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• ASP MVC - Routing Required?

  - by evo_9

  I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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• 401 Unauthorized returned on GET request (https) with correct credentials

  - by Johnny Grass

  I am trying to login to my web app using HttpWebRequest but I keep getting the following error: System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Fiddler has the following output: Result Protocol Host URL 200 HTTP CONNECT mysite.com:443 302 HTTPS mysite.com /auth 401 HTTP mysite.com /auth This is what I'm doing: // to ignore SSL certificate errors public bool AcceptAllCertifications(object sender, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate certification, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Chain chain, System.Net.Security.SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; } try { // request Uri uri = new Uri("https://mysite.com/auth"); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri) as HttpWebRequest; request.Accept = "application/xml"; // authentication string user = "user"; string pwd = "secret"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); request.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = new System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AcceptAllCertifications); // response. HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); // Display Stream dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); // Cleanup reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); } catch (WebException webEx) { Console.Write(webEx.ToString()); } I am able to log in to the same site with no problem using ASIHTTPRequest in a Mac app like this: NSURL *login_url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://mysite.com/auth"]; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:login_url]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setUsername:name]; [request setPassword:pwd]; [request setRequestMethod:@"GET"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Accept" value:@"application/xml"]; [request startAsynchronous];

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• TortoiseSVN lists files as modified, but they are identical

  - by BJ Safdie

  I am merging a hot fix from our QA branch back into our Dev branch. Five files have changed. I do a fresh checkout of the Dev branch. I then do a merge (range of revisions) from QA into the Dev working copy. It brings in five files and there is a conflict on an external and ignore property -- which I resolve by "using local" (dev). When I check modifications or commit, I expect to see the five files I merged as the only changes. However, I get close to 700 "modified" files showing up in the commit dialog. If I select one of these file and "Compare with base," WinMerge comes up and says the "files are identical." I have tried this with the file dates set to "last committed" and not. Why are all of these files showing up as modified, when they are identical? What in the merge is causing this? How do I prevent SVN/TortoiseSVN from getting confused this way in the future?

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• Why do I get CA1806 when I catch exception in C++/CLI?

  - by brickner

  I've recently upgraded my project from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. By enabling Code Analysis and compiling in Release, I'm getting warning CA1806: Do not ignore method results. I've managed to reduce the code that produces the warning to this code: .h file: public ref class Foo { public: void Bar(); }; .cpp file: void Foo::Bar() { try { } catch (const std::exception&) // here I get the warning { } } the warning: CA1806 : Microsoft.Usage : 'Foo::Bar(void)' calls 'Global::__CxxRegisterExceptionObject(void*, void*)' but does not use the HRESULT or error code that the method returns. This could lead to unexpected behavior in error conditions or low-resource situations. Use the result in a conditional statement, assign the result to a variable, or pass it as an argument to another method. If I try to use the exception value or do catch(...) the warning still appears. If I catch managed exceptions instead or compile in Debug I don't get the warning. Why do I get this warning? UPDATE I've decided to open a bug report on Microsoft Connect.

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• wpf & validation application block > message localization > messageTemplateResource Name&Type

  - by Shaboboo

  I'm trying to write validation rules for my data objects in a WPF application. I'm writing them in the configuration file, and so far they are working fine. I'm stumped on how to localize the messages using messageTemplateResourceName and messageTemplateResourceType. What I know is that the strings can be writen in a resource file, given a name and referenced by that name. I get the idea, but i haven't been able to make this work. <ruleset name="Rule Set"> <properties> <property name="StringValue"> <validator lowerBound="0" lowerBoundType="Ignore" upperBound="25" upperBoundType="Inclusive" negated="false" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="msg1" messageTemplateResourceType="Resources" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.StringLengthValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation" name="String Length Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> Where is the resource file and what value do I pass to messageTemplateResourceType? I have tried writing the messages in the shell project's resource file but no sucess trying to retrieve the value. I only get the default built-in message. I've tried messageTemplateResourceType="typeof(Resources)" messageTemplateResourceType="Resources" messageTemplateResourceType="Resources.resx" messageTemplateResourceType="typeof(Shell)" messageTemplateResourceType="Shell" messageTemplateResourceType="Shell, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" I've also tried adding a new resource file in the shell project, and adding a resource file to the data object's library. I'm all out of ideas Does anyone have any suggestions? I'm not even married to the idea of resource files, so if there are other ways to localize these messages I'd love to know! thanks

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• Rapid calls to fread crashes the application

  - by Slynk

  I'm writing a function to load a wave file and, in the process, split the data into 2 separate buffers if it's stereo. The program gets to i = 18 and crashes during the left channel fread pass. (You can ignore the couts, they are just there for debugging.) Maybe I should load the file in one pass and use memmove to fill the buffers? if(params.channels == 2){ params.leftChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize/2]; params.rightChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize/2]; bool isLeft = true; int offset = 0; const int stride = sizeof(BYTE) * (params.bitsPerSample/8); for(int i = 0; i < params.dataSize; i += stride) { std::cout << "i = " << i << " "; if(isLeft){ std::cout << "Before Left Channel, "; fread(params.leftChannelData+offset, sizeof(BYTE), stride, file + i); std::cout << "After Left Channel, "; } else{ std::cout << "Before Right Channel, "; fread(params.rightChannelData+offset, sizeof(BYTE), stride, file + i); std::cout << "After Right Channel, "; offset += stride; std::cout << "After offset incr.\n"; } isLeft != isLeft; } } else { params.leftChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize]; fread(params.leftChannelData, sizeof(BYTE), params.dataSize, file); }

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• Web Shop Schema - Document Db

  - by Maxem

  I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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• What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

  - by Soul_Master

  I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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• Generated HTML word document not displaying image correctly

  - by spiderdijon

  I'm trying to add an image to a generated html word document that is embedded in a classic ASP page. The code looks something like this: <% Response.ContentType = "application/msword" %> <html xmlns:v="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word"> ... <v:shape id="_x0000_s1030" type="#_x0000_t75" style='position:absolute; left:0;text-align:left;margin-left:0;margin-top:17.95pt;width:7in;height:116.85pt; z-index:2;mso-position-horizontal:center;mso-position-horizontal-relative:page; mso-position-vertical-relative:page'> <v:imagedata src="http://xxx/image001.gif" o:title="image001"/> <w:wrap anchorx="page" anchory="page"/> <w:anchorlock/> </v:shape><![endif]--><![if !vml]><span style='mso-ignore:vglayout;position: absolute;z-index:0;left:0px;margin-left:0px;margin-top:24px;width:672px; height:156px'><img width=672 height=156 src="http://xxx/image001.gif" v:shapes="_x0000_s1030"></span><![endif]> The image URL is correct and can be viewed through a browser, however when the word document opens, the image has a red x, with the error message: The image cannot be displayed. Your computer may not have enough memory to open the image, or the image may be corrupted. Restart your computer, and then open the file again. If the red x still appears, you may have to delete the image and then insert it again. If i copy the html code and try to open the word document on my local machine, it displays the image correctly. It just doesn't work when retrieving the document from the server. This happens for any images I try to add. Is there another way to add images to html-generated word documents that can be output from an asp page? Thanks.

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• How to display a generic error page in Asp.Net MVC 2

  - by Picflight

  I have the following in my base controller: protected override void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } // If custom errors are disabled, we need to let the normal ASP.NET exception handler // execute so that the user can see useful debugging information. if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled || !filterContext.HttpContext.IsCustomErrorEnabled) { return; } Exception exception = filterContext.Exception; // If this is not an HTTP 500 (for example, if somebody throws an HTTP 404 from an action method), // ignore it. if (new HttpException(null, exception).GetHttpCode() != 500) { return; } // TODO: What is the namespace for ExceptionType? //if (!ExceptionType.IsInstanceOfType(exception)) //{ // return; //} // Send Email MailException(exception); // TODO: What does this line do? base.OnException(filterContext); filterContext.Result = new ViewResult { ViewName = "Error" }; filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 500; } In my Shared folder, I have an Error.aspx View. Web.config <customErrors mode="On" /> I am still seeing the yellow screen when an exception occurs. What am I doing incorrectly?

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• Recommendations to handle development and deployment of php web apps using shared project code

  - by Exception e

  I am wondering what the best way (for a lone developer) is to develop a project that depends on code of other projects deploy the resulting project to the server I am planning to put my code in svn, and have shared code as a separate project. There are problems with svn:externals which I cannot fully estimate. I've read subversion:externals considered to be an anti-pattern, and How do you organize your version control repository, but there is one special thing with php-projects (and other interpreted source code): there is no final executable resulting from your libraries. External dependencies are thus always on raw source code. Ideally I really want to be able to develop simultaneously on one project and the projects it dependends on. Possible way: Check out a projects' dependency in a sub folder as a working copy of the trunk. Problems I foresee: When you want to deploy a project, you might want to freeze its dependencies, right? The dependency code should not end up as a duplicate in the projects repository, I think. *(update1: I additionally assume svn:ignore will pose problems if I cannot fall back on symlinks, see my comment) I am still looking for suggestions that do not require the use junction points. They are a sort of unsupported hack in winxp, which may break some programs* This leads me to the last part of the question (as one has influence on the other): how do you deploy apps whith such dependencies? I've looked into BuildOut for Python, but it seems to be tightly related to the python ecosystem (resolving and fetching python modules from the web etc). I am very eager to learn about your best practices.

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• Help getting MVVM ViewModel to bind to the View

  - by cw

  Okay guys, I'm new to this model and Silverlight in general. I have the following code (changed object names, so syntax/spelling errors ignore). public class ViewModel { ViewModelSource m_vSource; public ViewModel(IViewModelSource source) { m_vSource= source; m_vSource.ItemArrived += new Action<Item>(m_vSource_ItemArrived); } void m_vSource_ItemArrived(Item obj) { Title = obj.Title; Subitems = obj.items; Description = obj.Description; } public void GetFeed(string serviceUrl) { m_vFeedSource.GetFeed(serviceUrl); } public string Title { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Subitems> Subitems { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } } Here is the code I have in my page's codebehind. ViewModel m_vViewModel; public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); m_vViewModel = new ViewModel(new ViewModelSource()); this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); this.DataContext = m_vViewModel; } void MainPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { m_vViewModel.GetItems("http://www.myserviceurl.com"); } Finally, here is a sample of what my xaml looks like. <!--TitleGrid is the name of the application and page title--> <Grid x:Name="TitleGrid" Grid.Row="0"> <TextBlock Text="My Super Title" x:Name="textBlockPageTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle1Style}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Title}" x:Name="textBlockListTitle" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextPageTitle2Style}"/> </Grid> I know I'm missing something, but I'm just not knowledgable enough which is why I'm asking you guys :) Is there anything I'm doing wrong here? Thanks!

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• iPhone TabbarController Switch Transition

  - by user269737

  I've implemented gestures (touchBegan-moved-ended) in order to allow for swiping through my tabs. It works. I'd like to add a slide-from-left and slide-from-right transition. It would be better if it could be part of the gesture if statement which tells me if the swipe is towards the right of left. Since I determine which tab is displayed from that, I could show that specific transition along with the new tab. So my question is this: what's the simplest way to simplement a slide transition at a specific instance. I don't want it to be for the whole tabbarcontrol since this is specifically for the swiping. Thanks for the help, much appreciated. For clarification purposes, this is snippet shows how I'm switching tabs: if(abs(diffx / diffy) > 2.5 && abs(diffx) > HORIZ_SWIPE_DRAG_MIN) { // It appears to be a swipe. if(isProcessingListMove) { // ignore move, we're currently processing the swipe return; } if (mystartTouchPosition.x < currentTouchPosition.x) { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; return; } else { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1 ]; return; }

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• The uncatchable exception, pt 2

  - by chaiguy

  Ok I've done some testing and I've reduced the problem to something very simple: i. Create a method in a new class that throws an exception: public class Class1 { public void CallMe() { string blah = null; blah.ToLower(); } } ii. Create a MethodInfo that points to this method somewhere else: Type class1 = typeof( Class1 ); Class1 obj = new Class1(); MethodInfo method = class1.GetMethod( "CallMe" ); iii. Wrap a call to Invoke() in a try/catch block: try { method.Invoke( obj, null ); // exception is not being caught! } catch { } iv. Run the program without the debugger (works fine). v. Now run the program with the debugger. The debugger will halt the program when the exception occurs, even though it's wrapped in a catch handler that tries to ignore it. (Even if you put a breakpoint in the catch block it will halt before it reaches it!) In fact, the exception is happening when you run it without the debugger too. In a simple test project it's getting ignored at some other level, but if your app has any kind of global exception handling, it will get triggered there as well. This is causing me a real headache because it keeps triggering my app's crash-handler, not to mention the pain it is to attempt to debug.

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• SQL Server 2008 - Keyword search using table Join

  - by Aaron Wagner

  Ok, I created a Stored Procedure that, among other things, is searching 5 columns for a particular keyword. To accomplish this, I have the keywords parameter being split out by a function and returned as a table. Then I do a Left Join on that table, using a LIKE constraint. So, I had this working beautifully, and then all of the sudden it stops working. Now it is returning every row, instead of just the rows it needs. The other caveat, is that if the keyword parameter is empty, it should ignore it. Given what's below, is there A) a glaring mistake, or B) a more efficient way to approach this? Here is what I have currently: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_getOppsPaged] @startRowIndex int, @maximumRows int, @city varchar(100) = NULL, @state char(2) = NULL, @zip varchar(10) = NULL, @classification varchar(15) = NULL, @startDateMin date = NULL, @startDateMax date = NULL, @endDateMin date = NULL, @endDateMax date = NULL, @keywords varchar(400) = NULL AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; ;WITH Results_CTE AS ( SELECT opportunities.*, organizations.*, departments.dept_name, departments.dept_address, departments.dept_building_name, departments.dept_suite_num, departments.dept_city, departments.dept_state, departments.dept_zip, departments.dept_international_address, departments.dept_phone, departments.dept_website, departments.dept_gen_list, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY opp_id) AS RowNum FROM opportunities JOIN departments ON opportunities.dept_id = departments.dept_id JOIN organizations ON departments.org_id=organizations.org_id LEFT JOIN Split(',',@keywords) AS kw ON (title LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR [description] LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR tasks LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR requirements LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%' OR comments LIKE '%'+kw.s+'%') WHERE ( (@city IS NOT NULL AND (city LIKE '%'+@city+'%' OR dept_city LIKE '%'+@city+'%' OR org_city LIKE '%'+@city+'%')) OR (@state IS NOT NULL AND ([state] = @state OR dept_state = @state OR org_state = @state)) OR (@zip IS NOT NULL AND (zip = @zip OR dept_zip = @zip OR org_zip = @zip)) OR (@classification IS NOT NULL AND (classification LIKE '%'+@classification+'%')) OR ((@startDateMin IS NOT NULL AND @startDateMax IS NOT NULL) AND ([start_date] BETWEEN @startDateMin AND @startDateMax)) OR ((@endDateMin IS NOT NULL AND @endDateMax IS NOT NULL) AND ([end_date] BETWEEN @endDateMin AND @endDateMax)) OR ( (@city IS NULL AND @state IS NULL AND @zip IS NULL AND @classification IS NULL AND @startDateMin IS NULL AND @startDateMax IS NULL AND @endDateMin IS NULL AND @endDateMin IS NULL) ) ) ) SELECT * FROM Results_CTE WHERE RowNum >= @startRowIndex AND RowNum < @startRowIndex + @maximumRows; END

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• Is it possible to "trick" PrintScreen, swap out the contents of my form with something else before c

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a bit of a challenge. In an earlier version of our product, we had an error message window (last resort, unhandled exception) that showed the exception message, type, stack trace + various bits and pieces of information. This window was printscreen-friendly, in that if the user simply did a printscreen-capture, and emailed us the screenshot, we had almost everything we needed to start diagnosing the problem. However, the form was deemed too technical and "scary" for normal users, so it was toned down to a more friendly one, still showing the error message, but not the stack trace and some of the more gory details that I'd still like to get. In addition, the form was added the capabilities of emailing us a text file containing everything we had before + lots of other technical details as well, basically everything we need. However, users still use PrintScreen to capture the contents of the form and email that back to us, which means I now have a less than optimal amount of information to go on. So I was wondering. Would it be possible for me to pre-render a bitmap the same size as my form, with everything I need on it, detect that PrintScreen was hit and quickly swap out the form contents with my bitmap before capture, and then back again afterwards? And before you say "just educate the users", yes, that's not going to work. These are not out users, they're users at our customers place, so we really cannot tell them to wisen up all that much. Or, barring this, is there a way for me to detect PrintScreen, tell Windows to ignore it, and instead react to it, by dumping the aformentioned prerendered bitmap onto the clipboard ready for placing into an email? The code is C# 3.0 in .NET 3.5, if it matters, but pointers for something to look at/for is good enough.

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• Remove and Replace multiple chars ( spaces, hyphen, brackets, period) from string in sql

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  +39 235 6595750 19874624611 +44 (0)181 446 5697 +431 6078115-2730 +1 617 358 5128 +48.40.23755432 +44 1691 872 410 07825 893217 0138 988 1649 (415) 706 2001 00 44 (0) 20 7660 4650 (765) 959-1504 07731 508 486 please reply by email dont have one +447769146971 Please see the above given phone numbers. I need to replace all spaces, hyphen, period, brackets and leading 0 etc from these numbers. I need this format +447469186974 If number has leading plus sign then don't replace it otherwise I have to concatenate + sign with it. E.G +39 235 6595750 in this number I just need to remove spaces. +44 (0)181 446 5697 in this i need to removes spaces and brackets and 0 in between brackets i.e (0) 07825 893217 in this I need to replace leading 0 with + sign and remove spaces (415) 706 2001 in this replace '(' with + sign and remove ')' and spaces. 'please reply by email' This is the entry in phone number field and I just need to ignore this. +48.40.23755432 Remove period in phone number (765) 959-1504 Remove brackets and spaces and hyphen and add + sign in front of number. 7798724250 just need to add + sign in front of number 00 44 (0) 20 7660-4650 Need to remove leading 0 I.E '00' remove spaces and brackets and 0 in between brackets and hyphen and add + sign in front of number Only leading '0' will be replaced not anyother occourence of '0' The desired result is +447769146971 Should I use nested REPLACE, CHARINDES, PATINDES for each char I want to replace? Thanks.

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• SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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• Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

  - by lerac

  <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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• Why doesn't Default route work using Html.ActionLink in this case?

  - by StuperUser

  I have a rather perculiar issue with routing. Coming back to routing after not having to worry about configuration for it for a year, I am using the default route and ignore route for resources: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I have a RulesController with an action for Index and Lorem and a Index.aspx, Lorem.aspx in Views Rules directory. I have an ActionLink aimed at Rules/Index on the maseter page: <li><div><%: Html.ActionLink("linkText", "Index", "Rules")%></div></li> The link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/ and am getting a 404. When I type Index into the URL the application routes it to the action. When I change the default route action from "Index" to "Lorem", the action link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/Index adding the Index as it's no longer on the default route and the application routes to the Index action correctly. I have used Phil Haack's Routing Debugger, but entering the url http://localhost:12345/Rules/ is causing a 404 using that too. I think I've covered all of the rookie mistakes, relevant SO questions and basic RTFMs. I'm assuming that "Rules" isn't any sort of reserved word in routing. Other than updating the Routes and debuugging them, what can I look at?

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• Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

  - by user292662

  Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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• Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

  - by gsiler

  I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

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• UTF-8 HTML and CSS files with BOM (and how to remove the BOM with Python)

  - by Cameron

  First, some background: I'm developing a web application using Python. All of my (text) files are currently stored in UTF-8 with the BOM. This includes all my HTML templates and CSS files. These resources are stored as binary data (BOM and all) in my DB. When I retrieve the templates from the DB, I decode them using template.decode('utf-8'). When the HTML arrives in the browser, the BOM is present at the beginning of the HTTP response body. This generates a very interesting error in Chrome: Extra <html> encountered. Migrating attributes back to the original <html> element and ignoring the tag. Chrome seems to generate an <html> tag automatically when it sees the BOM and mistakes it for content, making the real <html> tag an error. So, using Python, what is the best way to remove the BOM from my UTF-8 encoded templates (if it exists -- I can't guarantee this in the future)? For other text-based files like CSS, will major browsers correctly interpret (or ignore) the BOM? They are being sent as plain binary data without .decode('utf-8'). Note: I am using Python 2.5. Thanks!

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• RegisterStartupScript doesn't appear to be working on page postback within update panel

  - by Jen

  OK - so am working on a system that uses a custom datepicker control (I know there are other ones out there.. but for consistency would like to understand why my current issue is happening and fix it). So its a custom user control with a textbox and on Page_PreRender does this: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { string clientScript = @" $(function(){ $('#" + this.Date1.ClientID + @"').datepicker({dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', constrainInput: true}); });"; Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //Type t = this.GetType(); //if (!Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered(t, this.ClientID)) //{ // Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(t, this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //} } Ignore commented out stuff - that was me trying something different - didn't help. My issue is that this all works fine when I load the page. But if I select something from a dropdownlist causing a page postback - when I click into my date fields they stop working. As in I should be able to click into the textbox and a nice calendar control appears. But after postback there is no nice calendar control appearing! It's currently all wrapped (in the hosting page) inside an update panel. So I comment out the update panel stuff and the dates are working after page postback. So it appears to be something related to that update panel. Any suggestions please? Thanks!!

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• Compiling code at runtime, loading into current appdomain.

  - by Richard Friend

  Hi Im compiling some code at runtime then loading the assembly into the current appdomain, however when i then try to do Type.GetType it cant find the type... Here is how i compile the code... public static Assembly CompileCode(string code) { Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider(); ICodeCompiler compiler = provider.CreateCompiler(); CompilerParameters compilerparams = new CompilerParameters(); compilerparams.GenerateExecutable = false; compilerparams.GenerateInMemory = false; foreach (Assembly assembly in AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()) { try { string location = assembly.Location; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(location)) { compilerparams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(location); } } catch (NotSupportedException) { // this happens for dynamic assemblies, so just ignore it. } } CompilerResults results = compiler.CompileAssemblyFromSource(compilerparams, code); if (results.Errors.HasErrors) { StringBuilder errors = new StringBuilder("Compiler Errors :\r\n"); foreach (CompilerError error in results.Errors) { errors.AppendFormat("Line {0},{1}\t: {2}\n", error.Line, error.Column, error.ErrorText); } throw new Exception(errors.ToString()); } else { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Load(results.CompiledAssembly.GetName()); return results.CompiledAssembly; } } This bit fails after getting the type from the compiled assembly just fine, it does not seem to be able to find it using Type.GetType.... Assembly assem = RuntimeCodeCompiler.CompileCode(code); string typeName = String.Format("Peverel.AppFramework.Web.GenCode.ObjectDataSourceProxy_{0}", safeTypeName); Type t = assem.GetType(typeName); //This works just fine.. Type doesntWork = Type.GetType(t.AssemblyQualifiedName); Type doesntWork2 = Type.GetType(t.Name); ....

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