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  • Which way is preferred when doing asynchronous WCF calls?

    - by Mikael Svenson
    When invoking a WCF service asynchronous there seems to be two ways it can be done. 1. public void One() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.BegindoSearch("input", ResultOne, null); } private void ResultOne(IAsyncResult ar) { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); string data = client.EnddoSearch(ar); } 2. public void Two() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.doSearchCompleted += TwoCompleted; client.doSearchAsync("input"); } void TwoCompleted(object sender, doSearchCompletedEventArgs e) { string data = e.Result; } And with the new Task<T> class we have an easy third way by wrapping the synchronous operation in a task. 3. public void Three() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); var task = Task<string>.Factory.StartNew(() => client.doSearch("input")); string data = task.Result; } They all give you the ability to execute other code while you wait for the result, but I think Task<T> gives better control on what you execute before or after the result is retrieved. Are there any advantages or disadvantages to using one over the other? Or scenarios where one way of doing it is more preferable?

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  • What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

    - by mafutrct
    First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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  • Legacy URL rewriting with query string parameters

    - by John Kaster
    I've looked at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/817325/asp-net-mvc-routing-legacy-urls-passing-querystring-ids-to-controller-actions and several other similar posts for legacy URL routing, but I can't get past the error "The RouteData must contain an item named 'controller' with a non-empty string value." Looking this up on line didn't give me any hints to solve my problem. I've implemented the Legacy routing class described in the link above, and this is what I've defined in the routing table: routes.Add( "Legacy", new LegacyRoute("fooref.aspx", "FooRef", new LegacyRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "FooRef", "{controller}/{action}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", foo_id = UrlParameter.Optional, bar_id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); When I use Phil Haack's route debugger, it indicates that fooref.aspx has a match, but when I turn the route debugger off, I get the error above. If I reverse the statement order, I get "Resource not found" for /ctprefer.aspx, which makes sense -- so it appears to be finding that as a valid route when put in the other order. Where do I need to declare this missing controller reference? Have routing requirements changed for ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM?

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  • US Bank Routing Number and BIC/SWIFT

    - by Konerak
    I know it is a bit offtopic, but I've been having a hard time finding more information to this question, and since this site is visited by a lot of people from the United States, you guys might know/find the answer more easily. Banks in europe each have a SWIFT Number, while US Banks use Routing Numbers. This leads to following questions: Does each bank in the US also carry a BIC number? (SWIFT) Is there a 1-1 relationship between BIC/SWIFT and Routing Numbers? Is there a list of these numbers somewhere? Background information: We're adding international payments to our bookkeeping application. Users can add international suppliers, but my boss prefered not to change the current supplier table but to have the ROUTING NUMBER in another table, with as PK the BIC. I'm wondering if BIC is a valid choice, or if it should just be BANK ACCOUNT NUMBER.

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  • Visual studio 2010 MVC 2 (2008 project imported) - publish fails - System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDict

    - by Maslow
    Error 7 The type 'System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary' exists in both 'c:\Program Files\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0\System.Web.dll' and 'c:\WINNT\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Routing\3.5.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35\System.Web.Routing.dll' c:\Projects\VS\solutionfolder\projectfolder\Views\group\List.aspx 44 ProjectName The project utilizes T4MVC.tt if that is relevant. Also Visual studio 2010 ultimate. I did not upgrade the target .net framework to 4.0 because my host will not support this for ~24 hours. I have a .Tests project in the same solution that says it is targeting .net 4.0 but it still won't build even with that unloaded, same message.

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  • Route forwarded traffic through eth0 but local traffic through tun0

    - by Ross Patterson
    I have a Ubuntu 12.04/Zentyal 2.3 server configured with WAN NATed on eth0, local interfaces eth1 and wlan0 bridged on br1 on which DHCP runs, and an OpenVPN connection on tun0. I only need the VPN for some things running on the gateway itself and I need to make sure that everything running on the gateway goes through the VPNs tun0. root:~# route Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface default gw... 0.0.0.0 UG 100 0 0 eth0 link-local * 255.255.0.0 U 1000 0 0 br1 192.168.1.0 * 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 br1 A.B.C.0 * 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 root:~# ip route 169.254.0.0/16 dev br1 scope link metric 1000 192.168.1.0/24 dev br1 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.1 A.B.C.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src A.B.C.186 root:~# ip route show table main 169.254.0.0/16 dev br1 scope link metric 1000 192.168.1.0/24 dev br1 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.1 A.B.C.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src A.B.C.D root:~# ip route show table default default via A.B.C.1 dev eth0 How can I configure routing (or otherwise) such that all forwarded traffic for other hosts on the LAN goes through eth0 but all traffic for the gateway itself goes through the VPN on tun0? Also, since the OpenVPN client changes routing on startup/shutdown, how can I make sure that everything running on the gateway itself loses all network access if the VPN goes down and never goes out eth0.

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  • Debian/OVH: How to configure multiple Failover IP on the same Xen (Debian) Virtual Machine?

    - by D.S.
    I have a problem on a Xen virtual machine (running latest Debian), when I try to configure a second failover IP address. OVH reports that my IP is misconfigured and they complaint they receive a massive quantity of ARP packets from this IPs, so they are going to block my IP unless I fix this issue. I suspect there's a routing issue, but I don't know (and can't find any useful info on the provider's website, and their support doesn't provide me a valid solution, just bounce me to their online - useless - guides). My /etc/network/interfaces look like this: # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA netmask 255.255.255.255 broadcast AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA post-up route add 000.000.000.254 dev eth0 post-up route add default default gw 000.000.000.254 dev eth0 # Secondary NIC auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB netmask 255.255.255.255 broadcast BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB And the routing table is: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 000.000.000.254 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 000.000.000.254 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 In these examples (true IP addresses are replaced by fake ones, guess why :)), 000.000.000.000 is my main server's IP address (dom0), 000.000.000.254 is the default gateway OVH recommends, AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA is the first IP Failover and BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB is the second one. I need both AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA and BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB to be publicly reachable from Internet and point to my domU, and to be able to access Internet from inside the virtual machine (domU). I am using eth0 and eth0:0 because due to OVH support, I have to assign both IPs to the same MAC address and then create a virtual eth0:0 interface for the second IP. Any suggestion? What am I doing wrong? How can I stop OVH complaining about ARP flood? Many thanks in advance, DS

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  • Do all routers really must know all routes to every router?

    - by Philipili
    This is my complicated and long question. First let's talk about the context. Network topology: PC A --- RT A --- RT C --- RT B --- PC B (RT C has a WAN NIC connected to "the cloud") With this situation : PC A must send a packet to PC B Default routes direct packets to the cloud We haven't access to RT C's configuration RT C only knows how to join network A, not network B RT A knows about network B RT B knows about network A RT C's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN Cloud Network A LAN A RT A's WAN RT A's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN LAN A Network B WAN LAN A RT B's routing table: Destination NIC Gateway 0.0.0.0 WAN LAN B Network A WAN LAN B I would like to permit PC A and PC B to communicate, but I don't have access to RT C. Networks B and BC are new. Can PC A send a packet to RT B's WAN NIC (which is possible) and "ask RT B to direct the packet to PC B" ? I believe replacing RT B with a VPN server should do the trick, but I would like to know if it is possible to make it without establishing a new connection.

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  • Creating Routes using the second NIC in the box

    - by Aditya Sehgal
    OS: Linux I need some advice on how to set up the routing table. I have a box with two physical NIC cards eth0 & eth1 with two associated IPs IP1 & IP2 (both of the same subnet). I need to setup a route which will force all messages from IP1 towards IP3 (of the same subnet) to go via IP2. I have a raw socket capture program listening on IP2 (This is not for malicious use). I have set up the routing table as Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface IP3 IP2 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 eth1 If I try to specify eth0 while adding the above rule, I get an error "SIOCADDRT: Network is unreachable". I understand from the manpage of route that if the GW specified is a local interface, then that would be use as the outgoing interface. After setting up this rule, if i do a traceroute (-i eth0), the packet goes first to the default gateway and then to IP3. How do I force the packet originating from eth0 towards IP3 to first come to IP2. I cannot make changes to the routing table of the gateway. Please suggest.

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  • Ping with explicit next-hop selection (aka Monitoring multiple default gateways)

    - by Michuelnik
    I have a linux (debian) router with two internet connections (A) and (B). (A) is preferred, (B) is fallback. I want to monitor the internet connection (and not only the availability of the gateways!) and change the default route appropriately. If (A) is not providing internet, switch to (B) If (A) is providing internet again, switch back to (A). Only problem I have is in case (2). My routing table points towards a working internet so I cannot easily detect whether internet is working over link (A) again. I am search for a ping or traceroute (or other diagnosis-tool) which can select the next-hop explicitly. ping -r looks promising, but can only ping a host on the lan. (It only has to write another destination address in the packet, damnit!) traceroute -g gateway looks even more promising and nearly does what I want - but sets source routing options which my next-hops deny. (Not within my administrative boundary...) I just want a $ping, that can: select a source interface (and address) select a next-hop on that interface ping any arbitrary ip address I could do evil trickery with policy-based routing but that would have production impact for all users. I would like to see a side-effect-free solution....

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  • Change Gmail message routing on individual mailboxes

    - by citadelgrad
    We are using dual delivery for one of our Google Apps doamins and need to be able to disable mail delivery to the Gmail account. You can manually update the settings on a per user basis through the Admin interface by unchecking the box next to "Google Apps Email" in the Email routing section. From the Google Apps API documentation for the python library it does not appear that I programmatically disable the email routing for "Google Apps Email" on a per user basis. Does anyone know if it's possible? The only routing related method I can find is at the Domain level and not the user level. gdata.apps.adminsettings.service Thank you!

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  • VPN IP Routing - slow connections

    - by dannymcc
    UPDATE: Router error logs show: LCP Time-out 0 I'm not sure how to correct this. The Lan-to-Lan profiles are set to -1 Idle Timeout (for the remote branch). I have a PPTP VPN running between two Draytek 2820 routers. They are setup that one dials out to the other one. Main Practice - 192.168.1.0/24 Branch - 192.168.3.0/24 I have then set (on the Branch) router the following route: 192.168.1.0/24 If I then request a server running on 192.168.1.1 from the Branch, it correctly routes through VPN tunnel. If I request the branch server at 192.168.3.1 it correctly routes to the local server without using the VPN tunnel. I have temporarily disabled the firewall on both routers, and made sure that QoS is disabled. The Main Practice internet connection is ~30mb down / ~10mb up, and the Branch connection is ~5mb down / ~2mb up. Anything over the VPN tunnel runs pretty slowly (VNC, Remote Desktop and Terminal Emulators). However, if I dial using the Windows VPN wizard, creating a connection from the laptop to the Main Practice - everything runs quickly. I'm looking for possible causes, and/or ways of further diagnosing the issue. Any help would be greatly appreciated! UPDATE: In summary, when I connect within the Branch and try and access a host that's within the Main Practice it works, but slowly. If I then dial the VPN on my Windows 7 laptop whilst still connected to the Branch network, it's fast. Main Practice Branch Practice Routing Table from Branch Router Key: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, * - default, ~ - private * 0.0.0.0/ 0.0.0.0 via 126.256.126.103 WAN2 C~ 192.168.1.99/ 255.255.255.255 directly connected VPN-1 S~ 192.168.1.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.99 VPN-1 S~ 192.168.2.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.99 VPN-1 C~ 192.168.3.0/ 255.255.255.0 directly connected LAN2 C 126.256.126.103/ 255.255.255.224 directly connected WAN2 Routing Table from Main Practice Key: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, * - default, ~ - private * 0.0.0.0/ 0.0.0.0 via 81.139.64.1, WAN2 S 81.137.176.1/ 255.255.255.255 via 81.137.176.1, WAN2 * 81.139.64.1/ 255.255.255.255 via 81.139.64.1, WAN2 C~ 192.168.1.204/ 255.255.255.255 is directly connected, VPN C~ 192.168.1.0/ 255.255.255.0 is directly connected, LAN S~ 192.168.2.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.204, VPN S~ 192.168.3.0/ 255.255.255.0 via 192.168.1.203, VPN Connection Details (from Branch Router) Connection Details (from Main Practice Router) IPERF.exe Output

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  • HAProxy create custom routing logic

    - by kumar
    Is it possible to write a custom routing logic for HAProxy. I need it in such a way that each application server is allocated a max on 1000 TCP connections then only should the loadbalancer try to route next TCP request to next application server. if not with HAProxy if there any other Load balancer that can do it please let me know. Can persistence be applied to TCP connections. There will no HTTP request. thanks

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  • Ubuntu box static routing problem

    - by Rafael
    Hello, I'm trying to configure a ubuntu server to be a router. This is my interface configuration (eth2 connects to my WAN, eth0 to my LAN): auto eth2 iface eth2 inet static address 192.168.0.249 netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 192.168.0.1 broadcast 192.168.0.255 auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 192.168.100.1 netmask 255.255.255.0 This is the router information: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth2 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 100 0 0 eth2 And this is dhcp configuration: subnet 192.168.100.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 { range 192.168.100.101 192.168.100.254; option domain-name-servers 201.70.86.133; option routers 192.168.100.1; authoritative; } I'm then connecting a mac os x by cable on eth0. This is en0 interface configuration: en0: flags=8963<UP,BROADCAST,SMART,RUNNING,PROMISC,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST> mtu 1500 ether 00:26:bb:5d:82:b0 inet6 fe80::226:bbff:fe5d:82b0%en0 prefixlen 64 scopeid 0x4 inet 192.168.100.101 netmask 0xffffff00 broadcast 192.168.100.255 media: autoselect (100baseTX <full-duplex>) status: active And this is the routing table: Internet: Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Netif Expire default 192.168.100.1 UGSc 139 32 en0 10.37.129/24 link#8 UC 2 0 vnic1 10.37.129.2 0:1c:42:0:0:9 UHLWI 0 839 lo0 10.37.129.255 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff UHLWbI 0 4 vnic1 10.211.55/24 link#7 UC 2 0 vnic0 10.211.55.2 0:1c:42:0:0:8 UHLWI 0 840 lo0 10.211.55.255 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff UHLWbI 0 4 vnic0 127 127.0.0.1 UCS 0 0 lo0 127.0.0.1 127.0.0.1 UH 3 507924 lo0 169.254 link#4 UCS 0 0 en0 172.16.42/24 link#10 UC 2 0 vmnet8 172.16.42.1 0:50:56:c0:0:8 UHLWI 0 839 lo0 172.16.42.255 link#10 UHLWbI 1 24 vmnet8 192.168.100 link#4 UC 2 0 en0 192.168.100.1 0:e0:7c:7e:f:99 UHLWI 139 0 en0 777 192.168.100.101 127.0.0.1 UHS 0 0 lo0 192.168.100.255 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff UHLWbI 0 4 en0 192.168.116 link#9 UC 2 0 vmnet1 192.168.116.1 0:50:56:c0:0:1 UHLWI 0 839 lo0 192.168.116.255 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff UHLWbI 0 4 vmnet1 When I ping 192.168.100.1, it works. When I ping 192.168.0.249, it also works. However, when I try to ping 192.168.0.1 it does not. Does anyone has any way to solve this? Is there a way to debug it? Thanks,

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  • Recommended method for routing www to zone apex (naked domain) using AWS Route 53

    - by Dan Christian
    In my AWS Route 53 control panel I simply have 2 A records currently set up for the 'www' and the 'non www' names. Both point to the Elastic IP address associated with my EC2 Instance. This works well and my website is available at both variations but I really want all 'www' to route to the 'non www'. What is the reccomened method, using AWS Route 53, for routing all traffic that comes to... www.example.com to example.com

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  • linux multipath routing load balance

    - by user52883
    I would like to know how to load balance two Business DLS links which have fixed IPs. I believe it would look something like this: ip route add default scope global \ nexthop via gatewayDLS1 dev interface1 weight 1 \ nexthop via gatewayDLS2 dev interface2 weight 1 Is this be all I need in order to get multipath routing? Please, give me a more detailed answer if possible, thanks you.

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  • How to fix "could not find a base address that matches schema http"... in WCF

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to deploy a WCF service to my server, hosted in IIS. Naturally it works on my machine :) But when I deploy it, I get the following error: This collection already contains an address with scheme http. There can be at most one address per scheme in this collection. Googling on this, I find that I have to put a serviceHostingEnvironment element into the web.config file: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> But once I have done this, I get the following: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding BasicHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. It seems it doesn't know what the base address is, but how do I specify it? Here's the relevant section of my web.config file: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfPortalBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" closeTimeout="00:10:00"> <readerQuotas maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647"/> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="WcfPortalBehavior" name="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.WcfPortal"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.IWcfPortal" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Can anybody shed some light on what's going on and how to fix it? Thanks! Craig

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  • How to make custom WCF error handler return JSON response with non-OK http code?

    - by John
    I'm implementing a RESTful web service using WCF and the WebHttpBinding. Currently I'm working on the error handling logic, implementing a custom error handler (IErrorHandler); the aim is to have it catch any uncaught exceptions thrown by operations and then return a JSON error object (including say an error code and error message - e.g. { "errorCode": 123, "errorMessage": "bla" }) back to the browser user along with an an HTTP code such as BadRequest, InteralServerError or whatever (anything other than 'OK' really). Here is the code I am using inside the ProvideFault method of my error handler: fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with Content-Type: application/json, however the status code is 'OK' instead of 'InternalServerError'. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; //rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with the correct status code, however the content-type is now XML. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var response = WebOperationContext.Current.OutgoingResponse; response.ContentType = "application/json"; response.StatusCode = HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; -- This returns with the correct status code and the correct content-type! The problem is that the http body now has the text 'Failed to load source for: http://localhost:7000/bla..' instead of the actual JSON data.. Any ideas? I'm considering using the last approach and just sticking the JSON in the HTTP StatusMessage header field instead of in the body, but this doesn't seem quite as nice?

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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Why do I get a WCF timeout even though my service call and callback are successful?

    - by KallDrexx
    I'm playing around with hooking up an in-game console to a WCF interface, so an external application can send console commands and receive console output. To accomplish this I created the following service contracts: public interface IConsoleNetworkCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void NewOutput(IEnumerable<string> text, string category); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(IConsoleNetworkCallbacks))] public interface IConsoleInterface { [OperationContract] void ProcessInput(string input); [OperationContract] void ChangeCategory(string category); } On the server I implemented it with: public class ConsoleNetworkInterface : IConsoleInterface, IDisposable { public ConsoleNetworkInterface() { ConsoleManager.Instance.RegisterOutputUpdateHandler(OutputHandler); } public void Dispose() { ConsoleManager.Instance.UnregisterOutputHandler(OutputHandler); } public void ProcessInput(string input) { ConsoleManager.Instance.ProcessInput(input); } public void ChangeCategory(string category) { ConsoleManager.Instance.UnregisterOutputHandler(OutputHandler); ConsoleManager.Instance.RegisterOutputUpdateHandler(OutputHandler, category); } protected void OutputHandler(IEnumerable<string> text, string category) { var callbacks = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IConsoleNetworkCallbacks>(); callbacks.NewOutput(text, category); } } On the client I implemented the callback with: public class Callbacks : IConsoleNetworkCallbacks { public void NewOutput(IEnumerable<string> text, string category) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} lines received for '{1}' category", text.Count(), category)); } } Finally, I establish the service host with the following class: public class ConsoleServiceHost : IDisposable { protected ServiceHost _host; public ConsoleServiceHost() { _host = new ServiceHost(typeof(ConsoleNetworkInterface), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); _host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IConsoleInterface), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "FrbConsolePipe"); _host.Open(); } public void Dispose() { _host.Close(); } } and use the following code on my client to establish the connection: protected Callbacks _callbacks; protected IConsoleInterface _proxy; protected void ConnectToConsoleServer() { _callbacks = new Callbacks(); var factory = new DuplexChannelFactory<IConsoleInterface>(_callbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/FrbConsolePipe")); _proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); _proxy.ProcessInput("Connected"); } So what happens is that my ConnectToConsoleServer() is called and then it gets all the way to _proxy.ProcessInput("Connected");. In my game (on the server) I immediately see the output caused by the ProcessInput call, but the client is still stalled on the _proxy.ProcessInput() call. After a minute my client gets a JIT TimeoutException however at the same time my MessageBox message appears. So obviously not only is my command being sent immediately, my callback is being correctly called. So why am I getting a timeout exception? Note: Even removing the MessageBox call, I still have this issue, so it's not an issue of the GUI blocking the callback response.

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  • Clients with multiple proxy and multithreading callbacks

    - by enzom83
    I created a sessionful web service using WCF, and in particular I used the NetTcpBinding binding. In addition to methods to initiate and terminate a session, other methods allow the client to send to one or more tasks to be performed (the results are returned via callback, so the service is duplex), but they also allow you to know the status of the service. Assuming you activate the same service on multiple endpoints, and assuming that the client knows these endpoints (for example, it could maintain a List of endpoints), the client should connect with one or more replicas of the same service. The client periodically updates the status of the service, so when it needs to perform a new task (the task is submitted by the user via UI), it selects the service currently less loaded and sends the task to it. Periodically, the client also initiates a maintenance procedure in order to disconnect from one or more overloaded service and in order to connect with new services. I created a client proxy using the svcutil tool. I wish each proxy can be used simultaneously by different threads, for example, in addition to the thread that submits the tasks using a proxy, there are also the following two threads which act periodically: a thread that periodically sends a request to the service in order to obtain the updated state; a thread that periodically selects a proxy to close and instantiates a new proxy to replace the closed one. To achieve these objectives, is it sufficient to create an array of proxies and manage their opening and closing in separate threads? I think I read that the proxy method calls are thread safe, so I would not need to perform a lock before requesting updates to the service. However, when the maintenance procedure (which is activated on its own thread) decides to close a proxy, should I perform a lock? Finally, each proxy is also associated with an object that implements the callback interface for the service: are the callbacks (invoked on the client) executed on different threads on the client? I would like to wrap the management of the proxy in one or more classes so that it can then easily manage within a WPF application.

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  • thick client migration to web based application

    - by user1151597
    This query is related to application design the technology that I should consider during migration. The Scenario: I have a C#.net Winform application which communicates with a device. One of the main feature of this application is monitoring cyclic data(rate 200ms) sent from the device to the application. The request to start the cyclic data is sent only once in the beginning and then the application starts receiving data from the device until it sends a stop request. Now this same application needs to be deployed over the web in a intranet. The application is composed of a business logic layer and a communication layer which communicates with the device through UDP ports. I am trying to look at a solution which will allow me to have a single instance of the application on the server so that the device thinks that it is connected as usual and then from the business logic layer I can manage the clients. I want to reuse the code of the business layer and the communication layer as much as possible. Please let me know if webserives/WCF/ etc what i should consider to design the migration. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to build a good service layer in ASP.NET?

    - by Swippen
    I have looked through some questions, technologies for building a good service layer but I have some questions regarding this that I need help with. First some information of what I have for requirements. We currently have a number of web applications that talk to each other in a spiderweb looking way (all talking to each other in a confusing way via webservices and database data). We want to change this so that all applications go through a service layer where we can work more with cache and encapsulate common functionality and more. We want this layer to also have a Web API so that 3rd party clients can consume information from the service. The problem I see is that if we build the service layer with say MVC4 Web API don't we need to communicate between the application using the webAPI meaning we have to construct URLs and consume JSON/Xml. That does not sound too effective. I assume a better method would be working with entities and WCF to communicate between the application but then we might loose the Web API magic? So the question is if there is a way to consume a service layer as both a Web API (JSON/XML) and as a more backend service layer with entities. If we are forced to use 2 different service layers we might have to duplicate some functionality and other bad things. Hope the question is clear enough and please ask if you need any more information.

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