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  • Asynchronous subprocess on Windows

    - by Stigma
    First of all, the overall problem I am solving is a bit more complicated than I am showing here, so please do not tell me 'use threads with blocking' as it would not solve my actual situation without a fair, FAIR bit of rewriting and refactoring. I have several applications which are not mine to modify, which take data from stdin and poop it out on stdout after doing their magic. My task is to chain several of these programs. Problem is, sometimes they choke, and as such I need to track their progress which is outputted on STDERR. pA = subprocess.Popen(CommandA, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) # ... some more processes make up the chain, but that is irrelevant to the problem pB = subprocess.Popen(CommandB, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, stdin=pA.stdout ) Now, reading directly through pA.stdout.readline() and pB.stdout.readline(), or the plain read() functions, is a blocking matter. Since different applications output in different paces and different formats, blocking is not an option. (And as I wrote above, threading is not an option unless at a last, last resort.) pA.communicate() is deadlock safe, but since I need the information live, that is not an option either. Thus google brought me to this asynchronous subprocess snippet on ActiveState. All good at first, until I implement it. Comparing the cmd.exe output of pA.exe | pB.exe, ignoring the fact both output to the same window making for a mess, I see very instantaneous updates. However, I implement the same thing using the above snippet and the read_some() function declared there, and it takes over 10 seconds to notify updates of a single pipe. But when it does, it has updates leading all the way upto 40% progress, for example. Thus I do some more research, and see numerous subjects concerning PeekNamedPipe, anonymous handles, and returning 0 bytes available even though there is information available in the pipe. As the subject has proven quite a bit beyond my expertise to fix or code around, I come to Stack Overflow to look for guidance. :) My platform is W7 64-bit with Python 2.6, the applications are 32-bit in case it matters, and compatibility with Unix is not a concern. I can even deal with a full ctypes or pywin32 solution that subverts subprocess entirely if it is the only solution, as long as I can read from every stderr pipe asynchronously with immediate performance and no deadlocks. :)

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • DUnit: How to run tests?

    - by Ian Boyd
    How do i run TestCase's from the IDE? i created a new project, with a single, simple, form: unit Unit1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type TForm1 = class(TForm) private public end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.DFM} end. Now i'll add a test case to check that pushing Button1 does what it should: unit Unit1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type TForm1 = class(TForm) Button1: TButton; procedure Button1Click(Sender: TObject); private public end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.DFM} uses TestFramework; type TForm1Tests = class(TTestCase) private f: TForm1; protected procedure SetUp; override; procedure TearDown; override; published procedure TestButton1Click; end; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin //todo end; { TForm1Tests } procedure TForm1Tests.SetUp; begin inherited; f := TForm1.Create(nil); end; procedure TForm1Tests.TearDown; begin f.Free; inherited; end; procedure TForm1Tests.TestButton1Click; begin f.Button1Click(nil); Self.CheckEqualsString('Hello, world!', f.Caption); end; end. Given what i've done (test code in the GUI project), how do i now trigger a run of the tests? If i push F9 then the form simply appears: Ideally there would be a button, or menu option, in the IDE saying Run DUnit Tests: Am i living in a dream-world? A fantasy land, living in a gumdrop house on lollipop lane?

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  • Android Canvas.drawString display problem

    - by Arkaha
    Hello everyone! I encounter this problem when displaying text on SurfaceView, some chars can climb up on others, code is here: private static void fakeDraw(Canvas c) { Paint mPaint = new Paint(); int color = 0xff000000; mPaint.setColor(color); mPaint.setStrokeWidth(2); mPaint.setStyle(Style.FILL); mPaint.setAntiAlias(true); FontMetricsInt fm = mPaint.getFontMetricsInt(); int fh = Math.abs(fm.top); int left = 0; int top = 100; Rect smallClip = new Rect(left, top-fh, left + 200, top + 30); Rect bigClip = new Rect(0, 0, getW(), getH()); c.drawRect(bigClip, mPaint); String text1 = "Evi"; String text2 = ">>"; String text3 = "Tom"; color = 0xff303030; mPaint.setColor(color); c.drawRect(smallClip, mPaint); color = 0xffffffff; mPaint.setColor(color); c.drawText(text1, left, top, mPaint); Rect bounds = new Rect(); mPaint.getTextBounds(text1, 0, text1.length(), bounds); left += bounds.width(); c.drawText(text2, left, top, mPaint); left -= bounds.width(); top += 12; c.drawText(text3, left, top, mPaint); mPaint.getTextBounds(text3, 0, text3.length(), bounds); left += bounds.width(); c.drawText(text2, left, top, mPaint); } In the case of a second text Tom all displayed correctly, but the first text Evi not. The problem is that the chars draws in Evi draw space(last char "i")!! It is possible to see if you zoom the picture, what am I doing wrong and how to fix this? screen shot can be found here:

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  • Is this asking too much of a browser?

    - by Matt Ball
    I'm embedding a large array in <script> tags in my HTML, like this (nothing surprising): <script> var largeArray = [/* lots of stuff in here */]; </script> In this particular example, the array has 210,000 elements. That's well below the theoretical maximum of 231 - by 4 orders of magnitude. Here's the fun part: if I save JS source for the array to a file, that file is 44 megabytes (46,573,399 bytes, to be exact). If you want to see for yourself, you can download it from my Dropbox. (All the data in there is canned, so much of it is repeated. This will not be the case in production.) Now, I'm really not concerned about serving that much data. My server gzips its responses, so it really doesn't take all that long to get the data over the wire. However, there is a really nasty tendency for the page, once loaded, to crash the browser. I'm not testing at all in IE (this is an internal tool). My primary targets are Chrome 8 and Firefox 3.6. In Firefox, I can see a reasonably useful error in the console: Error: script stack space quota is exhausted In Chrome, I simply get the sad-tab page: Cut to the chase, already Is this really too much data for our modern, "high-performance" browsers to handle? Is there anything I can do* to gracefully handle this much data? Incidentally, I was able to get this to work (read: not crash the tab) on-and-off in Chrome. I really thought that Chrome, at least, was made of tougher stuff, but apparently I was wrong... Edit 1 @Crayon: I wasn't looking to justify why I'd like to dump this much data into the browser at once. Short version: either I solve this one (admittedly not-that-easy) problem, or I have to solve a whole slew of other problems. I'm opting for the simpler approach for now. @various: right now, I'm not especially looking for ways to actually reduce the number of elements in the array. I know I could implement Ajax paging or what-have-you, but that introduces its own set of problems for me in other regards. @Phrogz: each element looks something like this: {dateTime:new Date(1296176400000), terminalId:'terminal999', 'General___BuildVersion':'10.05a_V110119_Beta', 'SSM___ExtId':26680, 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___Valid':'false', 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___PngAttempt':0} @Will: but I have a computer with a 4-core processor, 6 gigabytes of RAM, over half a terabyte of disk space ...and I'm not even asking for the browser to do this quickly - I'm just asking for it to work at all! ? *other than the obvious: sending less data to the browser

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  • IE won't load PDF in a window created with window.open

    - by Dean
    Here's the problem, which only occurs in Internet Explorer (IE). I have a page that has links to several different types of files. Links from these files execute a Javascript function that opens a new window and loads the specific file. This works great, unless the file I need to open in the new window is a PDF in which case the window is blank, even though the URL is in the address field. Refreshing that window using F5 doesn't help. However, if I put the cursor in the address field and press <enter> the PDF loads right up. This problem only occurs in IE. I have seen it in IE 7 and 8 and am using Adobe Acrobat Reader 9. In Firefox (PC and Mac) everything works perfectly. In Chrome (Mac), the PDF is downloaded. In Safari (Mac) it works. In Opera (Mac) it prompts me to open or save. Basically, everything probably works fine, except for IE. I have searched for similar problems and have seen some posts where it was suggested to adjust some of the Internet Options on IE. I have tried this but it doesn't help, and the problem wasn't exactly the same anyway. Here's the Javascript function I use to open the new window. function newwin(url,w,h) { win = window.open(url,"temp","width="+w+",height="+h+",menubar=yes,toolbar=yes,location=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=auto,resizable=yes"); win.focus(); } You can see that I pass in the URL as well as the height, h, and width, w, of the window. I've used a function like this for years and as far as I know have never had a problem. I call the newwin() function using this. <a href="javascript:newwin('/path/document.pdf',400,300)">document.pdf</a> (Yes, I know there are other, better ways than using inline JS, and I've even tried some of them because I've run out of things to try, but nothing works.) So, if anyone has an idea as to what might be causing this problem, I'd love to hear it.

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  • bluetooth file send.

    - by cheesebunz
    i'm new to bluetooth development and i found the 32netfeet . Right now i'm able to search for bluetooth devices nearby and connect to them but how do i send a file e.g SendTest.txt? I tried buttonclick event using the OBEX but i don't understand this is my example code: using InTheHand.Net; using InTheHand.Net.Sockets; using InTheHand.Net.Bluetooth; namespace BluetoothIntheHand { public partial class Form2 : Form { private Guid service = BluetoothService.DialupNetworking; private BluetoothClient bluetoothClient; public Form2() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio.Mode = RadioMode.Discoverable; BluetoothRadio myRadio = BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio; lblSearch.Text = "" + myRadio.LocalAddress.ToString(); bluetoothClient = new BluetoothClient(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor; BluetoothDeviceInfo[] bluetoothDeviceInfo = { }; bluetoothDeviceInfo = bluetoothClient.DiscoverDevices(10); comboBox1.DataSource = bluetoothDeviceInfo; comboBox1.DisplayMember = "DeviceName"; comboBox1.ValueMember = "DeviceAddress"; comboBox1.Focus(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default; } private void btnConnect_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (comboBox1.SelectedValue != null) { try { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); MessageBox.Show("Connected"); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } } private void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); String addr = "112233445566"; Uri uri = new Uri("obex://"+@"SendTest.txt"); ObexWebRequest req= new ObexWebRequest(uri); ObexWebResponse rsp; } I found the guide but don't really know how to convert to C# ' The host part of the URI is the device address, e.g. IrDAAddress.ToString(), ' and the file part is the OBEX object name. Dim addr As String = "112233445566" Dim uri As New Uri("obex://" & addr & "/HelloWorld2.txt") Dim req As New ObexWebRequest(uri) Using content As Stream = req.GetRequestStream() ' Using a StreamWriter to write text to the stream... Using wtr As New StreamWriter(content) wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream") wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream 2") wtr.Flush() ' Set the Length header value req.ContentLength = content.Length End Using ' In this case closing the StreamWriter also closed the Stream, but ... End Using Dim rsp As ObexWebResponse = CType(req.GetResponse(),ObexWebResponse) Console.WriteLine("Response Code: {0} (0x{0:X})", rsp.StatusCode)

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  • Downloading Python 2.5.4 (from official website) in order to install it

    - by brilliant
    I was quite hesitant about whether I should post this question here on "StackOverflow" or on "SuperUser", but finally decided to post it here as Python is more a programming language rather than a piece of software. I've been recently using Python 2.5.4 that is installed on my computer, but at the moment I am not at home (and won't be for about two weeks from now), so I need to install the same version of Python on another computer. This computer has Windows XP installed – just like the one that I have at home. The reason why I need Python 2.5.4 is because I am using “Google App Engine”, and I was told that it only supports Python 2.5 However, when I went to the official Python page for the download, I discovered that certain things have changed, and I don’t quite remember where exactly from that site I had downloaded Python 2.5.4 on my computer at home. I found this page: http://www.python.org/download/releases/2.5.4/ Here is how it looks: (If you can’t see it here, please check it out at this address: http://brad.cwahi.net/some_pictures/python_page.jpg ) A few things here are not clear to me. It says: “For x86 processors: python-2.5.4.msi For Win64-Itanium users: python-2.5.4.ia64.msi For Win64-AMD64 users: python-2.5.4.amd64.msi” First of all, I don’t know what processor I am using – whether mine is “x86” or not; and also, I don’t know whether I am an “Win64-Itanium” or an “Win64-AMD64” user. Are Itanium and AMD64 also processors? Later it says: “Windows XP and later already have MSI; many older machines will already have MSI installed.” I guess, it is my case, but then I am totally puzzled as to which link I should click as it seems now that I don’t need those three previous links (as MSI is already installed on Windows XP), but there is no fourth link provided for those who use “Windows XP” or older machines. Of course, there are these words after that: “Windows users may also be interested in Mark Hammond's win32all package, available from Sourceforge.” but it seems to me that it is something additional rather than the main file. So, my question is simple: Where in the official Python website I can download Python 2.5.4, precisely, which link I should click?

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  • Linq guru - filtering related entities...

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Carousel not working in IE7/8

    - by user515990
    I am working with jquery.carouFredSel-4.0.3-packed.js for the carousal and it works good with IE9 and mozilla,but in IE7/8, it says "LOG: carouFredSel: Not enough items: not scrolling " whenever i am seeing it is not the case. The code i am using is <div class="carousel-wrapper"> <div class="mask"> <a class="arrow left off"><-</a> <a class="arrow left on" href="javascript:void(0);"><-</a> <ul> <dsp:droplet name="ForEach"> <dsp:param name="array" value="${listRecommended}"/> <dsp:oparam name="empty">no recommended apps</dsp:oparam> <dsp:oparam name="output"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0);"><img src="${resourcePath}/images/apps/carousel-image1.jpg" alt="bakery story"/></a> <a href="javascript:void(0);"><dsp:valueof param="element.displayName"/></a><br/> <dsp:getvalueof var="averageRating" param="element.averageRating"/> <dsp:getvalueof var="rating" param="count"/> <div class="rating"> <div class="medium"> <dsp:droplet name="For"> <dsp:param name="howMany" value="${averageRating}"/> <dsp:oparam name="output"> <input checked="checked" class="star {split:1}" disabled="disabled" name="product-similar-'${rating}'" type="radio"> </dsp:oparam> </dsp:droplet> </div> </div> </li> </dsp:oparam> </dsp:droplet> </ul> </div> <a class="arrow right off">-></a> <a class="arrow right on" href="javascript:void(0);">-></a> </div> and javascript library is jquery.carouFredSel-4.0.3-packed.js. Please let me know if someone has faced similar problem. thanks in advance Hemish

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  • jQuery CSS plugin that returns computed style of element to pseudo clone that element?

    - by Keith Bentrup
    I'm looking for a way using jQuery to return an object of computed styles for the 1st matched element. I could then pass this object to another call of jQuery's css method. For example, with width, I can do the following to make the 2 divs have the same width: $('#div2').width($('#div1').width()); It would be nice if I could make a text input look like an existing span: $('#input1').css($('#span1').css()); where .css() with no argument returns an object that can be passed to .css(obj). (I can't find a jQuery plugin for this, but it seems like it should exist. If it doesn't exist, I'll turn mine below into a plugin and post it with all the properties that I use.) Basically, I want to pseudo clone certain elements but use a different tag. For example, I have an li element that I want to hide and put an input element over it that looks the same. When the user types, it looks like they are editing the element inline. I'm also open to other approaches for this pseudo cloning problem for editing. Any suggestions? Here's what I currently have. The only problem is just getting all the possible styles. This could be a ridiculously long list. jQuery.fn.css2 = jQuery.fn.css; jQuery.fn.css = function() { if (arguments.length) return jQuery.fn.css2.apply(this, arguments); var attr = ['font-family','font-size','font-weight','font-style','color', 'text-transform','text-decoration','letter-spacing','word-spacing', 'line-height','text-align','vertical-align','direction','background-color', 'background-image','background-repeat','background-position', 'background-attachment','opacity','width','height','top','right','bottom', 'left','margin-top','margin-right','margin-bottom','margin-left', 'padding-top','padding-right','padding-bottom','padding-left', 'border-top-width','border-right-width','border-bottom-width', 'border-left-width','border-top-color','border-right-color', 'border-bottom-color','border-left-color','border-top-style', 'border-right-style','border-bottom-style','border-left-style','position', 'display','visibility','z-index','overflow-x','overflow-y','white-space', 'clip','float','clear','cursor','list-style-image','list-style-position', 'list-style-type','marker-offset']; var len = attr.length, obj = {}; for (var i = 0; i < len; i++) obj[attr[i]] = jQuery.fn.css2.call(this, attr[i]); return obj; } Edit: I've now been using the code above for awhile. It works well and behaves exactly like the original css method with one exception: if 0 args are passed, it returns the computed style object. As you can see, it immediately calls the original css method if that's the case that applies. Otherwise, it gets the computed styles of all the listed properties (gathered from Firebug's computed style list). Although it's getting a long list of values, it's quite fast. Hope it's useful to others.

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  • Utility that helps in file locking - expert tips wanted

    - by maix
    I've written a subclass of file that a) provides methods to conveniently lock it (using fcntl, so it only supports unix, which is however OK for me atm) and b) when reading or writing asserts that the file is appropriately locked. Now I'm not an expert at such stuff (I've just read one paper [de] about it) and would appreciate some feedback: Is it secure, are there race conditions, are there other things that could be done better … Here is the code: from fcntl import flock, LOCK_EX, LOCK_SH, LOCK_UN, LOCK_NB class LockedFile(file): """ A wrapper around `file` providing locking. Requires a shared lock to read and a exclusive lock to write. Main differences: * Additional methods: lock_ex, lock_sh, unlock * Refuse to read when not locked, refuse to write when not locked exclusivly. * mode cannot be `w` since then the file would be truncated before it could be locked. You have to lock the file yourself, it won't be done for you implicitly. Only you know what lock you need. Example usage:: def get_config(): f = LockedFile(CONFIG_FILENAME, 'r') f.lock_sh() config = parse_ini(f.read()) f.close() def set_config(key, value): f = LockedFile(CONFIG_FILENAME, 'r+') f.lock_ex() config = parse_ini(f.read()) config[key] = value f.truncate() f.write(make_ini(config)) f.close() """ def __init__(self, name, mode='r', *args, **kwargs): if 'w' in mode: raise ValueError('Cannot open file in `w` mode') super(LockedFile, self).__init__(name, mode, *args, **kwargs) self.locked = None def lock_sh(self, **kwargs): """ Acquire a shared lock on the file. If the file is already locked exclusively, do nothing. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). :param nonblocking: Don't wait for the lock to be available. """ if self.locked == 'ex': return # would implicitly remove the exclusive lock return self._lock(LOCK_SH, **kwargs) def lock_ex(self, **kwargs): """ Acquire an exclusive lock on the file. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). :param nonblocking: Don't wait for the lock to be available. """ return self._lock(LOCK_EX, **kwargs) def unlock(self): """ Release all locks on the file. Flushes if there was an exclusive lock. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). """ if self.locked == 'ex': self.flush() return self._lock(LOCK_UN) def _lock(self, mode, nonblocking=False): flock(self, mode | bool(nonblocking) * LOCK_NB) before = self.locked self.locked = {LOCK_SH: 'sh', LOCK_EX: 'ex', LOCK_UN: None}[mode] return before def _assert_read_lock(self): assert self.locked, "File is not locked" def _assert_write_lock(self): assert self.locked == 'ex', "File is not locked exclusively" def read(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).read(*args) def readline(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).readline(*args) def readlines(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).readlines(*args) def xreadlines(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).xreadlines(*args) def __iter__(self): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).__iter__() def next(self): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).next() def write(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).write(*args) def writelines(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).writelines(*args) def flush(self): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).flush() def truncate(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).truncate(*args) def close(self): self.unlock() return super(LockedFile, self).close() (the example in the docstring is also my current use case for this) Thanks for having read until down here, and possibly even answering :)

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  • Fluent NHibernate Self Referencing Many To Many

    - by Jeremy
    I have an entity called Books that can have a list of more books called RelatedBooks. The abbreviated Book entity looks something likes this: public class Book { public virtual long Id { get; private set; } public virtual IList<Book> RelatedBooks { get; set; } } Here is what the mapping looks like for this relationship HasManyToMany(x => x.RelatedBooks) .ParentKeyColumn("BookId") .ChildKeyColumn("RelatedBookId") .Table("RelatedBooks") .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); Here is a sample of the data that is then generated in the RelatedBooks table: BookId RelatedBookId 1 2 1 3 The problem happens when I Try to delete a book. If I delete the book that has an ID of 1, everything works ok and the RelatedBooks table has the two corresponding records removed. However if I try to delete the book with an ID of 3, I get the error "The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK5B54405174BAB605". The conflict occurred in database "Test", table "dbo.RelatedBooks", column 'RelatedBookId'". Basically what is happening is the Book cannot be deleted because the record in the RelatedBooks table that has a RelatedBookId of 3 is never deleted. How do I get that record to be deleted when I delete a book? EDIT After changing the Cascade from SaveUpdate() to All(), the same problem still exists if I try to delete the Book with an ID of 3. Also with Cascade set to All(), if delete the Book with and ID of 1, then all 3 books (ID's: 1, 2 and 3) are deleted so that won't work either. Looking at the SQL that is executed when the Book.Delete() method is called when I delete the Book with an ID of 3, it looks like the SELECT statement is looking at the wrong column (which I assume means that the SQL DELETE statment would make the same mistake, therefore never removing that record). Here is the SQL for the RelatedBook SELECT relatedboo0_.BookId as BookId3_ , relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId as RelatedB2_3_ , book1_.Id as Id14_0_ FROM RelatedBooks relatedboo0_ left outer join [Book] book1_ on relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId=book1_.Id WHERE relatedboo0_.BookId=3 The WHERE statment should look something like this for thie particular case: WHERE relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId = 3 SOLUTION Here is what I had to do to get it working for all cases Mapping: HasManyToMany(x => x.RelatedBooks) .ParentKeyColumn("BookId") .ChildKeyColumn("RelatedBookId") .Table("RelatedBooks"); Code: var book = currentSession.Get<Book>(bookId); if (book != null) { //Remove all of the Related Books book.RelatedBooks.Clear(); //Get all other books that have this book as a related book var booksWithRelated = currentSession.CreateCriteria<Book>() .CreateAlias("RelatedBooks", "br") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("br.Id", book.Id)) .List<Book>(); //Remove this book as a Related Book for all other Books foreach (var tempBook in booksWithRelated) { tempBook.RelatedBooks.Remove(book); tempBook.Save(); } //Delete the book book.Delete(); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 Unused Model Property being called when posting a product to the server?

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    i have my auto-generated linq to sql classes, and i extend this class using partial classing (instead of using inheritance), and i have properties that that i've put in later which are not part of the database model and should not be. these are things like "FinalPrice" and "DisplayFinalPrice" - in the dbase, there is only RetailPrice and WholesalePrice so FinalPrice etc are more like extensions of the dbase fields. when i submit the form with nothing filled in, "FinalPrice" gets called (the 'get' of the property) even tho i never ask for it to be, and even tho it is not needed. this happens before validation, so i don't even get the validation errors i would get. i've tried using and on the FinalPrice and FinalPriceDisplay properties - no go! why does this happen and how can i stop it from happening? is the modelstate just trying to validate everything so therefore it calls every item no matter what? for those interested, here is all the code... Partial Public Class tProduct 'Inherits tProduct Private Const CommissionMultiplier As Decimal = CDec(1.18) Private _FinalPrice As Decimal? Private _DisplayFinalPrice As String Private _DisplayNormalPrice As String Public Property CategoryComplete As Short <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property FinalPrice As Decimal Get 'If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing OrElse WholesalePrice IsNot Nothing Then If _FinalPrice Is Nothing Then If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing Then _FinalPrice = RetailPrice Else _FinalPrice = WholesalePrice * CommissionMultiplier ' TODO: this should be rounded to the nearest 5th cent so prices don't look weird. End If Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value) Dim DecimalPart = _FinalPrice.Value - NormalPart If DecimalPart = 0 OrElse DecimalPart = 0.5 Then Return _FinalPrice ElseIf DecimalPart > 0 AndAlso DecimalPart < 0.5 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 ' always rounded up to the nearest 50 cents. ElseIf DecimalPart > 0.5 AndAlso DecimalPart < 1 Then ' Only in this case round down if its about to be rounded up to a valeu like 20, 30 or 50 etc as we want most prices to end in 9. If NormalPart.ToString.LastChr.ToInt = 9 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 Else DecimalPart = 1 End If End If _FinalPrice = NormalPart + DecimalPart End If Return _FinalPrice 'End If End Get End Property <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property DisplayFinalPrice As String Get If _DisplayFinalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayFinalPrice = FormatCurrency(FinalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayFinalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DisplayNormalPrice As String Get If _DisplayNormalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayNormalPrice = FormatCurrency(NormalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayNormalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DivID As String Get Return "pdiv" & ProductID End Get End Property End Class more... i get busted here, with a null reference exception telling me it should contain a value... Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value)

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  • Capture Highlighted Text from any window using C#

    - by dineshrekula
    How to read the highlighted/Selected Text from any window using c#. i tried 2 approaches. Send "^c" whenever user selects some thing. But in this case my clipboard is flooded with lots of unnecessary data. Sometime it copied passwords also. so i switched my approach to 2nd method, send message method. see this sample code [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern int GetFocus(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool AttachThreadInput(uint idAttach, uint idAttachTo, bool fAttach); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] static extern uint GetCurrentThreadId(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(int hWnd, int ProcessId); [DllImport("user32.dll") ] static extern int GetForegroundWindow(); [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern int SendMessage(int hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, StringBuilder lParam); // second overload of SendMessage [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, out int wParam, out int lParam); const int WM_SETTEXT = 12; const int WM_GETTEXT = 13; private string PerformCopy() { try { //Wait 5 seconds to give us a chance to give focus to some edit window, //notepad for example System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(500); int foregroundWindowHandle = GetForegroundWindow(); uint remoteThreadId = GetWindowThreadProcessId(foregroundWindowHandle, 0); uint currentThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); //AttachTrheadInput is needed so we can get the handle of a focused window in another app AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, true); //Get the handle of a focused window int focused = GetFocus(); //Now detach since we got the focused handle AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, false); //Get the text from the active window into the stringbuilder SendMessage(focused, WM_GETTEXT, builder.Capacity, builder); return builder.ToString(); } catch (System.Exception oException) { throw oException; } } this code working fine in Notepad. But if i try to capture from another applications like Mozilla firefox, or Visual Studio IDE, it's not returning the text. Can anybody please help me, where i am doing wrong? First of all, i have chosen the right approach?

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  • Piping input to a Java app with Perl

    - by user319479
    I need to write a Perl script that pipes input into a Java program. This is related to this, but that didn't help me. My issue is that the Java app doesn't get the print statements until I close the handle. What I found online was that $| needs to be set to something greater than 0, in which case newline characters will flush the buffer. This still doesn't work. This is the script: #! /usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use File::Basename; $|=1; open(TP, "| java -jar test.jar") or die "fail"; sleep(2); print TP "this is test 1\n"; print TP "this is test 2\n"; print "tests printed, waiting 5s\n"; sleep(5); print "wait over. closing handle...\n"; close TP; print "closed.\n"; print "sleeping for 5s...\n"; sleep(5); print "script finished!\n"; exit And here is a sample Java app: import java.util.Scanner; public class test{ public static void main( String[] args ){ Scanner sc = new Scanner( System.in ); int crashcount = 0; while( true ){ try{ String input = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println( ":: INPUT: " + input ); if( "bananas".equals(input) ){ break; } } catch( Exception e ){ System.out.println( ":: EXCEPTION: " + e.toString() ); crashcount++; if( crashcount == 5 ){ System.out.println( ":: Looks like stdin is broke" ); break; } } } System.out.println( ":: IT'S OVER!" ); return; } } The Java app should respond to receiving the test prints immediately, but it doesn't until the close statement in the Perl script. What am I doing wrong? Note: the fix can only be in the Perl script. The Java app can't be changed. Also, File::Basename is there because I'm using it in the real script.

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  • Advanced Django query with subselects and custom JOINS

    - by Bryan Ward
    I have been investigating this number theoretic function (found in the Height model) and I need to query for things based on the prime factorization of the primary key, or id. I have created a model for Factors of the id which maintains all of the prime factors. class Height(models.Model): b = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) c = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) d = models.FloatField(null=True, blank=True) class Factors(models.Model): height = models.ForeignKey(Height, null=True, blank=True) factor = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) degree = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) prime_id = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) For example, if id=24, then the associated entries in the factors table would be height_id=24,factor=2,degree=3,prime_id=0 height_id=24,factor=3,degree=1,prime_id=1 the prime_id keep track of the relative order of the primes. Now let p < q < r < s all be prime numbers and a,b,c,d be positive integers. Then I want to be able to query for all Heights of the form id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d). Now this is simple in the case that all of p,q,r,s,a,b,c,d are known in that I can just run Height.objects.get(id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d)) But I need to be able to query for something like (2**a)*(3**2)*(r**c)*(s**d) where r,s,a,d are unknown and all Heights of such form will be returned. Furthermore, not all of the rows in Height will have exactly four prime factors, so I need to make sure that I am not matching rows of the form id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d)*(t**e)... From what I can tell, the following MySQL query accomplishes this, but I would like to do it through the Django ORM. I also don't know if this MySQL query is the proper way to go about doing things. SELECT h.*,count(f.height_id) AS factorsCount FROM height AS h LEFT JOIN factors AS f ON ( f.height_id = h.id AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=1 AND factor=2 AND degree=1) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=2 AND factor=3 AND degree=2) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=3 AND factor=5 AND degree=1) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=4 AND factor=7 ANd degree=1) ) GROUP BY h.id HAVING factorsCount=4 ORDER BY h.id; Any ideas or suggestions for things to try?

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  • Default custom ControlTemplate is not applied when using Style

    - by gehho
    Hi all, I have created a default style for a Button including a custom ControlTemplate like so: <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="White"/> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="Black"/> <!-- ...other property setters... --> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Grid x:Name="gridMain"> <!-- some content here --> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> This style is added to my shared ResourceDictionary which is loaded by every control. Now, this style/template is applied to all my buttons, as expected, but it is NOT applied to those buttons which locally use a different style. For example, I want to have a certain margin for my "OK", "Apply" and "Cancel" buttons. Therefore, I defined the following style: <Style x:Key="OKApplyCancelStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="4,8"/> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="8,6"/> <Setter Property="MinWidth" Value="100"/> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="16"/> </Style> ...and applied that style to my buttons using a StaticResource: <Button Content="OK" Style="{StaticResource OKApplyCancelStyle}"/> For me, the expected result would be that the ControlTemplate above would still be applied, using the values for Margin, Padding, MinWidth and FontSize from the "OKApplyCancelStyle". But this is not the case. The default Windows ControlTemplate is used instead, using the values from the style. Is this the typical behavior? Does a local style really override a custom ControlTemplate? If so, how can I achieve my desired behavior? I.e. still use my custom ControlTemplate even when styles are defined locally? Many thanks in advance, gehho.

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  • PHP: POST Request to ASP.NET website results in 500 server error when html tags included

    - by RyanJD
    My situation: I need to send text to an ASP.NET web service using POST. The entire page there is a form: <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Discussion.aspx?classroom=lG39il1cotOAGJwiNvmQlIPfwmjikD%2fAHLhjjGInAZQ%3d&amp;Page=Posts&amp;ID=794239&amp;Sort=&amp;SortOrder=" id="aspnetForm"> So, I figured if I sent a POST request to this form with the correct inputs it would work. And, to an extent, it has. The form inputs are as follows: <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTTARGET" id="__EVENTTARGET" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTARGUMENT" id="__EVENTARGUMENT" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDw..." /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWYQLrt..." /> And a bunch of other inputs. The code I have used is as follows: // grab form info $inputs = extract_form_inputs($discussion['body']); $inputs['__EVENTTARGET'] = 'ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$btnSubmit'; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$tbNickname'] = "Your Instructor"; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$reMessage'] = $message; // submit form $r = request_send($discussion['url'], $inputs); extract_form_inputs does exactly that. $discussion['body'] is the content of the page. $discussion['url'] is the URL of the page. request_send has two arguments: ($url, $post_array). It performs rawurlencode on each element of the array and joins them up as keypairs, in the same way as http_build_query. The request is url encoded properly, sent to the correct page, and works fine until I insert html tags. I have checked - the 'greater than' and 'less than' symbols ('<' and '') are url-encoded properly. However, the server responds with a 500 error. It accepts any other text. Has anyone else come across this sort of problem? Is there some setting on an ASP.NET server that denies html? I can't see this being the case - there is a rich text editor on the website that I am sending requests to. This text editor performs the same request as I am, only I am doing it remotely. The rich text editor sends html to the form - I have checked that, too, using javascript. Note: I do not have the power to modify the ASP.NET server.

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  • Mixing application modules between Silverlight and ASP.NET

    - by jkohlhepp
    Background: I work in a suite of ASP.NET applications that have several different "modules". The applications all share a main menu, so they all link to one-another. The modules are the high-level areas of the application. So, for example, it might be Payments, Orders, Customers, Products, etc. And Payments and Orders are in one app and Products and Customers are in another. Some of these menu links are "deep links", for example it might be a link to a particular page within the Customers module, such as Create New Customer. The issue: We are about to start a project that will add several more modules to this suite, probably as a new .NET application. I'm thinking about doing these new modules in Silverlight (for various reasons that are not material to the question). If I were to do that, I need to make the menu look the same as the menu in ASP.NET, as the users still need to feel like they are inside one "application". My questions: How should I organize the Silverlight project(s) so that I can "deep link" from ASP.NET pages into particular modules in the Silverlight app? What is even the best idea for creating these different Silverlight "modules"? If I had something that would've been a page in ASP.NET (for example - Create Customer), should each one of those be a separate Silverlight app? Or should it be a separate User Control? Or something else? Should I reuse our shared ASP.NET menu, and deep link to different Silverlight "modules" even within the new application? Or should I reimplement the menu in Silverlight for navigation within the app? Are there menu controls for Silverlight that look similar to ASP.NET menus (with flyout submenus in this case)? Could I maybe even share a SiteMap XML file between them? Edit: After looking around a bit more, it seems like PRISM might be the answer for some of my issues. It would allow me to modularize the different chunks of Silverlight that I have. And it would allow me to define a "master page" in Silverlight where I could host the menu. Do I have this right?

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  • Occasional Date or timezone discrepancy in hudson or maven with jodatime

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I hope following explanation will make sense because it's a weird problem we're facing and hard to describe. We have a maven project which gets build in hudson and that contains some unit tests where dates are used and asserted. The hudson server runs on solaris. Now, occasionally (like 30% of the times) the unit tests using dates fail because 3,5 hours are deducted from the specified time in the unit test and hence asserts start failing. The other 70% everything works fine although nothing at all changed in the code and we run the hudson job several times an hour. I add following code to a unittest to check the time: @Test public void testDate() { System.out.println("new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate();"); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate()); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate().getTime()); Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2011); cal.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 5); cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MILLISECOND, 0); System.out.println("cal.getTime();"); System.out.println(cal.getTime()); System.out.println(cal.getTime().getTime()); } So basically it should print the same thing when using jodatime or plain old Calendar. This is the case in 70% of the runs; for the other 30% I get following printouts: Running TestSuite new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate(); Tue Jan 04 21:30:00 MET 2011 1294173000000 cal.getTime(); Wed Jan 05 12:00:00 MET 2011 1294225200000 Local maven tests never appear the pose this problem and we can't figure out what could be the cause of it. Especially, we can't think of a single reason why the tests sometimes pass and sometimes fail without changing any code nor hudson or server setting. Also, we run the maven install with cobertura which means that the unit tests are run twice. It happens also that they pass the first time and fail the second time or the other way around or that they fail both times. Thanks for any help, Stijn

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  • Lucene.NET search index approach

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I am trying to put together a test case for using Lucene.NET on one of our websites. I'd like to do the following: Index in a single unique id. Index across a comma delimitered string of terms or tags. For example. Item 1: Id = 1 Tags = Something,Separated-Term I will then be structuring the search so I can look for documents against tag i.e. tags:something OR tags:separate-term I need to maintain the exact term value in order to search against it. I have something running, and the search query is being parsed as expected, but I am not seeing any results. Here's some code. My parser (_luceneAnalyzer is passed into my indexing service): var parser = new QueryParser(Lucene.Net.Util.Version.LUCENE_CURRENT, "Tags", _luceneAnalyzer); parser.SetDefaultOperator(QueryParser.Operator.AND); return parser; My Lucene.NET document creation: var doc = new Document(); var id = new Field( "Id", NumericUtils.IntToPrefixCoded(indexObject.id), Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.NOT_ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.NO); var tags = new Field( "Tags", string.Join(",", indexObject.Tags.ToArray()), Field.Store.NO, Field.Index.ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.YES); doc.Add(id); doc.Add(tags); return doc; My search: var parser = BuildQueryParser(); var query = parser.Parse(searchQuery); var searcher = Searcher; TopDocs hits = searcher.Search(query, null, max); IList<SearchResult> result = new List<SearchResult>(); float scoreNorm = 1.0f / hits.GetMaxScore(); for (int i = 0; i < hits.scoreDocs.Length; i++) { float score = hits.scoreDocs[i].score * scoreNorm; result.Add(CreateSearchResult(searcher.Doc(hits.scoreDocs[i].doc), score)); } return result; I have two documents in my index, one with the tag "Something" and one with the tags "Something" and "Separated-Term". It's important for the - to remain in the terms as I want an exact match on the full value. When I search with "tags:Something" I do not get any results. Question What Analyzer should I be using to achieve the search index I am after? Are there any pointers for putting together a search such as this? Why is my current search not returning any results? Many thanks

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  • Multiple Mod_ReWrites on one site - Possible? (Wordpress blog in root directory, CodeIgniter project

    - by Sootah
    Currently I am creating a project with CodeIgniter that is contained within a subdirectory of my domain. For this example we'll call it domain.com/test. I also have Wordpress installed on this domain, and all of its files are in the root. For instance, if you navigate to my domain.com then it pulls up the Wordpress blog. I currently have the Wordpress mod_rewrite activated so that it uses friendly-URLs. For those of you that aren't familiar with CodeIgniter, all requests are routed through index.php in the project's root folder. So, in this case, it'd be domain.com/text/index.php. A request to the application would be sent like domain.com/test/index.php/somecontroller/method. What I'd like to do, is for any incoming request that is directed towards the /test/ folder, or some subdirectory therein I'd like it to appropriately rewrite the URL so the index.php isn't included. (As per the example above, it'd end up being domain.com/test/somecontroller/method) For any OTHER request, meaning anything that's not within the /test/ directory, I would like it to route the request to Wordpress. I would imagine it's a simple RewriteCond to make it check to see if the request is for the /test/ directory or a subdirectory therein, but I've no idea how to do it. Perhaps you can't have more than one set of Rewrite Rules per site. I will include the recommended mod_rewrite rules for each application. Wordpress: (Currently used) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> CodeIgniter: (Pulled from their Wiki) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / #Removes access to the system folder by users. #Additionally this will allow you to create a System.php controller, #previously this would not have been possible. #'system' can be replaced if you have renamed your system folder. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #When your application folder isn't in the system folder #This snippet prevents user access to the application folder #Submitted by: Fabdrol #Rename 'application' to your applications folder name. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^application.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #Checks to see if the user is attempting to access a valid file, #such as an image or css document, if this isn't true it sends the #request to index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] </IfModule> <IfModule !mod_rewrite.c> # If we don't have mod_rewrite installed, all 404's # can be sent to index.php, and everything works as normal. # Submitted by: ElliotHaughin ErrorDocument 404 /index.php </IfModule> Any and all help is much appreciated!! Thanks, -Sootah

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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