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• Using Solaris zfs + iscsi targets with Oracle VM

  - by wim.coekaerts

  I was playing with my Oracle VM setup and needed some shared storage that was block based. I did not have a storage array available but I did have a solaris box, that I use for Oracle VDI, available. I set up a few iscsi targets on this solaris server and exported them to my 2 Oracle VM servers. Here's how I did this : (1) On the solaris side : # zpool list NAME SIZE USED AVAIL CAP HEALTH ALTROOT rpool 544G 129G 415G 23% ONLINE - I just have a simple zpool, called rpool, on this box. It has plenty of space available for my needs. So I will use rpool and I will create 5 50gb vols : zfs create -V 50G rpool/ovm1 zfs create -V 50G rpool/ovm2 zfs create -V 50G rpool/ovm3 zfs create -V 50G rpool/ovm4 zfs create -V 50G rpool/ovm5 I want to use these volumes for iscsi so I have to enable them as shared iscsi devices : zfs set shareiscsi=on rpool/ovm1 zfs set shareiscsi=on rpool/ovm2 zfs set shareiscsi=on rpool/ovm3 zfs set shareiscsi=on rpool/ovm4 zfs set shareiscsi=on rpool/ovm5 The command iscsitadm list target should list these devices so make sure they show up. # iscsitadm list target Target: rpool/ovm1 iSCSI Name: iqn.1986-03.com.sun:02:896c766c-0943-4da5-d47e-9575b5a0be36 Connections: 2 Target: rpool/ovm2 iSCSI Name: iqn.1986-03.com.sun:02:a3116b46-73e0-e8c2-e80c-9a4f71aff069 Connections: 2 Target: rpool/ovm3 iSCSI Name: iqn.1986-03.com.sun:02:a838c400-2730-c0d6-f2c2-ee186a0261c1 Connections: 2 Target: rpool/ovm4 iSCSI Name: iqn.1986-03.com.sun:02:2e046afb-d66d-4f3f-c5de-8115e0ddd931 Connections: 2 Target: rpool/ovm5 iSCSI Name: iqn.1986-03.com.sun:02:66109fbe-81ac-ef05-f85e-ab8c1f34cb43 Connections: 2 At this point I want to make sure that I have some access control on these devices. To make it easier, I will create an alias for my 2 servers and use the alias for the ACL. get the iqn from the 2 servers on my 2 ovm servers (wcoekaer-srv1, wcoekaer-srv2) get the content of /etc/iscsi/initiatorname.iscsi (for each server) InitiatorName=iqn.1986-03.com.sun:01:2a7526f0ffff On the solaris side create the aliases : iscsitadm create initiator -n iqn.1986-03.com.sun:01:2a7526f0ffff wcoekaer-srv1 iscsitadm create initiator -n iqn.1986-03.com.sun:01:e31b08110f1 wcoekaer-srv5 Add the ACL to the targets : iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv1 rpool/ovm1 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv1 rpool/ovm2 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv1 rpool/ovm3 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv1 rpool/ovm4 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv1 rpool/ovm5 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv5 rpool/ovm1 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv5 rpool/ovm2 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv5 rpool/ovm3 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv5 rpool/ovm4 iscsitadm modify target -l wcoekaer-srv5 rpool/ovm5 (2) the Oracle VM side On each server just do 2 simple things : # iscsiadm -m discovery -t sendtargets -p ca-vdi1 where ca-vdi1 is my solaris server name # service iscsi restart When I do cat /proc/partitions on my servers I will see the devices show up # cat /proc/partitions major minor #blocks name 8 0 160836480 sda 8 1 104391 sda1 8 2 3148740 sda2 8 3 1052257 sda3 253 0 6377804 dm-0 253 1 6377804 dm-1 253 2 6377804 dm-2 8 16 52428800 sdb 8 32 52428800 sdc 8 48 52428800 sdd 8 80 52428800 sdf 8 64 52428800 sde These 5 new devices sd[b..f] are shared storage for Oracle VM and can be used to pass through to the VM's as phy: devices or put ocfs2 on it and use as shared filesystem storage for dom0 repositories. I am setting up an 11gR2 rac template (the cool stuff Saar did) so I am using my devices to create a 2 node RAC cluster with phy: devices.

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• Admin Panel like Custom Framework

  - by bhuvin

  I want to Create a Framework , like Admin panel , which can rule almost all the aspects of what is shown on the frontend. For an (most basic) example: If suppose the links which are to be shown in a navigation area is passed from the server, with the order and the url , etc. The whole aim is to save the time on the tedious tasks. You can just start creating menus and start assigning pages to it. Give a url, actual files which are to be rendered (in case of static files.), in case of dynamic files, giving the file accordingly. And all this is fully server side manageable using different portlets, sort of things. So basic Roadmap is having : Areas like: Header Area - Which can contain logos, links etc. Navigation Area - Which can contains links and submenus. Content Area - Now this is where the tricky part is that that it has zones like: left, center & right. It contains Order in which it has to be displayed. So, when someday we want to change the way the articles appear on the page, we can do so easily, without any deployments. Now these zones can have n number of internal elements, like the word cloud, or the advertisement area. Footer Area: Again similar as Header Area. Currently there is a preexisting custom framework, which uses XSLT files for pulling out data from the server side. And it has the above capabilities. For example: If there's a grid it will be having a <table> tag embedded in the XSLT file. Now whatever might be the source of the data, we serialize this as XML and give it to the XSLT file and the html is derived from this and is appended to the layer in a page. The problem with this approach is: The XSLT conversion is occurring on the server side, so the server is responsible for getting the data, running XSLT transform, and append the html generated to the layer div. So, according to me, firstly this isn't the server's concern to do so. Secondly for larger applications this might be slower. Debugging isn't possible for XSLT transformation. So, whenever we face problems with data its always a bit of a trial & error method. Maintaining it is a bit of an eerie job i.e. styling changes, and other stuff. Adding dynamic values. Like JavaScript can't actually be very easily used in this. Secondly, we can't use JQuery or any other libraries with this since this is all occurring on the server. For now what I have thought about is using Templating - Javascript - JSON combination in place of XSLT, this will be offloaded to the client and the rendering will take place accordingly. This could solve the above problems and also could add mobile support for the same. Only problem which I could think of is that: It is much work and adding new portlets on the go needs to be looked into. What could be the alternatives for this? What kind of problems are there with the JavaScript approach? What are the different ways to implement the same? Are there any existing frameworks for similar usage?

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• How do you go from a so so programmer to a great one? [closed]

  - by Cervo

  How do you go from being an okay programmer to being able to write maintainable clean code? For example David Hansson was writing Basecamp when in the process he created Rails as part of writing Basecamp in a clean/maintainable way. But how do you know when there is value in a side project like that? I have a bachelors in computer science, and I am about to get a masters and I will say that colleges teach you to write code to solve problems, not neatly or anything. Basically you think of a problem, come up with a solution, and write it down...not necessarily the most maintainable way in the world. Also my first job was in a startup, and now my third is in a small team in a large company where the attitude was/is get it done yesterday (also most of my jobs are mainly database development with SQL with a few ASP.NET web pages/.NET apps on the side). So of course cut/paste is more favored than making things more cleanly. And they would rather have something yesterday even if you have to rewrite it next month rather than to have something in a week that lasts for a year. Also spaghetti code turns up all over the place, and it takes very smart people to write/understand/maintain spaghetti code...However it would be better to do things so simple/clean that even a caveman/woman could do maintenance. Also I get very bored/unmotivated having to go modify the same things cut/pasted in a few locations. Is this the type of skill that you need to learn by working with a serious software organization that has an emphasis on maintenance and maybe even an architect who designs a system architecture and reviews code? Could you really learn it by volunteering on an open source project (it seems to me that a full time programmer job is way more practice than a few hours a week on an open source project)? Is there some course where you can learn this? I can attest that graduate school and undergraduate school do not really emphasize clean software at all. They just teach the structures/algorithms and then send you off into the world to solve problems. Overall I think the first thing is learning to write clean/maintainable code within the bounds of the project in order to become a good programmer. Then the next thing is learning when you need to do a side project (like a framework) to make things more maintainable/clean even while you still deliver things for the deadline in order to become a great programmer. For example, you are making an SQL report and someone gives you 100 calculations for individual columns. At what point does it make sense to construct a domain specific language to encode the rules in simply and then generate all the SQL as opposed to cut/pasting the query from the table a bunch of times and then adjusting each query to do the appropriate calculations. This is the type of thing I would say a great programmer would know. He/she would maybe even know ways to avoid the domain specific language and to still do all the calculations without creating an unmaintainable mess or a ton of repetitive code to cut/paste everywhere.

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• DRY Validation with MVC2

  - by Matthew

  Hi All, I'm trying to figure out how I can define validation rules for my domain objects in one single location within my application but have run in to a snag... Some background: My location has several parts: - Database - DAL - Business Logic Layer - SOAP API Layer - MVC website The MVC website accesses the database via the SOAP API, just as third parties would. We are using server and and client side validation on the MVC website as well as in the SOAP API Layer. To avoid having to manually write client side validation we are implementing strongly typed views in conjunction with the Html.TextBoxFor and Html.ValidationMessageFor HTML helpers, as shown in Step 3 here. We also create custom models for each form where one form takes input for multiple domain objects. This is where the problem begins, the HTML helpers read from the model for the data annotation validation attributes. In most cases our forms deal with multiple domain objects and you can't specify more than one type in the <%@Page ... Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" % page directive. So we are forced to create a custom model class, which would mean duplicating validation attributes from the domain objects on to the model class. I've spent quite some time looking for workarounds to this, such has referencing the same MetadataType from both the domain class and the custom MVC models, but that won't work for several reasons: You can only specify one MetadataType attribute per class, so its a problem if a model references multiple domain objects, each with their own metadata type. The data annotation validation code throws an exception if the model class doesn't contain a property that is specified in the referenced MetadataType which is a problem with the model only deals with a subset of the properties for a given domain object. I've looked at other solutions as well but to no avail. If anyone has any ideas on how to achieve a single source for validation logic that would work across MVC client and server side validation functionality and other locations (such as my SOAP API) I would love to hear it! Thanks in advance, Matthew

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• MVC2 client/server validation of DateTime/Date using DataAnnotations

  - by Thomas

  The following are true: One of my columns (BirthDate) is of type Date in SQL Server. This very same column (BirthDate) is of type DateTime when EF generates the model. I am using JQuery UI Datepicker on the client side to be able to select the BirthDate. I have the following validation logic in my buddy class: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required")] [RegularExpression(@"\b(0?[1-9]|1[012])[/](0?[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])[/](19|20)?[0-9]{2}\b", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Invalid")] public virtual DateTime? BirthDate { get; set; } There are two issues with this: This will not pass server side validation (if I enable client side validation it works just fine). I am assuming that this is because the regular expression doesn't take into account hours, minutes, seconds as the value in the text box has already been cast as a DateTime on the server by the time validation occurs. If data already exists in the database and is read into the model and displayed on the page the BirthDate field shows hours, minutes, seconds in my text box (which I don't want). I can always use ToShortDateString() but I am wondering if there is some cleaner approach that I might be missing. Thanks

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• Autofac WCF integration + sessions

  - by Michael Sagalovich

  I am having an ASP.NET MVC 3 application that collaborates with a WCF service, which is hosted using Autofac host factory. Here are some code samples: .svc file: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Service="MyNamespace.IMyContract, MyAssembly" Factory="Autofac.Integration.Wcf.AutofacServiceHostFactory, Autofac.Integration.Wcf" %> Global.asax of the WCF service project: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { ContainerBuilder builder = new ContainerBuilder(); //Here I perform all registrations, including implementation of IMyContract AutofacServiceHostFactory.Container = builder.Build(); } Client proxy class constructor (MVC side): ContainerBuilder builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.Register(c => new ChannelFactory<IMyContract>( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress(Settings.Default.Url_MyService))) .SingleInstance(); builder.Register(c => c.Resolve<ChannelFactory<IMyContract>>().CreateChannel()) .UseWcfSafeRelease(); _container = builder.Build(); This works fine until I want WCF service to allow or require sessions ([ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Allowed)], or [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required)]) and to share one session with the MVC side. I changed the binding to WSHttpBinding on the MVC side, but I am having different exceptions depending on how I tune it. I also tried changing AutofacServiceHostFactory to AutofacWebServiceHostFactory, with no result. I am not using config file as I am mainly experimenting, not developing real-life application, but I need to study the case. But if you think I can achieve what I need only with config files, then OK, I'll use them. I will provide exception details for each combination of settings if required, I'm omitting them not to make the post too large. Any ideas on what I can do?

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• How do I fix: InvalidOperationException upon Session timeout in Ajax WebService call

  - by Ngm

  Hi All, We are invoking Asp.Net ajax web service from the client side. So the JavaScript functions have calls like: // The function to alter the server side state object and set the selected node for the case tree. function JSMethod(caseId, url) { Sample.XYZ.Method(param1, param2, OnMethodReturn); } function OnMethodReturn(result) { var sessionExpiry = CheckForSessionExpiry(result); var error = CheckForErrors(result); ... process result } And on the server side in the ".asmx.cs" file: namespace Sample [ScriptService] class XYZ : WebService { [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] public string Method(string param1, string param2) { if (SessionExpired()) { return sessionExpiredMessage; } . . . } } The website is setup to use form based authentication. Now if the session has expired and then the JavaScript function "JSMethod" is invoked, then the following error is obtained: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.Net.WebServiceFailedException: The server method 'Method' failed with the following error: System.InvalidOperationException-- Authentication failed. This exception is raised by method "function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke" in file "ScriptResource.axd": function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke { . . . { // In debug mode, if no error was registered, display some trace information var error; if (result && errorObj) { // If we got a result, we're likely dealing with an error in the method itself error = result.get_exceptionType() + "-- " + result.get_message(); } else { // Otherwise, it's probably a 'top-level' error, in which case we dump the // whole response in the trace error = response.get_responseData(); } // DevDiv 89485: throw, not alert() throw Sys.Net.WebServiceProxy._createFailedError(methodName, String.format(Sys.Res.webServiceFailed, methodName, error)); } So the problem is that the exception is raised even before "Method" is invoked, the exception occurs during the creation of the Web Proxy. Any ideas on how to resolve this problem

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• InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) when trying to Compile a Lambda Expression

  - by Moshe Levi

  Hello, I'm writing an Expression Parser to make my API more refactor friendly and less error prone. basicaly, I want the user to write code like that: repository.Get(entity => entity.Id == 10); instead of: repository.Get<Entity>("Id", 10); Extracting the member name from the left side of the binary expression was straight forward. The problems began when I tried to extract the value from the right side of the expression. The above snippet demonstrates the simplest possible case which involves a constant value but it can be much more complex involving closures and what not. After playing with that for some time I gave up on trying to cover all the possible cases myself and decided to use the framework to do all the heavy lifting for me by compiling and executing the right side of the expression. the relevant part of the code looks like that: public static KeyValuePair<string, object> Parse<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { var binaryExpression = (BinaryExpression)expression.Body; string memberName = ParseMemberName(binaryExpression.Left); object value = ParseValue(binaryExpression.Right); return new KeyValuePair<string, object>(memberName, value); } private static object ParseValue(Expression expression) { Expression conversionExpression = Expression.Convert(expression, typeof(object)); var lambdaExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<object>>(conversionExpression); Func<object> accessor = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return accessor(); } Now, I get an InvalidOperationException (Lambda parameter not in scope) in the Compile line. when I googled for the solution I came up with similar questions that involved building an expression by hand and not supplying all the pieces, or trying to rely on parameters having the same name and not the same reference. I don't think that this is the case here because I'm reusing the given expression. I would appreciate if someone will give me some pointers on this. Thank you.

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• function to get the file name of an URL

  - by user262325

  Hello everyone I have some source code to get the file name of an url for example: http://www.google.com/a.pdf I hope to get a.pdf because the way to join 2 NSStrings I can get is 'appendString' which only for adding a string at right side, so I planned to check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop the checking, return string fdp.a , after that I change fdp.a to a.pdf source codes are below -(NSMutableString *) getSubStringAfterH : originalString:(NSString *)s0 { NSInteger i,l; l=[s0 length]; NSMutableString *h=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSMutableString *ttt=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; for(i=l-1;i>=0;i--) //check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop { ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; if([ttt isEqualToString:@"/"]) { break; } else { [h appendString:ttt]; } } [ttt release]; //below are to change the sequence of char in h // txt.edcba -> abcde.txt NSMutableString *h1=[[[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""] autorelease]; for (i=[h length]-1;i>=0;i--) { NSMutableString *t1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; t1=[h substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; [h1 appendString:t1]; [t1 release]; } [h release]; return h1; } h1 can reuturn the coorect string a.pdf, but if it returns to the codes where it was called, after a while system reports 'double free * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug' I checked a long time and foudn that if I removed the code ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; everything will be Ok (of course getSubStringAfterH can not returns the corrent result I expected.), no error reported. I try to fix the bug a few hours, but still no clue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

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• RSA C# Encrypt Java Decrypt

  - by user353030

  Hi guys, In my program (server side - Java) I've created keystore file, with command: keytool -genkey -alias myalias -keyalg RSA -validity 10000 -keystore my.keystore and exported related X509 certificate with: keytool -export -alias myalias -file cert.cer -keystore my.keystore After I saved cert.cer on client side (C#) and I write this code: X509Certificate2 x509 = new X509Certificate2(); byte[] rawData = ReadFile("mycert.cer"); x509.Import(rawData); RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)x509.PublicKey.Key; byte[] plainbytes = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("My Secret"); byte[] cipherbytes = rsa.Encrypt(plainbytes, true); String cipherHex = convertToHex(cipherContent); byte[] byteArray = encoding.GetBytes(cipherHex); .... I write this Java code on server side: keyStore = KeyStore.getInstance(KeyStore.getDefaultType()); keyStore.load(new FileInputStream("C:\\my.keystore"), "mypass".toCharArray()); Key key = keyStore.getKey("myalias", "mypass".toCharArray()); if (key instanceof PrivateKey) { Certificate cert = keyStore.getCertificate("myalias"); PublicKey pubKey = cert.getPublicKey(); privKey = (PrivateKey)key; } byte[] toDecodeBytes = new BigInteger(encodeMessageHex, 16).toByteArray(); Cipher decCipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA"); decCipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, privKey); byte[] decodeMessageBytes = decCipher.doFinal(toDecodeBytes); String decodeMessageString = new String(decodeMessageBytes); I receive this error: javax.crypto.BadPaddingException: Data must start with zero Can you help me, please? Thanks thanks,

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• Base64 en/decoding between xstream and iPhone SDK

  - by Matt McMinn

  I am passing a byte array from a java server to an iPad client in XML. The server is using xstream to convert the byte array to XML with the EncodedByteArrayConverter, which should convert the array to Base 64. Using xstream, I can decode the xml back to the proper byte array in a java client, but in the iPad client, I'm getting an invalid length error. To do my decoding, I'm using the code at the bottom of this page. The length of the string is indeed not a multiple of 4, so there must be something strange with my string - although since xstream can decode it just fine, I'm guessing there's just something I need to to on the iPad side to get it to decode. I've tried cutting off padding at the end of the string to get it down to the right size, and that does allow the decoder to work, but I end up with JPG's that have invalid headers, and are not displayable. On the server side, I'm using the following code: Object rtrn = getByteArray(); XStream xstream = new XStream(); String xml = xstream.toXML(rtrn); On the client side, I'm calling the above decoder from the XML parsing callback like this: -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { NSLog(@"Converting data; string length: %d", [string length]); //NSLog(@"%@", string); NSData *data = [Base64 decode:string]; NSLog(@"converted data length: %d", [data length]); } Any ideas what could be going wrong?

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• How do I dynamically create a document for download in Javascript?

  - by Nelson

  I'm writing some Javascript code that generates an XML document in the client (via Google Earth plugin). I'd like the user to be able to click a button on the page and be prompted to save that XML to a new file. If I were generating the XML server-side this would be easy, just make the button open the link. But the XML is generated client-side. I've come up with a couple of hacks that half-work, inspired in part by this StackOverflow question. But neither completely work. Here's a demo HTML with embedded code: <html><head><script> function getData() { return '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><doc>Hello</doc>'; } function dlDataURI() { window.open("data:text/xml;charset=utf-8," + getData()); } function dlWindow() { var w = window.open(); w.document.open(); w.document.write(getData()); w.document.close(); } </script><body> <div onclick="dlDataURI()">Click for Data URL</div> <div onclick="dlWindow()">Click for Window</div> </body></html> The dlDataURI() version works great in Firefox, poorly in Chrome (can't save), and not at all in IE. The Window() version works OK in Firefox and IE, and not well in Chrome (can't save, XML embedded inside HTML). Neither version ever prompts a user download, it always opens a new window trying to display the XML. Is there a good way to do what I want in client side Javascript? I'd like this to work in today's browsers, ideally Firefox, MSIE 8, and Chrome.

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• nhibernate many to many deletes

  - by asi farran

  I have 2 classes that have a many to many relationship. What i'd like to happen is that whenever i delete one side ONLY the association records will be deleted with no concern which side i delete. simplified model: classes: class Qualification { IList<ProfessionalListing> ProfessionalListings } class ProfessionalListing { IList<Qualification> Qualifications void AddQualification(Qualification qualification) { Qualifications.Add(qualification); qualification.ProfessionalListings.Add(this); } } fluent automapping with overrides: void Override(AutoMapping<Qualification> mapping) { mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.ProfessionalListings).Inverse(); } void Override(AutoMapping<ProfessionalListing> mapping) { mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.Qualifications).Not.LazyLoad(); } I'm trying various combinations of cascade and inverse settings but can never get there. If i have no cascades and no inverse i get duplicated entities in my collections. Setting inverse on one side makes the duplication go away but when i try to delete a qualification i get a 'deleted object would be re-saved by cascade'. How do i do this? Should i be responsible for clearing the associations of each object i delete?

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• How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

  - by SztupY

  Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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• Is there any framework for rich web clients on top of html/css?

  - by iamgopal

  Some RAD tools like openobject use rich web clients. I.e. their client side code reside inside the browser and they talk to the server via xml-rpc or json-rpc only and change the view accordingly, all the javascript and css are transferred only once. Such rich web clients would increase the productivity in enterprise class web application that have lots of processes and forms etc. I would like to use such a rich web client inside my own application. I tried to search but found only openerp-web, which is tightly integrated to its server. Is there any other rich web client framework available? if not, is there any design detail I can look into to create my own? Thanks. Edit: Browser is a client which uses http and similar protocols to talks to web server which serve pages that the client displays. Rich web client is a client which sits on top of Browser which talks to the server, send data, receive data and information about How to update the view etc and do it. Similar to Vaadin, such rich web client will eliminate any code requirement on client side and and all the coding will be done on server side. Belows are such thin clients. pjax ( jquery ) vaadin ( java ) openobject web client ( python ) nagare ( python ) seaside ( smalltalk ) p4a ( php ) this are all such clients that once properly setup will allow to code on only on sever and still provide great ajax like experience.

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• How to display two grids in same page using jquery?

  - by kumar

  hello friends, I have this code to display jquery grid <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> Server side I have this code.. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using Trirand.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace JQGridMVCExamples.Models { public class OrdersJqGridModel { public OrdersJqGridModel() { OrdersGrid = new JQGrid { Columns = new List<JQGridColumn>() { new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderID", Width = 50 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "OrderDate", Width = 100, DataFormatString = "{0:d}" }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "CustomerID", Width = 100 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "Freight", Width = 75 }, new JQGridColumn { DataField = "ShipName" } }, Width = Unit.Pixel(640) }; OrdersGrid.ToolBarSettings.ShowRefreshButton = true; } public JQGrid OrdersGrid { get; set; } } } This is displaying only one grid... I I want to display two grids that Is how to display other grid in Same page? that is can I do like this? <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid2") %> </div> in the same page.. if yes how to handle the Sever side grid? bec Server side grid columns are differnt from jqGrid1 and Jqgrid2,,,, On Row Click on JQGrid1 I need to display JqGrid2. Please can anyone help me out about this.. Thanks

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• add button to navigationbar programatically

  - by mac

  Hi i need to set the button on right side, in navigation bar, programatically , so that if i press the button i will perform some actions, i have created the navigation bar,programatically by navBar=[[UINavigationBar alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,320,44) ]; similarly i need to add the button , right side of this navigation bar,for that i used, 1) UIView* container = [[UIView alloc] init]; // create a button and add it to the container UIButton* button = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 130, 44.01)]; [container addSubview:button]; [button release]; // add another button button = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(160, 0, 50, 44.01)]; [container addSubview:button]; [button release]; // now create a Bar button item UIBarButtonItem* item = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:container]; // set the nav bar's right button item self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = item; [item release]; 2) UIImage *im; im=[UIImage imageNamed:@"back.png"]; [button setImage:im forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [im release]; backButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:button]; [backButton setImageInsets:UIEdgeInsetsMake(0, -10,5, 5)]; [self.navigationItem setRightBarButtonItem:backButton]; 3) UIBarButtonItem *refreshItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"button" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(refreshLogsAction:)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = refreshItem; [refreshItem release]; i tried all these type of codings , no use, these codes are not displaying the button at rigth side,please help me. thanks in advance,

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• How update DB table with DataSet

  - by Paul

  I am begginer with ADO.NET , I try update table with DataSet. O client side I have dataset with one table. I send this dataset on service side (it is ASP.NET Web Service). On Service side I try update table in database, but it dont 't work. public bool Update(DataSet ds) { SqlConnection conn = null; SqlDataAdapter da = null; SqlCommand cmd = null; try { string sql = "UPDATE * FROM Tab1"; string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); cmd=new SqlCommand(sql,conn); da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, conn); da.UpdateCommand = cmd; da.Update(ds.Tables[0]); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { if (conn != null) conn.Close(); if (da != null) da.Dispose(); } } Where can be problem?

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• Which JavaScript framework for me?

  - by LeonixSolutions

  This is not to be a subjective question; nor is it intended to start a religious war. Which JavaScript framework for me? Until now, I haven't coded any JS at all (no biggy, it's just another language). I have been set in my ways and eschewed any client-side code, lest the user have JS turned off, or try to "just change this a little, to see what happens" - and then expect me to support it. So, until now it has all been server-side, with PHP and an ODBC compliant database. However, I am beginning to see advantages to client-side input validation and improved graphical experience for users which would help me to produce more professional web-based applications. I am looking for a framework which : doesn't have a steep learning curve is full-featured, although that does not mean that the one with the most features wins (remember the 80/20 rule) is mature an stable (even if still in development) integrates well with common IDEs if possible. I use NetBeans for PHP (and occasionally MS visual studio for C# (I seem to have drifted away from Eclipse)) allows me to develop web sites/apps for mobile devices support for Goggle charts (or other charting) would be a bonus has good AJAX/JSON support, but I imagine that they all do Taking that into consideration, is there a "right" framework for me, or does it not really matter? I looked briefly at JQuery and JQueryGui and liked what I saw, but I really don't have time, owing to deadlines, to try them all out and see which one suits me, much as I know that I ought to.

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• Send post request from client to node.js

  - by Husar

  In order to learn node.js I have built a very simple guestbook app. There is basically just a comment form and a list of previous comments. Currently the app is client side only and the items are stored within local storage. What I want to do is send the items to node where I will save them using Mongo DB. The problem is I have not yet found a way to establish a connection to send data back and forth the client and node.js using POST requests. What I do now is add listeners to the request and wait for data I send: request.addListener('data', function(chunk) { console.log("Received POST data chunk '"+ chunk + "'."); }); On the client side I send the data using a simple AJAX request: $.ajax({ url: '/', type: 'post', dataType: 'json', data: 'test' }) This does not work at all in them moment. It could be that I don't know what url to place in the AJAX request 'url' parameter. Or the whole thing might just be the build using the wrong approach. I have also tried implementing the method described here, but also with no success. It would really help if anyone can share some tips on how to make this work (sending POST request from the client side to node and back) or share any good tutorials. thanks.

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• Can I make any ASP.NET/HTML element into form-data that posts back to the server?

  - by Giffyguy

  I am using Javascript to alter the innerHTML attribute of a <td> and I need to get that info back in the form submittal. The <td> corrosponds to an <asp:TableCell> on the server-side, where the Text attribute is set to an initial value. The user cannot enter the value in this particular field. Instead, its value is set by me (via client-side script) based on actions that the user performs. But this field is useless to me if I can't see its value on the server-side as well. I'd like to avoid using a read-only textbox, because those are difficult to resize dynamically. Can an <asp:Label> be used as form data? Is there any way to achive this without letting the user manually enter the data? Or is there a simpler way to store a string as a variable somewhere and send it back as form-data?

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• Application error passthru when using apache mod_proxy

  - by user303442

  Heyas. I'm using mod_proxy with apache2 provide vhost ability to multiple servlet apps running on the local machine. It works fine, for the most part. Requests come into apache then are directed to the application bound on a port on localhost. The app receives the request and responds, which is delivered back to the client by apache. The problem I'm having is that the application delivers 500's on errors, and mod_proxy stomps on them. Often these errors are caused in a ajax request and the error is handled in client side javascript. For example, a call to a server side createObject(name) might throw a NameNotUniqueException , which is delivered back as a 500. The client javascript might then display an appropriate error message. When an error is thrown by the application (resulting in a 500 response to mod_proxy), then apache stomps the error message and returns 500 Internal Server Error Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. .. the stock apache server side error message. I want mod_proxy to pass the original 500 back through to the client. Is there a directive I've missed which prevents clobbering of the 500? TIA

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• One-sided rounded buttons in Silverlight

  - by xarzu

  I want to make a collection of buttons in silverlight. They are in a collection that goes from left to right and the buttons are lined up so that they are touching on the left and right sides. Here is the rub: The collection has rounded corners but the buttons in between the end buttons in the collection do not have rounded ends. So basically, for the buttons on the far left and right side of the collection, they have to be somewhat special because they have to have one flat vertical side and one rounded side. Is this possible to do in silverlight without resorting to making a special bitmap for the end buttons? One idea I have is somehow declare a canvas with a bitmap background and then have overlapping ellipse and rectangle <Canvas Height="100" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="189,381,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="200" Background="Black"> <Rectangle Fill="#FFF4F4F5" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="Black" Width="58" Height="61" Canvas.Left="7" Canvas.Top="16" /> <Ellipse Fill="#FFF4F4F5" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="White" Width="65" StrokeThickness="0" Height="59" Canvas.Left="31" Canvas.Top="17" /> </Canvas>

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• If Then Else Statement Condition Being Ignored?

  - by Matma

  I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If

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