Search Results

Search found 7738 results on 310 pages for 'calling convention'.

Page 84/310 | < Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >

  • Hibernate: Walk millions of rows and don't leak memory

    - by Autocracy
    The below code functions, but Hibernate never lets go of its grip of any object. Calling session.clear() causes exceptions regarding fetching a joined class, and calling session.evict(currentObject) before retrieving the next object also fails to free the memory. Eventually I exhaust my heap space. Checking my heap dumps, StatefulPersistenceContext is the garbage collector's root for all references pointing to my objects. public class CriteriaReportSource implements JRDataSource { private ScrollableResults sr; private Object currentObject; private Criteria c; private static final int scrollSize = 10; private int offset = 1; public CriteriaReportSource(Criteria c) { this.c = c; advanceScroll(); } private void advanceScroll() { // ((Session) Main.em.getDelegate()).clear(); this.sr = c.setFirstResult(offset) .setMaxResults(scrollSize) .scroll(ScrollMode.FORWARD_ONLY); offset += scrollSize; } public boolean next() { if (sr.next()) { currentObject = sr.get(0); if (sr.isLast()) { advanceScroll(); } return true; } return false; } public Object getFieldValue(JRField jrf) throws JRException { Object retVal = null; if(currentObject == null) { return null; } try { retVal = PropertyUtils.getProperty(currentObject, jrf.getName()); } catch (Exception ex) { Logger.getLogger(CriteriaReportSource.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } return retVal; } }

    Read the article

  • Android depth buffer issue: Advice for anyone experiencing problem

    - by Andrew Smith
    I've wasted around 30 hours this week writing and re-writing code, believing that I had misunderstood how the OpenGL depth buffer works. Everything I tried, failed. I have now resolved my problem by finding what may be an error in the Android implementation of OpenGL. See this API entry: http://www.opengl.org/sdk/docs/man/xhtml/glClearDepth.xml void glClearDepth(GLclampd depth); Specifies the depth value used when the depth buffer is cleared. The initial value is 1. Android's implementation has two versions of this command: glClearDepthx which takes an integer value, clamped 0-1 glClearDepthf which takes a floating point value, clamped 0-1 If you use glClearDepthf(1) then you get the results you would expect. If you use glClearDepthx(1), as I was doing then you get different results. (Note that 1 is the default value, but calling the command with the argument 1 produces different results than not calling it at all.) Quite what is happening I do not know, but the depth buffer was being cleared to a value different from what I had specified.

    Read the article

  • Rails runner command not saving to cache

    - by mark
    Hi I'm having a bit of a problem with a cron task generated by rails whenever plugin that should store remote data in the rails cache for display. What I have is this: schedule.rb set :path, '/var/www/apps/tuexplore/current' every 1.hour do runner "Weather.cache_remote", :environment => :production end calls this model class Weather def self.cache_remote Rails.cache.write('weather_data', Net::HTTP.get_response(URI.parse(WEATHER_URL)).body) end end Calling whenever returns this PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games:/home/deploy/.gem/ruby/1.8/bin 0 * * * * /var/www/apps/tuexplore/current/script/runner -e production "Weather.cache_remote" This doesn't work. Calling the weather model method from a controller works fine, but I need to schedule it hourly. The cron task causes a "Cache write: weather_data" entry to appear in the production log but data isn't stored nor output into the page. Additional information, I can log into production console and run Weather.cache_remote, then read the data from the rails cache. I'd be really appreciative if someone could point out the error of my ways. If further explanation is needed please ask. Thanks in advance for any pointers.

    Read the article

  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

    Read the article

  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

    Read the article

  • Working with libpath with java reflection.

    - by C. Ross
    I'm dynamically loading a class and calling a method on it. This class does JNI. When I call the class, java attempts to load the library. This causes an error because the library is not on the libpath. I'm calling from instead a jar so I can't easily change the libpath (especially since the library is not in the same directory or a sub directory of the jar). I do know the path of the library, but how can I load it before I load the class. Current code: public Class<?> loadClass(String name) throws ClassNotFoundException { if(!CLASS_NAME.equals(name)) return super.loadClass(name); try { URL myUrl = new URL(classFileUrl); URLConnection connection = myUrl.openConnection(); InputStream input = connection.getInputStream(); byte[] classData = readConnectionToArray(input); return defineClass(CLASS_NAME, classData, 0, classData.length); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } catch (IOException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } } Exception: Can't find library libvcommon.so java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: vcommon (A file or directory in the path name does not exist.) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithPath(ClassLoader.java:998) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibraryWithClassLoader(ClassLoader.java:962) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(System.java:465) at vcommon.(vcommon.java:103) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initializeImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.J9VMInternals.initialize(J9VMInternals.java:200) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:37) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:599) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.reflection.ReflectionvProcessor.calculateV(ReflectionvProcessor.java:36) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.UTLTestCase.execute(UTLTestCase.java:42) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.TestSuite.execute(TestSuite.java:15) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.execute(Testvendor.java:101) at com.fortune500.fin.v.vunit.batch.Testvendor.main(Testvendor.java:58) Related: Dynamic loading a class in java with a different package name

    Read the article

  • named type not used for constructor injection

    - by nmarun
    Hi, I have a simple console application where I have the following setup: public interface ILogger { void Log(string message); } class NullLogger : ILogger { private readonly string version; public NullLogger() { version = "1.0"; } public NullLogger(string v) { version = v; } public void Log(string message) { Console.WriteLine("NULL " + version + " : " + message); } } The configuration details are below: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole"> My calling code looks as below: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); UnityConfigurationSection section = (UnityConfigurationSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("unity"); section.Containers.Default.Configure(container); ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve(); nullLogger.Log("hello"); This works fine, but once I give a name to this type something like: <type type="UnityConsole.ILogger, UnityConsole" mapTo="UnityConsole.NullLogger, UnityConsole" name="NullLogger"> The above calling code does not work even if I explicitly register the type using container.RegisterType<ILogger, NullLogger>(); I get the error: {"Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"UnityConsole.ILogger\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[UnityConsole.NullLogger, null]) failed: The parameter v could not be resolved when attempting to call constructor UnityConsole.NullLogger(System.String v). (Strategy type BuildPlanStrategy, index 3)"} Why doesn't unity look into named instances? To get it to work, I'll have to do: ILogger nullLogger = container.Resolve("NullLogger"); Where is this behavior documented? Arun

    Read the article

  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

    Read the article

  • Exception in DatePickerDialog

    - by Miya
    Hi, i am trying to create a DatePickerDialog in the class 'dateDisplay.class'. I am calling this activity from 'main.class'. If I call the 'dateDisplay.class' using startActivity(), then the DatePickerDialog works fine. But actually I am using an ActivityGroup (for using tab in my application) and I am starting the 'dateDisplay.class' using the following code : Intent dateIntent=new Intent(context,dateDisplay.class); View v=getLocalActivityManager().startActivity("2",dateIntent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP)).getDecorView(); setContentView(v); But an exception is caught, on calling the onCreateDialog() function. And the process is suddently stopped. It shows TargetInvocationException is occured. How can I correct the code? Following is my code: public Dialog onCreateDialog(int id,Bundle b) { Calendar c=Calendar.getInstance(); int day=c.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH); int month=c.get(Calendar.MONTH); int year=c.get(Calendar.YEAR); Dialog d = null; if(id==DATE_DIALOG_ID) { return new DatePickerDialog(this,dateChangeListener,year,month,day); } else { return null; } } Please help me.. Thank you..

    Read the article

  • Usage of autorelease pools for fetch method

    - by Matthias
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused regarding the autorelease pools when programming for the iPhone. I've read a lot and the oppionions seem to me from "Do-NOT-use" to "No problem to use". My specific problem is, I would like to have a class which encapsulates the SQLite3 Access, so I have for example the following method: -(User*)fetchUserWithId:(NSInteger)userId Now, within this method a SQL query is done and a new user object is created with the data from the database and then returned. Within this DB Access class I don't need this object anymore, so I can do a release, but since the calling method needs it, I would do an autorelease, wouldn't I? So, is it okay to use autorelease here oder would it gain too much memory, if this method is called quite frequently? Some websites say, that the autorelease pool is released first at the end of the application, some say, at every event (e.g. user touches something). If I should not use autorelease, how can I make sure, that the object is released correctly? Can I do a release in the fetch method and hope, that the object is still there until the calling method can do a retain? Thanks for your help! Regards Matthias

    Read the article

  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

    Read the article

  • In Rails, a Sweeper isn't getting called in a Model-only setup

    - by charliepark
    I'm working on a Rails app, where I'm using page caching to store static html output. The caching works fine. I'm having trouble expiring the caches, though. I believe my problem is, in part, because I'm not expiring the cache from my controller. All of the actions necessary for this are being handled within the model. This seems like it should be doable, but all of the references to Model-based cache expiration that I'm finding seem to be out of date, or are otherwise not working. In my environment.rb file, I'm calling config.load_paths += %W( #{RAILS_ROOT}/app/sweepers ) And I have, in the /sweepers folder, a LinkSweeper file: class LinkSweeper < ActionController::Caching::Sweeper observe Link def after_update(link) clear_links_cache(link) end def clear_links_cache(link) # expire_page :controller => 'links', :action => 'show', :md5 => link.md5 expire_page '/l/'+ link.md5 + '.html' end end So ... why isn't it deleting the cached page when I update the model? (Process: using script/console, I'm selecting items from the database and saving them, but their corresponding pages aren't deleting from the cache), and I'm also calling the specific method in the Link model that would normally invoke the sweeper. Neither works. If it matters, the cached file is an md5 hash off a key value in the Links table. The cached page is getting stored as something like /l/45ed4aade64d427...99919cba2bd90f.html. Essentially, it seems as though the Sweeper isn't actually observing the Link. I also read (here) that it might be possible to simply add the sweeper to config.active_record.observers in environment.rb, but that didn't seem to do it (and I wasn't sure if the load_path of app/sweepers in environment.rb obviated that).

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL duplicating entry when referencing FK

    - by Oscar
    Hi! I am still facing some problems when using LINQ-to-SQL. I am also looking for answers by myself, but this problem is so akward that I am having problems to find the right keywords to look for it. I have this code here: public CustomTask SaveTask(string token, CustomTask task) { TrackingDataContext dataConext = new TrackingDataContext(); //Check the token for security if (SessionTokenBase.Instance.ExistsToken(Convert.ToInt32(token)) == null) return null; //Populates the Task - the "real" Linq to SQL object Task t = new Task(); t.Title = task.Title; t.Description = task.Description; //****The next 4 lines are important**** if (task.Severity != null) t.Severity = task.Severity; else t.SeverityID = task.SeverityID; t.StateID = task.StateID; if (task.TeamMember != null) t.TeamMember = task.TeamMember; else t.ReporterID = task.ReporterID; if (task.ReporterTeam != null) t.Team = task.ReporterTeam; else t.ReporterTeamID = task.ReporterTeamID; //Saves/Updates the task dataConext.Tasks.InsertOnSubmit(t); dataConext.SubmitChanges(); task.ID = t.ID; return task; } The problem is that I am sending the ID of the severity, and then, when I get this situation: DB State before calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low Call the method selecting "medium" as severity DB State after calling the method: ID Name 1 high 2 medium 3 low 4 medium The point is: -It identified that the ID was related to the Medium entry (and for this reason it could populate the "Name" Column correctly), but if duplicated this entry. The problem is: Why?!! Some explanation about the code: CustomTask is almost the same as Task, but I was having problems regarding serialization as can be seen here I don't want to send the Severity property populated because I want my message to be as small as possible. Could anyone clear to my, why it recognize the entry, but creates a new entry in the DB?

    Read the article

  • Is it OK to write code after [super dealloc]? (Objective-C)

    - by Richard J. Ross III
    I have a situation in my code, where I cannot clean up my classes objects without first calling [super dealloc]. It is something like this: // Baseclass.m @implmentation Baseclass ... -(void) dealloc { [self _removeAllData]; [aVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [anotherVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [super dealloc]; } ... @end This works great. My problem is, when I went to subclass this huge and nasty class (over 2000 lines of gross code), I ran into a problem: when I released my objects before calling [super dealloc] I had zombies running through the code that were activated when I called the [self _removeAllData] method. // Subclass.m @implementation Subclass ... -(void) deallloc { [super dealloc]; [someObjectUsedInTheRemoveAllDataMethod release]; } ... @end This works great, and It didn't require me to refactor any code. My question Is this: Is it safe for me to do this, or should I refactor my code? Or maybe autorelease the objects? I am programming for iPhone if that matters any.

    Read the article

  • DataReader is not returning results from a MySQL Stored Proc

    - by Glenn Slaven
    I have a stored proc in MySQL (5.5) that I'm calling from a C# application (using MySQL.Data v6.4.4.0). I have a bunch of other procs that work fine, but this is not returning any results, the data reader says the result set is empty. The proc does a couple of inserts & an update inside a transaction then selects 2 local variables to return. The inserts & update are happening, but the select is not returning. When I run the proc manually it works, gives a single row with the two fields, but the data reader is empty. This is the proc: CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `File_UpdateFile`(IN siteId INT, IN fileId INT, IN description VARCHAR(100), IN folderId INT, IN fileSize INT, IN filePath VARCHAR(100), IN userId INT) BEGIN START TRANSACTION; SELECT MAX(v.versionNumber) + 1 INTO @versionNumber FROM `file_version` v JOIN `file` f ON (v.fileId = f.fileId) WHERE v.fileId = fileId AND f.siteId = siteId; INSERT INTO `file_version` (fileId, versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, uploadedOn, uploadedBy, fileVersionState) VALUES (fileId, @versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, NOW(), userId, 0); INSERT INTO filehistory (fileId, `action`, userId, createdOn) VALUES (fileId, 'UPDATE', userId, NOW()); UPDATE `file` f SET f.checkedOutBy = NULL WHERE f.fileId = fileId; COMMIT; SELECT fileId, @versionNumber `versionNumber`; END$$ I'm calling the proc using Dapper, but I've debugged into the SqlMapper class and I can see that the reader is not returning anything.

    Read the article

  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

    Read the article

  • Invoking public method on a class in a different package via reflection

    - by KARASZI István
    I ran into the following problem. I have two different packages in package a I would like to call the implemented method of an interface in a package b but the implementing class has package visibility. So a simplifed code looks like this: package b; public final class Factory { public static B createB() { return new ImplB(); } public interface B { void method(); } static class ImplB implements B { public void method() { System.out.println("Called"); } } } and the Invoker: package a; import java.lang.reflect.Method; import b.Factory; import b.Factory.B; public final class Invoker { private static final Class<?>[] EMPTY_CLASS_ARRAY = new Class<?>[] {}; private static final Object[] EMPTY_OBJECT_ARRAY = new Object[] {}; public static void main(String... args) throws Exception { final B b = Factory.createB(); b.method(); final Method method = b.getClass().getDeclaredMethod("method", EMPTY_CLASS_ARRAY); method.invoke(b, EMPTY_OBJECT_ARRAY); } } When I start the program it prints out Called as expected and throws an Exception because the package visibility prohibits the calling of the discovered method. So my question is any way to solve this problem? Am I missing something in Java documentation or this is simply not possible although simply calling an implemented method is possible without reflection.

    Read the article

  • FileConnection Blackberry memory usage

    - by Dean
    Hello, I'm writing a blackberry application that reads ints and strings out of a database. This is my first time dealing with reading/writing on the blackberry, so forgive me if this is a dumb question. The database file I'm reading is only about 4kB I open the file with the following code fconn = (FileConnection) Connector.open("file_path_here", Connector.READ); if(fconn.exists()==false){fconn.close();return;} is = fconn.openDataInputStream(); while(!eof){ //etc... } is.close(); fconn.close(); The problem is, this code appears to be eating a LOT of memory. Using breakpoints and the "Memory Statistics" view, I determined the following: calling "Connector.open" creates 71 objects and changes "RAM Bytes in use" by 5376 calling "fconn.openDataInputStream();" increases RAM usage by a whopping 75920 Is this normal? Or am I doing something wrong? And how can I fix this? 75MB of RAM is a LOT of memory to waste on a handheld device, especially when the file I'm reading is only 4kB and I haven't even begun reading any data! How is this even possible?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

    Read the article

  • XSLT special characters

    - by Apurv
    In the following XSL transformation how do I output the '<' and '' symbol? Input XML: <TestResult bugnumber="3214" testname="display.methods::close->test_ManyInvoke" errortype="Failure"><ErrorMessage><![CDATA[calling close() method failed - expected:<2>]]></ErrorMessage> XSLT: <xsl:template match="TestResult"> <xsl:variable name="errorMessage"> <xsl:value-of select="ErrorMessage" disable-output-escaping="yes"/> </xsl:variable> <Test name='{@testname}'> <TestResult> <Passed>false</Passed> <State>failure</State> <Metadata> <Entry name='bugnumber' value='{@bugnumber}' /> </Metadata> <TestOutput> <Metadata> <Entry name='ErrorMessage' value='{$errorMessage}' /> </Metadata> </TestOutput> </TestResult> </Test> </xsl:template> Output XML: <Test name="display.methods::close-&gttest_ManyInvoke"> <TestResult> <Passed>false</Passed> <State>failure</State> <Metadata> <Entry name="bugnumber" value="3214"/> </Metadata> <TestOutput> <Metadata> <Entry name="ErrorMessage" value="calling close() method failed - expected:&lt;2&gt;"/> </Metadata> </TestOutput> </TestResult> </Test>

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

    Read the article

  • How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

    - by John Canady
    I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >