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• Computer Science taxonomy

  - by Bakhtiyor

  I am developing web application where users have collection of tags. I need to create a suggestion list for users based on the similarity of their tags. For example, when a user logs in to the system, system gets his tags and search these tags in the DB of users and showing users who have similar tags. For instance if User 1 has following tags [Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP] and User 2 has [Windows, IIS, PHP, MySQL] it says that User 2 matchs User 1 with a weight of 50%, because he has 2 similar tags(PHP and MySQL). But imagine the situation where User 1 has [ASP, IIS, MS Access] and User 2 has [PHP, Apache, MySQL]. In this situation my system doesn't suggest User 2 as a "friend" to User 1 or vice versa. But we now that these two users has similarity on the the field of work, both works on Web Technology (or Web Programming, etc). So, that is why I need kind of taxonomy of computer science (right now, but probably I would need taxonomy of other fields also, like medicine, physics, mathematics, etc.) where these concepts are categorized and so that when I search for similarity of ASP and PHP, for example, it can say that they have similarity and belong into one group(or category). I hope I described my problem clearly, but if something wrong explained would be happy for your corrections. Thanks

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• Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

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• SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

  - by dev_darin

  I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

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• Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

  - by MaseBase

  I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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• Speed/expensive of SQLite query vs. List.contains() for "in-set" icon on list rows

  - by kpdvx

  An application I'm developing requires that the app main a local list of things, let's say books, in a local "library." Users can access their local library of books and search for books using a remote web service. The app will be aware of other users of the app through this web service, and users can browse other users' lists of books in their library. Each book is identified by a unique bookId (represented as an int). When viewing books returned through a search result or when viewing another user's book library, the individual list row cells need to visually represent if the book is in the user's local library or not. A user can have at most 5,000 books in the library, stored in SQLite on the device (and synchronized with the remote web service). My question is, to determine if the book shown in the list row is in the user's library, would it be better to directly ask SQLite (via SELECT COUNT(*)...) or to maintain, in-memory, a List or int[] array of some sort containing the unique bookIds. So, on each row display do I query SQLite or check if the List or int[] array contains the unique bookId? Because the user can have at most 5,000 books, each bookId occupies 4 bytes so at most this would use ~ 20kB. In thinking about this, and in typing this out, it seems obvious to me that it would be far better for performance if I maintained a list or int[] array of in-library bookIds vs. querying SQLite (the only caveat to maintaining an int[] array is that if books are added or removed I'll need to grow or shrink the array by hand, so with this option I'll most likely use an ArrayList or Vector, though I'm not sure of the additional memory overhead of using Integer objects as opposed to primitives). Opinions, thoughts, suggestions?

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• Netbeans, JPA Entity Beans in seperate projects. Unknown entity bean class

  - by Stu

  I am working in Netbeans and have my entity beans and web services in separate projects. I include the entity beans in the web services project however the ApplicaitonConfig.java file keeps getting over written and removing the entries I make for the entity beans in the associated jar file. My question is: is it required to have both the EntityBeans and the WebServices share the same project/jar file? If not what is the appropriate way to include the entity beans which are in the jar file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="2.1" xmlns="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_1.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="jdbc/emrPool" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/emrPool</jta-data-source> <exclude-unlisted-classes>false</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="none"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Based on Melc's input i verified that that the transaction type is set to JTA and the jta-data-source is set to the value for the Glassfish JDBC Resource. Unfortunately the problem still persists. I have opened the WAR file and validated that the EntityBean.jar file is the latest version and is located in the WEB-INF/lib directory of the War file. I think it is tied to the fact that the entities are not being "registered" with the entity manager. However i do not know why they are not being registered.

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• Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

  - by danswain

  We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• Can I add a spring mvc filter using jetty with a jar file?

  - by Juan Manuel

  I have a simple web application disguised as a java application (as in, it's a .jar instead of a .war), and I'd like to use a filter for my requests. If it was a .war, I could initialize it with a WebAppContext and specify a web.xml file where I'd have my filter declaration like this <filter> <filter-name>myFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>MyFilterClass</filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>myFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> However, I'm using a simple Context to initialize my application with Spring. Server server = new Server(8082); Context root = new Context(server, "/", Context.SESSIONS); DispatcherServlet dispatcherServlet = new DispatcherServlet(); dispatcherServlet.setContextConfigLocation("classpath:application-context.xml"); root.addServlet(new ServletHolder(dispatcherServlet), "/*"); server.start(); Is there a way to programmatically specify filters for the spring servlet, without using a web.xml file?

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• IIS7.5 and MVC 2 : Implementing HTTP(S) security

  - by Program.X

  This is my first ASP.NET MVC application, and my first on an IIS 7.x installation whereby I have to do anything over and above the standard. I need to enforce Windows authentication on the /Index and /feeds/xxx.svc pages/services. In ASP.NET Web Forms, I would apply the Windows permissions on the files and remove Anonymous authentication in IIS 6. This needs to work over HTTP/S, but don't worry about that, that's in hand. What happens in MVC/IIS 7? I have tried modifying the permissions on the /Index.aspx view, which seems to block access. It asks me for a username/password, but does not grant access when I enter a valid username/password. Pressing Escape gives me an exception "*Access to the path 'E:\dev\xxx\xxx.ConsultantRegistration.Web.Admin\Views\ConsultantRegistration\index.aspx' is denied. *", which does get sent as a 401. So although the username/password does exist on the Index.aspx view, I can't use those credentials to access said view. I have in my web.config: What am I missing?

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• IE7 (sometimes) not showing website properly

  - by Ra y Mon

  We are a bit desperate... We have launched our website http://www.buscounviaje.com We tested all browsers (IE6-8, Firefox, Safari, Chrome, ...) to make sure everything was OK. However, there are some users (IE7 and IE6) that are complaining that they see everything 'white' with black letters (i.e. CSS styles not being applied). One user said he was getting an "Error 0: Object expected" However, we do not see that error in Firebug, nor on our local installations of IE6&7. Other users with IE6&7 are also visualizing the web correctly. We have no idea where the problem could be, and we cannot test it because our IE6&7 work fine. Anyone sees the web page without styles and give us a hint on where the problem might be? Reasons we can think of... we are compressing js and css and some versions of IE6&7 are not able to decompress them we are trying to use a non-existing object in javascript and some versions of IE6&7 do not like it the cache does not seem to be the problem... we guided a user through emptying his cache and he could still not see the web site correctly.

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• Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

  - by Alex

  So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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• how do you authenticate a user between two services, if they are both using a common third-party oauth service?

  - by urandom

  I'm currently experimenting with oauth logins on a website, using google oauth2. While I set that up without too many problems, I saw that there isn't some kind of permanent token, which only google and the authorized service know about a user. Also, from what I gathered, if I were to create a companion app on android, the preferred way is to go with AccountManager, which seems to handle giving oauth2 access tokens for google accounts. But if I authenticate myself from the anroid app using a google account, how do I now link that user to the same one in the web app? One way I think this can be done if the user also logs into the web app as well, so that the server receives a fresh access token, and the android and web one are compared. But that seems like a huge hassle, and I haven't seen many other apps do that. Another is to use a refresh token on the server, but that would require extra permissions which might put off any potential visitors. So what is the general workflow for achieving this? Or am I thinking the wrong way?

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• What's the *right* way to handle a POST in FP?

  - by Malvolio

  I'm just getting started with FP and I'm using Scala, which may not be the best way, since I can always fall back to an imperative style if the going gets tough. I'd just rather not. I've got a very specific question that points to a broader lacuna in my understanding of FP. When a web application is processing a GET request, the user wants information that already exists on the web-site. The application only has to process and format the data in some way. The FB way is clear. When a web application is processing a POST request, the user wants change the information held on the site. True, the information is not typically held in application variables, it's in a database or a flat-file, but still, I get the feeling I'm not grokking FP properly. Is there a pattern for handling updates to static data in an FP language? My vague picture of this is that the application is handed the request and the then-current site state. The application does its thing and returns the new site-state. If the current site-state hasn't changed since the application started, the new state becomes the current state and the reply is sent back to the browser (this is my dim image of Clojure's style); if the current state has been changed (by another thread, well, something else happens ...

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• Windows Azure Worldwide availability

  - by Insomniac

  Hi, I've been reviewing Windows Azure platform for some time, and can't find answer to one very important question. If I deploy my application within a cloud, how it will be reached from different places worldwide? For example if I have a web application with a database and want it to be accessible to users in UK, US, China and etc. Can I be sure that any user in the world will get almost the same request processing time? I think of it this way. 1. User sends request (navigates in browser to my web site) 2. This request gets in a cloud in a nearest location (closest to user MS Data Center?) 3. It is processed by an instance of my web application (in nearest location, with request to my centralized DB which can be far away but SQL request goes via MS internal network, which I believe should be very fast). 4. Response sent to user. Please let me know if I'm wrong. Thanks.

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• Choosing approach for an IM client-server app

  - by John

  Update: totally re-wrote this to be more succint. I'm looking at a new application, one part of which will be very similar to standard IM clients, i.e text chat, ability to send attachments, maybe some real-time interaction like a multi-user whiteboard. It will be client-server, i.e all traffic goes through my central server. That means if I want to support cross-communication with other IM systems, I am still free to pick any protocol for my own client<--server communication - my server can use XMPP or whatever to talk to other systems. Clients are expected to include desktop apps, but probably also browser-based as well either through Flex/Silverlight or HTML/AJAX. I see 3 options for my own client-server communication layer: XMPP. The benefits are clients already exist as do open-source servers. However it requires the most up-front research/learning and also appears like it might raise legal issues due to GPL. Custom sockets. A server app makes connections with the clients, allowing any text/binary data to be sent very fast. However this approach requires building said server from scratch, and also makes a JS client tricky Servlets (or similar web server). Using tried and tested Java web-stack, clients send HTTP requests similar to AJAX-based websites. The benefit is the server is easy to write using well-established technologies, and easy to talk to. But what restrictions would this bring? Is it appropriate technology for real-time communication? Advice and suggests are welcome, especially what pros and cons surround using a web-server approach as compared to a socket-based approach.

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• Time out when creating a site collection

  - by Daeko

  I am trying to create a site collection programmatically. It has worked for about 6 months, but after the servers have been updated (various patches) it doesn’t work anymore (we have 3 servers: 1 development, 1 test, 1 production). It is still working in my development environment which hasn’t been updated, but not on the two others. I don’t receive any error messages, it just hangs at the code that is supposed to add the site collection (see code below). I am using Windows Server 2003 R2 and Sharepoint 2007 (version 12.0.0.6421 ). It doesn’t give me any errors, it just hangs until Internet Explorer comes with a “request timed out” response. If I try and debug the code, the code just stops there and nothing happens. No error messages or anything. public static string CreateSPAccountSite(string siteName) { string url = ""; SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; using (SPSite siteCollectionOuter = new SPSite(web.Site.ID)) { SPWebApplication webApp = siteCollectionOuter.WebApplication; SPSiteCollection siteCollection = webApp.Sites; SPSite site = siteCollection.Add("sites/" + siteName, siteName, "Auto generated Site collection.", 1033, "STS#0", siteCollectionOuter.Owner.LoginName, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Name, siteCollectionOuter.Owner.Email); //Hangs here site.PortalName = "Portal"; site.PortalUrl = mainUrl; // https://www.ourdomain.net url = site.Url; } }); return url; //Should be "https://www.outdomain.net/sites/siteName" }

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• XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

  - by user323772

  This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

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• Exploiting Path Traversal Vulnerability

  - by Maputo

  I have a Java Web App running on Tomcat on which I'm supposed to exploit Path traversal vulnerability. There is a section (in the App) at which I can upload a .zip file, which gets extracted in the server's /tmp directory. The content of the .zip file is not being checked, so basically I could put anything in it. I tried putting a .jsp file in it and it extracts perfectly. My problem is that I don't know how to reach this file as a "normal" user from browser. I tried entering ../../../tmp/somepage.jsp in the address bar, but Tomcat just strips the ../ and gives me http://localhost:8080/tmp/ resource not available. Ideal would be if I could somehow rename the somepage.jsp so that it gets extracted in the web directory of the Web App. But then, the Linux filesystem disallows slashes in filenames (e.g. ../../home/webapp/somepage.jsp). Are there maybe any escape sequences that would translate to / after extracting? Any ideas would be highly appreciated. Note: This is a school project in a Security course where I'm supposed to locate vulnerabilities and correct them. Not trying to harm anyone...

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• In maven2, how do I assemble bits and pieces of different modules to create final distributions?

  - by Carcassi

  I have four maven project: client api jar web service war ui jar web interface war The service war will need to be packaged to include the client api jar, together with javadocs (so that each version is distributed with a matching client and documentation). The web interface war will need the ui jar and all the dependencies (webstart/applet deployment). So I need a 5th project that does all the packaging. How to do this with ant or a script is perfectly clear to me, but not in maven. I tried the following: having the javadocs included as part of the war packaging: this requires the execution of the javadocs goal in project 1 before execution of package in project 2. Haven't found a way to bind plugins/goals across different projects. Using the assembly plugin in project2 had the same problem. create a fifth project and use the assembly plugin. Still the same problems as before, with the problem that since I need different pieces from each sub-project I do not understand how this can be done using the assembly. Is this too hard to do in maven, and should I just give up? Or I am looking at it wrong, in which case, how should I be looking at it? Thanks! Upon further reflection, here is a partial answer: Each project should build all its artifacts. This is done by having the plugins configured to run as per the prepare-resources and package phases. So, in my case, I prepare all that needs to be generated (jar, javadocs, xsd documentation, ...) as different artifacts so that a single "package" goal execution creates all. So, it's not "how project 2 forces project 1 to run different goals", but it's "make project 1 create all of its artifact as part as the normal lifecycle). This seems to simplify things.

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• I have a slight confusion with setting up Mercurial on my webserver...

  - by littlejim84

  I'm starting to use Mercurial on my web server (in this case MediaTemple's Grid). I've used SVN previously, though I'm not an expert of version control systems. I'm just needing a little help with clearing up some confusion with getting it set up optimally. I have a 'data' folder which is outside the web server root and that the browser cannot access. It was recommended to me before to have my Mercurial repositories setup here, then I would clone from here locally on my computer. I would also have a 'domains' folder that is basically the web server root and inside there is my actual domains where my websites are actually served to the browser - these would need to be updated from the 'data' repositories too. But with this in mind, after setting it up, it seems inefficient... I'm cloning to my local (that makes sense), adding, committing, pushing. That's fine... But then I'm then updating in my data repository folder and then updating in my domains folder to actually update my websites. Surely, I don't actually need this 'data' folder for repositories? Wouldn't my actual live 'domains' folders be the main repositories themselves? So I'm cloning locally and updating from these? Please help me clear some confusions with all this (if you can).

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• How best to organize projects folders for unit tests in .NET?

  - by Dan Bailiff

  So I'm trying to introduce unit testing to my group. I've successfully upgraded a VS'05 web site project to a VS'08 web application, and now have a solution with the web app project and a unit test project. The issue now is how to fit this back into the source repository such that we don't break the build system and the unit test projects are persisted as well. Right now we have something like this: c:\root c:\root\projectA c:\root\projectB c:\root\projectC where projectA contains the sln file and all other related files/folders for the project. Now I have this new solution that looks like this: c:\root\projectA (parent folder) c:\root\projectA\projectA (the production code project) c:\root\projectA\projectA_Test (the unit test project) c:\root\projectA\TestResults c:\root\projecta\projectA.sln How do I integrate this new structure back into the code repository? I'd really prefer to keep the production code folder where it was in the source repository for the sake of the build, but is this necessary? If I keep the production code project in its usual place then where do I keep my unit test projects and how do I connect them with a sln file? Is it better to use this new structure and adjust the build process? I'd love to hear how other people are dealing with this issue of upgrading legacy projects to unit testing.

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• Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

  - by TampaRich

  Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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• Sharepoint 2010 start workflow programmatically error

  - by user522429

  I have a workflow associated with a content type. I try to kick it off from code from within the event receiver on the same content type, so when an item is updated, if there is a certain condition (status = ready for review) I start it. //This line does find the workflow association var assoc = properties.Web.ContentTypes["Experiment Document Set"].WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", ultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); //I had tried to use this line from something I found online, but it would return null //var assoc = properties.Web.WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); var result = properties.Web.Site.WorkflowManager.StartWorkflow(properties.ListItem, assoc, string.Empty, SPWorkflowRunOptions.Synchronous); //The line above gives me this error: System.ArgumentException: Workflow failed to start because the workflow is associated with a content type that does not exist in a list. Before re-starting the workflow, the content type must be added to the list. To check this, I was looking at the content type of the list item being updated and it is correct properties.ListItem.ContentType.Name "Experiment Document Set" So basically I have a workfow associated with the content type "Experiment Document Set". When I try to start a workflow from an event receiver in "Experiment Document Set", I get an error saying the content type "Experiment Document Set" does not exist in the list which doesn't make sense.

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• A basic load test question

  - by user236131

  I have a very basic load test question. I am running a load test using VSTS 2008 and I have test rig with controller + 10 agents. This load test is against a SharePoint farm I have. My goal of the load test is to find out the resource utilization on web+app+db tiers of my farm for any given load scenario. An example of a load scenario is Usage profile: Average collaboration (as defined by SCCP) User Load: 500 (using step load pattern=a step of 50 every 2 mins and a warm up time of 2mins for every step) Think time: 0 Load duration: 8hrs Now, the question is: Is it fair to expect that metrics like Requests/sec, %processor time on web front end / App / DB, Test/sec, and etc become flat or enter a steady state at one point in time during the load test. Like I said, the goal is not to create a bottleneck but to only measure the utilization of resources by the above load profile. I am asking this question because I see something different. At one point in the load test, requests/sec becomes more or less flat. But processor utilization on the web/DB servers keeps increasing. After digging through the data a bit, I see that "tests running" counter also steadily increased over time. So, if I run the load test for more than 8hrs, %processor may go up further. This way, I don't know what to consider as the load excreted by the load profile. What does this "tests running" counter really signify? How is this different from tests/sec? Another question is: how can I find out why "tests running" counter shows an increase overtime? Thanks for your time

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• Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

  - by Kevin Buchan

  Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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