In the view var config = { basePath : '' }; // THIS WORKS GREAT!!! var days = new array('lang-line('daynames')); ?'); //in the js-File $(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker({ dateFormat : 'dd.mm.yy', showWeek : true, firstDay : 1, weekHeader : 'KW', dayNamesMin : days, monthNames : ['Januar','Februar','März','April', 'Mai','Juni','Juli','August','September', 'Oktober','November','Dezember'], onSelect : function(dateText,inst){ } }); }); If I do lang-line(‘daynames’)); ? in the view everything looks fine, so what is wrong here? Thanks and best regards ...

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  • Java: pass an event to another component

    - by John
    Sorry I don't know if this is very clear, but I'm pretty new to Java. So I have a JFrame with a BorderLayout containing a JPanel and a JButton. What I want to do is when something happens in my JPanel, I want for example change the text of the JButton, or enable/disable it. How would I do that? How can I access the JButton from the JPanel? I know some ways of doing it but I don't think they're the best way to do it. What would be the best way to do this? Thanks in advance

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  • Pass arguments to a parameter class object

    - by David R
    This is undoubtedly a simple question. I used to do this before, but it's been around 10 years since I worked in C++ so I can't remember properly and I can't get a simple constructor call working. The idea is that instead of parsing the args in main, main would create an object specifically designed to parse the arguments and return them as required. So: Parameters params = new Parameters(argc, argv) then I can call things like params.getfile() Only problem is I'm getting a complier error in Visual Studio 2008 and I'm sure this is simple, but I think my mind is just too rusty. What I've got so far is really basic: In the main: #include "stdafx.h" #include "Parameters.h" int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { Parameters params = new Parameters(argc, argv); return 0; } Then in the Parameters header: #pragma once class Parameters { public: Parameters(int, _TCHAR*[]); ~Parameters(void); }; Finally in the Parameters class: include "Stdafx.h" #include "Parameters.h" Parameters::Parameters(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { } Parameters::~Parameters(void) { } I would appreciate if anyone could see where my ageing mind has missed the really obvious. Thanks in advance.

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  • how could I pass closure problems in order to increment a global var

    - by hyptos
    I have a simple goal, I would like to increment a variable but I'm facing the closure problem. I've read why this s happening here How do JavaScript closures work? But I can't find the solution to my problem :/ let's assume this part of code I took from the link. function say667() { // Local variable that ends up within closure var num = 666; var sayAlert = function() { alert(num); //incrementation } num++; return sayAlert; } I would like to increment num within the function and to keep the changes to num. How could I do that ? Here is the JsFiddle where I have my problem, I can't figure out how to increment my totalSize and keep it. http://jsfiddle.net/knLbv/2/ I don't want a local variable that ends up with closure.

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  • Why can't I pass in a uniqueidentifier/GUID to a stored procedure

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have this SP USE [TestDB] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_test] Script Date: 06/12/2010 11:47:27 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_test] @id uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN select * from TestTbl where ProductId= @id END I then went to the SP with ms sql 2005 and clicked execute. It comes up with a box where I entered in the GUID. I copied and pasted it straight from my test database. I get this error. Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 5 Incorrect syntax near 'cac671b'. So why can't I sent in GUIDs? even ones that are copied right from the database and must be valid as they where allowed into the db.

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  • a Problem to pass a string between 2 view controller (iPhone)

    - by Toma
    my problem is quite simple, but as a beginner, I'm lost :D I have to view controller : view one call view 2 like this : self.FacebookTypeRequest =@"favoris"; FaceBookViewController *viewcontrol = [[FaceBookViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"FaceBookViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; viewcontrol.title = @"FaceBook"; [self.navigationController pushViewController:viewcontrol animated:YES]; [viewcontrol release]; How can i send my string facebookTypeRequest to my view controller 2 ? Thanks for your help

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