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  • jQuery CSS plugin that returns computed style of element to pseudo clone that element?

    - by Keith Bentrup
    I'm looking for a way using jQuery to return an object of computed styles for the 1st matched element. I could then pass this object to another call of jQuery's css method. For example, with width, I can do the following to make the 2 divs have the same width: $('#div2').width($('#div1').width()); It would be nice if I could make a text input look like an existing span: $('#input1').css($('#span1').css()); where .css() with no argument returns an object that can be passed to .css(obj). (I can't find a jQuery plugin for this, but it seems like it should exist. If it doesn't exist, I'll turn mine below into a plugin and post it with all the properties that I use.) Basically, I want to pseudo clone certain elements but use a different tag. For example, I have an li element that I want to hide and put an input element over it that looks the same. When the user types, it looks like they are editing the element inline. I'm also open to other approaches for this pseudo cloning problem for editing. Any suggestions? Here's what I currently have. The only problem is just getting all the possible styles. This could be a ridiculously long list. jQuery.fn.css2 = jQuery.fn.css; jQuery.fn.css = function() { if (arguments.length) return jQuery.fn.css2.apply(this, arguments); var attr = ['font-family','font-size','font-weight','font-style','color', 'text-transform','text-decoration','letter-spacing','word-spacing', 'line-height','text-align','vertical-align','direction','background-color', 'background-image','background-repeat','background-position', 'background-attachment','opacity','width','height','top','right','bottom', 'left','margin-top','margin-right','margin-bottom','margin-left', 'padding-top','padding-right','padding-bottom','padding-left', 'border-top-width','border-right-width','border-bottom-width', 'border-left-width','border-top-color','border-right-color', 'border-bottom-color','border-left-color','border-top-style', 'border-right-style','border-bottom-style','border-left-style','position', 'display','visibility','z-index','overflow-x','overflow-y','white-space', 'clip','float','clear','cursor','list-style-image','list-style-position', 'list-style-type','marker-offset']; var len = attr.length, obj = {}; for (var i = 0; i < len; i++) obj[attr[i]] = jQuery.fn.css2.call(this, attr[i]); return obj; } Edit: I've now been using the code above for awhile. It works well and behaves exactly like the original css method with one exception: if 0 args are passed, it returns the computed style object. As you can see, it immediately calls the original css method if that's the case that applies. Otherwise, it gets the computed styles of all the listed properties (gathered from Firebug's computed style list). Although it's getting a long list of values, it's quite fast. Hope it's useful to others.

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  • Utility that helps in file locking - expert tips wanted

    - by maix
    I've written a subclass of file that a) provides methods to conveniently lock it (using fcntl, so it only supports unix, which is however OK for me atm) and b) when reading or writing asserts that the file is appropriately locked. Now I'm not an expert at such stuff (I've just read one paper [de] about it) and would appreciate some feedback: Is it secure, are there race conditions, are there other things that could be done better … Here is the code: from fcntl import flock, LOCK_EX, LOCK_SH, LOCK_UN, LOCK_NB class LockedFile(file): """ A wrapper around `file` providing locking. Requires a shared lock to read and a exclusive lock to write. Main differences: * Additional methods: lock_ex, lock_sh, unlock * Refuse to read when not locked, refuse to write when not locked exclusivly. * mode cannot be `w` since then the file would be truncated before it could be locked. You have to lock the file yourself, it won't be done for you implicitly. Only you know what lock you need. Example usage:: def get_config(): f = LockedFile(CONFIG_FILENAME, 'r') f.lock_sh() config = parse_ini(f.read()) f.close() def set_config(key, value): f = LockedFile(CONFIG_FILENAME, 'r+') f.lock_ex() config = parse_ini(f.read()) config[key] = value f.truncate() f.write(make_ini(config)) f.close() """ def __init__(self, name, mode='r', *args, **kwargs): if 'w' in mode: raise ValueError('Cannot open file in `w` mode') super(LockedFile, self).__init__(name, mode, *args, **kwargs) self.locked = None def lock_sh(self, **kwargs): """ Acquire a shared lock on the file. If the file is already locked exclusively, do nothing. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). :param nonblocking: Don't wait for the lock to be available. """ if self.locked == 'ex': return # would implicitly remove the exclusive lock return self._lock(LOCK_SH, **kwargs) def lock_ex(self, **kwargs): """ Acquire an exclusive lock on the file. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). :param nonblocking: Don't wait for the lock to be available. """ return self._lock(LOCK_EX, **kwargs) def unlock(self): """ Release all locks on the file. Flushes if there was an exclusive lock. :returns: Lock status from before the call (one of 'sh', 'ex', None). """ if self.locked == 'ex': self.flush() return self._lock(LOCK_UN) def _lock(self, mode, nonblocking=False): flock(self, mode | bool(nonblocking) * LOCK_NB) before = self.locked self.locked = {LOCK_SH: 'sh', LOCK_EX: 'ex', LOCK_UN: None}[mode] return before def _assert_read_lock(self): assert self.locked, "File is not locked" def _assert_write_lock(self): assert self.locked == 'ex', "File is not locked exclusively" def read(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).read(*args) def readline(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).readline(*args) def readlines(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).readlines(*args) def xreadlines(self, *args): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).xreadlines(*args) def __iter__(self): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).__iter__() def next(self): self._assert_read_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).next() def write(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).write(*args) def writelines(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).writelines(*args) def flush(self): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).flush() def truncate(self, *args): self._assert_write_lock() return super(LockedFile, self).truncate(*args) def close(self): self.unlock() return super(LockedFile, self).close() (the example in the docstring is also my current use case for this) Thanks for having read until down here, and possibly even answering :)

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  • IE won't load PDF in a window created with window.open

    - by Dean
    Here's the problem, which only occurs in Internet Explorer (IE). I have a page that has links to several different types of files. Links from these files execute a Javascript function that opens a new window and loads the specific file. This works great, unless the file I need to open in the new window is a PDF in which case the window is blank, even though the URL is in the address field. Refreshing that window using F5 doesn't help. However, if I put the cursor in the address field and press <enter> the PDF loads right up. This problem only occurs in IE. I have seen it in IE 7 and 8 and am using Adobe Acrobat Reader 9. In Firefox (PC and Mac) everything works perfectly. In Chrome (Mac), the PDF is downloaded. In Safari (Mac) it works. In Opera (Mac) it prompts me to open or save. Basically, everything probably works fine, except for IE. I have searched for similar problems and have seen some posts where it was suggested to adjust some of the Internet Options on IE. I have tried this but it doesn't help, and the problem wasn't exactly the same anyway. Here's the Javascript function I use to open the new window. function newwin(url,w,h) { win = window.open(url,"temp","width="+w+",height="+h+",menubar=yes,toolbar=yes,location=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=auto,resizable=yes"); win.focus(); } You can see that I pass in the URL as well as the height, h, and width, w, of the window. I've used a function like this for years and as far as I know have never had a problem. I call the newwin() function using this. <a href="javascript:newwin('/path/document.pdf',400,300)">document.pdf</a> (Yes, I know there are other, better ways than using inline JS, and I've even tried some of them because I've run out of things to try, but nothing works.) So, if anyone has an idea as to what might be causing this problem, I'd love to hear it.

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  • How to show server errors in Rails 2.3.5 with JSON and jQuery

    - by Fortuity
    I've got in-place editing on a page in my app (using Rails 2.3.5 and jQuery). I want to know how to display an error on the page when the update fails. I'm using ajax (an XMLHttpRequest) to save an update to a Comment object. The controller has an update method like this: def update @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| # if @comment.update_attributes!(params[:comment]) if false #deliberately forcing a fail here to see what happens format.json { render :nothing => true } else format.json { render :json => @comment.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end In Firebug, I can see the server returns a "422" (an appropriate validation error status code). But it's a response to an XMLHttpRequest so there is no redirect to an error page. I think I actually want to do this: format.json { render :json => @comment.errors} or maybe this: format.json {render :json => { :status => :error, :message => "Could not be saved" }.to_json, :status => 400 } and trigger some Javascript function that iterates through (and displays) any errors. I'm using a rails plugin http://github.com/janv/rest_in_place/ to implement the in-place editing. It doesn't appear to have any callback function to handle a failure. What are my options? Can I write some Javascript to respond to a failure condition without hacking the plugin? Do I have to hack the rest_in_place plugin to handle a failure condition? Is there a better plugin (for Rails or jQuery) that handles in-place editing, including failure conditions? UPDATE This post from Peter Bui (http://paydrotalks.com/posts/45-standard-json-response-for-rails-and-jquery) was helpful in showing how to handle an error message from the server using XMLHttpRequest.status. I looked at his implementation of a blog using ajax (http://github.com/paydro/talks). I'm surprised at the complexity required to handle a simple error condition. Usually Rails has all the goodness baked in but it seems server errors with JSON are out of scope. Can that be? I also looked at grimen's validatious-on-rails (http://github.com/grimen/validatious-on-rails/) which accommodates models validations when ajax XMLHttpRequest is used. It's not clear to me how I'd use it to handle the general case of a "save" failing when validations succeed. P.S. Please vote me up... so I can use more than one HTML link when I ask my question :-)

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  • Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • Calculate year for end date: PostgreSQL

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background Users can pick dates as shown in the following screen shot: Any starting month/day and ending month/day combinations are valid, such as: Mar 22 to Jun 22 Dec 1 to Feb 28 The second combination is difficult (I call it the "tricky date scenario") because the year for the ending month/day is before the year for the starting month/day. That is to say, for the year 1900 (also shown selected in the screen shot above), the full dates would be: Dec 22, 1900 to Feb 28, 1901 Dec 22, 1901 to Feb 28, 1902 ... Dec 22, 2007 to Feb 28, 2008 Dec 22, 2008 to Feb 28, 2009 Problem Writing a SQL statement that selects values from a table with dates that fall between the start month/day and end month/day, regardless of how the start and end days are selected. In other words, this is a year wrapping problem. Inputs The query receives as parameters: Year1, Year2: The full range of years, independent of month/day combination. Month1, Day1: The starting day within the year to gather data. Month2, Day2: The ending day within the year (or the next year) to gather data. Previous Attempt Consider the following MySQL code (that worked): end_year = start_year + greatest( -1 * sign( datediff( date( concat_ws('-', year, end_month, end_day ) ), date( concat_ws('-', year, start_month, start_day ) ) ) ), 0 ) How it works, with respect to the tricky date scenario: Create two dates in the current year. The first date is Dec 22, 1900 and the second date is Feb 28, 1900. Count the difference, in days, between the two dates. If the result is negative, it means the year for the second date must be incremented by 1. In this case: Add 1 to the current year. Create a new end date: Feb 28, 1901. Check to see if the date range for the data falls between the start and calculated end date. If the result is positive, the dates have been provided in chronological order and nothing special needs to be done. This worked in MySQL because the difference in dates would be positive or negative. In PostgreSQL, the equivalent functionality always returns a positive number, regardless of their relative chronological order. Question How should the following (broken) code be rewritten for PostgreSQL to take into consideration the relative chronological order of the starting and ending month/day pairs (with respect to an annual temporal displacement)? SELECT m.amount FROM measurement m WHERE (extract(MONTH FROM m.taken) >= month1 AND extract(DAY FROM m.taken) >= day1) AND (extract(MONTH FROM m.taken) <= month2 AND extract(DAY FROM m.taken) <= day2) Any thoughts, comments, or questions? (The dates are pre-parsed into MM/DD format in PHP. My preference is for a pure PostgreSQL solution, but I am open to suggestions on what might make the problem simpler using PHP.) Versions PostgreSQL 8.4.4 and PHP 5.2.10

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  • bluetooth file send.

    - by cheesebunz
    i'm new to bluetooth development and i found the 32netfeet . Right now i'm able to search for bluetooth devices nearby and connect to them but how do i send a file e.g SendTest.txt? I tried buttonclick event using the OBEX but i don't understand this is my example code: using InTheHand.Net; using InTheHand.Net.Sockets; using InTheHand.Net.Bluetooth; namespace BluetoothIntheHand { public partial class Form2 : Form { private Guid service = BluetoothService.DialupNetworking; private BluetoothClient bluetoothClient; public Form2() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio.Mode = RadioMode.Discoverable; BluetoothRadio myRadio = BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio; lblSearch.Text = "" + myRadio.LocalAddress.ToString(); bluetoothClient = new BluetoothClient(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor; BluetoothDeviceInfo[] bluetoothDeviceInfo = { }; bluetoothDeviceInfo = bluetoothClient.DiscoverDevices(10); comboBox1.DataSource = bluetoothDeviceInfo; comboBox1.DisplayMember = "DeviceName"; comboBox1.ValueMember = "DeviceAddress"; comboBox1.Focus(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default; } private void btnConnect_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (comboBox1.SelectedValue != null) { try { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); MessageBox.Show("Connected"); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } } private void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); String addr = "112233445566"; Uri uri = new Uri("obex://"+@"SendTest.txt"); ObexWebRequest req= new ObexWebRequest(uri); ObexWebResponse rsp; } I found the guide but don't really know how to convert to C# ' The host part of the URI is the device address, e.g. IrDAAddress.ToString(), ' and the file part is the OBEX object name. Dim addr As String = "112233445566" Dim uri As New Uri("obex://" & addr & "/HelloWorld2.txt") Dim req As New ObexWebRequest(uri) Using content As Stream = req.GetRequestStream() ' Using a StreamWriter to write text to the stream... Using wtr As New StreamWriter(content) wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream") wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream 2") wtr.Flush() ' Set the Length header value req.ContentLength = content.Length End Using ' In this case closing the StreamWriter also closed the Stream, but ... End Using Dim rsp As ObexWebResponse = CType(req.GetResponse(),ObexWebResponse) Console.WriteLine("Response Code: {0} (0x{0:X})", rsp.StatusCode)

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  • Mixing application modules between Silverlight and ASP.NET

    - by jkohlhepp
    Background: I work in a suite of ASP.NET applications that have several different "modules". The applications all share a main menu, so they all link to one-another. The modules are the high-level areas of the application. So, for example, it might be Payments, Orders, Customers, Products, etc. And Payments and Orders are in one app and Products and Customers are in another. Some of these menu links are "deep links", for example it might be a link to a particular page within the Customers module, such as Create New Customer. The issue: We are about to start a project that will add several more modules to this suite, probably as a new .NET application. I'm thinking about doing these new modules in Silverlight (for various reasons that are not material to the question). If I were to do that, I need to make the menu look the same as the menu in ASP.NET, as the users still need to feel like they are inside one "application". My questions: How should I organize the Silverlight project(s) so that I can "deep link" from ASP.NET pages into particular modules in the Silverlight app? What is even the best idea for creating these different Silverlight "modules"? If I had something that would've been a page in ASP.NET (for example - Create Customer), should each one of those be a separate Silverlight app? Or should it be a separate User Control? Or something else? Should I reuse our shared ASP.NET menu, and deep link to different Silverlight "modules" even within the new application? Or should I reimplement the menu in Silverlight for navigation within the app? Are there menu controls for Silverlight that look similar to ASP.NET menus (with flyout submenus in this case)? Could I maybe even share a SiteMap XML file between them? Edit: After looking around a bit more, it seems like PRISM might be the answer for some of my issues. It would allow me to modularize the different chunks of Silverlight that I have. And it would allow me to define a "master page" in Silverlight where I could host the menu. Do I have this right?

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  • Is this asking too much of a browser?

    - by Matt Ball
    I'm embedding a large array in <script> tags in my HTML, like this (nothing surprising): <script> var largeArray = [/* lots of stuff in here */]; </script> In this particular example, the array has 210,000 elements. That's well below the theoretical maximum of 231 - by 4 orders of magnitude. Here's the fun part: if I save JS source for the array to a file, that file is 44 megabytes (46,573,399 bytes, to be exact). If you want to see for yourself, you can download it from my Dropbox. (All the data in there is canned, so much of it is repeated. This will not be the case in production.) Now, I'm really not concerned about serving that much data. My server gzips its responses, so it really doesn't take all that long to get the data over the wire. However, there is a really nasty tendency for the page, once loaded, to crash the browser. I'm not testing at all in IE (this is an internal tool). My primary targets are Chrome 8 and Firefox 3.6. In Firefox, I can see a reasonably useful error in the console: Error: script stack space quota is exhausted In Chrome, I simply get the sad-tab page: Cut to the chase, already Is this really too much data for our modern, "high-performance" browsers to handle? Is there anything I can do* to gracefully handle this much data? Incidentally, I was able to get this to work (read: not crash the tab) on-and-off in Chrome. I really thought that Chrome, at least, was made of tougher stuff, but apparently I was wrong... Edit 1 @Crayon: I wasn't looking to justify why I'd like to dump this much data into the browser at once. Short version: either I solve this one (admittedly not-that-easy) problem, or I have to solve a whole slew of other problems. I'm opting for the simpler approach for now. @various: right now, I'm not especially looking for ways to actually reduce the number of elements in the array. I know I could implement Ajax paging or what-have-you, but that introduces its own set of problems for me in other regards. @Phrogz: each element looks something like this: {dateTime:new Date(1296176400000), terminalId:'terminal999', 'General___BuildVersion':'10.05a_V110119_Beta', 'SSM___ExtId':26680, 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___Valid':'false', 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___PngAttempt':0} @Will: but I have a computer with a 4-core processor, 6 gigabytes of RAM, over half a terabyte of disk space ...and I'm not even asking for the browser to do this quickly - I'm just asking for it to work at all! ? *other than the obvious: sending less data to the browser

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  • WPF Choppy Animation

    - by Chris Dunaway
    WPF Windows-XP SP3 I'm having a problem with a simple WPF animation. I use the following Xaml code (in XamlPad and also in a WPF project): <Page xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:sys="clr-namespace:System;assembly=mscorlib" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" > <Border Name="MyBorder" BorderThickness="10" BorderBrush="Blue" CornerRadius="10" Background="DarkRed" > <Rectangle Name="MyRectangle" Margin="10" StrokeDashArray="2.0,1.0" StrokeThickness="10" RadiusX="10" RadiusY="10" Stroke="Black" StrokeDashOffset="0"> <Rectangle.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Rectangle.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="MyRectangle" Storyboard.TargetProperty="StrokeDashOffset" From="0.0" To="3.0" Duration="0:0:1" RepeatBehavior="Forever" Timeline.DesiredFrameRate="30" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger> </Rectangle.Triggers> </Rectangle> </Border> </Page> It has the effect of causing the border to animate around the rectangle. After a fresh reboot of the machine, this animation is nice and smooth. However, I tend to leave my machine on all the time and after a period time elapses (I don't know how long), the animation starts stuttering and becomes choppy. I thought that it may be memory or resource issues, but after shutting down all other apps and any services that seem unnecessary, the stuttering still continues. However, after a system reboot, the animation is smooth again! I get the same symptoms in a WPF app or in XamlPad. In the case of the app, it doesn't seem to make any difference whether I run in the debugger or if I run the executable directly. I applied the patch at this link: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/981741 and I thought that it had taken care of the issue, but it seems not to have. I have seen some posts that might indicate that using transparency might affect animation, but as you can see, my xaml does not use transparency. Can anyone give me some suggestions on how to determine what the problem is? Are there any WPF diagnostic tools that might help? UPDATE: I have checked my video drivers and they are the latest version. (nVidia GeForce 8400 GS)

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  • rails paperclip unable to access image from another view

    - by curiousCoder
    my app has an habtm relation b/w listings and categories. now from the categories index page, a user filters select box to view listings in the show page. now i am not able to access images attached to listings in the category show page. listing.rb attr_accessible :placeholder, :categories_ids has_and_belongs_to_many :categories has_attached_file :placeholder, :styles => { :medium => "300x300>", :thumb => "100x100>" }, :default_url => "/images/:style/missing.png", :url => "/system/:hash.:extension", :hash_secret => "longSecretString" categories controller def index @categories = Category.all end def show @categories = Category.find_by_sql ["select distinct l.* from listings l , categories c, categories_listings cl where c.id = cl.category_id and l.id = cl.listing_id and c.id in (?,?)" , params[:c][:id1] , params[:c][:id2]] end the sql just filters and displays the listings in show page where i can show its attributes, but cant access the placeholder. note the plural @categories in show categories show page <ul> <% @categories.each_with_index do |c, index| %> <% if index == 0 %> <li class="first"><%= c.place %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <li><%= c.price %></li> <% else %> <li><%= c.place %></li> <li><%= c.price %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <% end %> <% end %> </ul> Access image from different view in a view with paperclip gem ruby on rails this said to make the object plural and call a loop, wch shall allow to access the image. it does not work in this case. undefined method `placeholder' for #<Category:0x5c78640> but the amazing thing is, placeholder will be displayed as an array of all images for all the listings if used as suggested in that stackoverflow, wch is, obviously, not the way i prefer. where's the issue? what am i missing?

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  • android - using resources drawable in content provider

    - by Russ Wheeler
    I am trying to pass back an image through a content provider in a separate app. I have two apps, one with the activity in (app a), the other with content provider (app b) I have app a reading an image off my SD card via app b using the following code. App a: public void but_update(View view) { ContentResolver resolver = getContentResolver(); Uri uri = Uri.parse("content://com.jash.cp_source_two.provider/note/1"); InputStream inStream = null; try { inStream = resolver.openInputStream(uri); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inStream); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch(FileNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "error = "+e, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } finally { if (inStream != null) { try { inStream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("test", "could not close stream", e); } } } }; App b: @Override public ParcelFileDescriptor openFile(Uri uri, String mode) throws FileNotFoundException { try { File path = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().getAbsolutePath(),"pic2.png"); return ParcelFileDescriptor.open(path,ParcelFileDescriptor.MODE_READ_ONLY); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.i("r", "File not found"); throw new FileNotFoundException(); } } In app a I am able to display an image from app a's resources folder, using setImageURi and constructing a URI using the following code. int id = R.drawable.a2; Resources resources = getBaseContext().getResources(); Uri uri = Uri.parse(ContentResolver.SCHEME_ANDROID_RESOURCE + "://" + resources.getResourcePackageName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceTypeName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceEntryName(id) ); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageURI(uri); However, if I try to do the same in app b (read from app b's resources folder rather than the image on the SD card) it doesn't work, saying it can't find the file, even though I am creating the path of the file from the resource, so it is definitely there. Any ideas? Does it restrict sending resources over the content provider somehow? P.S. I also got an error when I tried to create the file with File path = new File(uri); saying 'there is no applicable constructor to '(android.net.Uri)' though http://developer.android.com/reference/java/io/File.html#File(java.net.URI) Seems to think it's possible...unless java.net.URI is different to android.net.URI, in which case can I convert them? Thanks Russ

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

    - by Greg Ogle
    We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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  • Lucene.NET search index approach

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I am trying to put together a test case for using Lucene.NET on one of our websites. I'd like to do the following: Index in a single unique id. Index across a comma delimitered string of terms or tags. For example. Item 1: Id = 1 Tags = Something,Separated-Term I will then be structuring the search so I can look for documents against tag i.e. tags:something OR tags:separate-term I need to maintain the exact term value in order to search against it. I have something running, and the search query is being parsed as expected, but I am not seeing any results. Here's some code. My parser (_luceneAnalyzer is passed into my indexing service): var parser = new QueryParser(Lucene.Net.Util.Version.LUCENE_CURRENT, "Tags", _luceneAnalyzer); parser.SetDefaultOperator(QueryParser.Operator.AND); return parser; My Lucene.NET document creation: var doc = new Document(); var id = new Field( "Id", NumericUtils.IntToPrefixCoded(indexObject.id), Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.NOT_ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.NO); var tags = new Field( "Tags", string.Join(",", indexObject.Tags.ToArray()), Field.Store.NO, Field.Index.ANALYZED, Field.TermVector.YES); doc.Add(id); doc.Add(tags); return doc; My search: var parser = BuildQueryParser(); var query = parser.Parse(searchQuery); var searcher = Searcher; TopDocs hits = searcher.Search(query, null, max); IList<SearchResult> result = new List<SearchResult>(); float scoreNorm = 1.0f / hits.GetMaxScore(); for (int i = 0; i < hits.scoreDocs.Length; i++) { float score = hits.scoreDocs[i].score * scoreNorm; result.Add(CreateSearchResult(searcher.Doc(hits.scoreDocs[i].doc), score)); } return result; I have two documents in my index, one with the tag "Something" and one with the tags "Something" and "Separated-Term". It's important for the - to remain in the terms as I want an exact match on the full value. When I search with "tags:Something" I do not get any results. Question What Analyzer should I be using to achieve the search index I am after? Are there any pointers for putting together a search such as this? Why is my current search not returning any results? Many thanks

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  • Capture Highlighted Text from any window using C#

    - by dineshrekula
    How to read the highlighted/Selected Text from any window using c#. i tried 2 approaches. Send "^c" whenever user selects some thing. But in this case my clipboard is flooded with lots of unnecessary data. Sometime it copied passwords also. so i switched my approach to 2nd method, send message method. see this sample code [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern int GetFocus(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool AttachThreadInput(uint idAttach, uint idAttachTo, bool fAttach); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] static extern uint GetCurrentThreadId(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(int hWnd, int ProcessId); [DllImport("user32.dll") ] static extern int GetForegroundWindow(); [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern int SendMessage(int hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, StringBuilder lParam); // second overload of SendMessage [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, out int wParam, out int lParam); const int WM_SETTEXT = 12; const int WM_GETTEXT = 13; private string PerformCopy() { try { //Wait 5 seconds to give us a chance to give focus to some edit window, //notepad for example System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(500); int foregroundWindowHandle = GetForegroundWindow(); uint remoteThreadId = GetWindowThreadProcessId(foregroundWindowHandle, 0); uint currentThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); //AttachTrheadInput is needed so we can get the handle of a focused window in another app AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, true); //Get the handle of a focused window int focused = GetFocus(); //Now detach since we got the focused handle AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, false); //Get the text from the active window into the stringbuilder SendMessage(focused, WM_GETTEXT, builder.Capacity, builder); return builder.ToString(); } catch (System.Exception oException) { throw oException; } } this code working fine in Notepad. But if i try to capture from another applications like Mozilla firefox, or Visual Studio IDE, it's not returning the text. Can anybody please help me, where i am doing wrong? First of all, i have chosen the right approach?

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  • Asynchronous subprocess on Windows

    - by Stigma
    First of all, the overall problem I am solving is a bit more complicated than I am showing here, so please do not tell me 'use threads with blocking' as it would not solve my actual situation without a fair, FAIR bit of rewriting and refactoring. I have several applications which are not mine to modify, which take data from stdin and poop it out on stdout after doing their magic. My task is to chain several of these programs. Problem is, sometimes they choke, and as such I need to track their progress which is outputted on STDERR. pA = subprocess.Popen(CommandA, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) # ... some more processes make up the chain, but that is irrelevant to the problem pB = subprocess.Popen(CommandB, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, stdin=pA.stdout ) Now, reading directly through pA.stdout.readline() and pB.stdout.readline(), or the plain read() functions, is a blocking matter. Since different applications output in different paces and different formats, blocking is not an option. (And as I wrote above, threading is not an option unless at a last, last resort.) pA.communicate() is deadlock safe, but since I need the information live, that is not an option either. Thus google brought me to this asynchronous subprocess snippet on ActiveState. All good at first, until I implement it. Comparing the cmd.exe output of pA.exe | pB.exe, ignoring the fact both output to the same window making for a mess, I see very instantaneous updates. However, I implement the same thing using the above snippet and the read_some() function declared there, and it takes over 10 seconds to notify updates of a single pipe. But when it does, it has updates leading all the way upto 40% progress, for example. Thus I do some more research, and see numerous subjects concerning PeekNamedPipe, anonymous handles, and returning 0 bytes available even though there is information available in the pipe. As the subject has proven quite a bit beyond my expertise to fix or code around, I come to Stack Overflow to look for guidance. :) My platform is W7 64-bit with Python 2.6, the applications are 32-bit in case it matters, and compatibility with Unix is not a concern. I can even deal with a full ctypes or pywin32 solution that subverts subprocess entirely if it is the only solution, as long as I can read from every stderr pipe asynchronously with immediate performance and no deadlocks. :)

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  • compile AMR-nb codec with RVCT for WinCE/Window Mobile

    - by pps
    Hello everybody, I'm working on amr speech codec (porting/optimization) I have an arm (for WinCE) optimized version from voiceage and I use it as a reference in performance testing. So far, binary produced with my lib beats the other one by around 20-30%! I use Vs2008 and I have limited access to ARM instruction set I can generate with Microsoft compiler. So I tried to look for alternative compiler to see what would be performance difference. I have RVCT compiler, but it produces elf binaries/object files. However, I run my test on a wince mobile phone (TyTn 2) so I need to find a way to run code compiled with RVCT on WinCE. Some of the options are 1) to produce assembly listing (-S option of armcc), and try to assemble with some other assembler that can create COFF (MS assembler for arm) 2) compile and convert generated ELF object file to COFF object (seems like objcopy of gnu binutils could help me with that) 3) using fromelf utility supplied by RVCT create BIN file and somehow try to mangle the bits so I can execute them ;) My first attempt is to create a simple c++ file with one exported function, compile it with RVCT and then try to run that function on the smartphone. The emitted assembly cannot be assembled by the ms assembler (not only they are not compatible, but also ms assembler rejects some of the instructions generated with RVCT compiler; ASR opcode in my case) Then I tried to convert ELF object to coff format and I can't find any information on that. There is a gcc port for ce and objcopy from that toolset is supposed to be able to do the task. However, I can't get it working. I tried different switches, but I have no idea what exactly I need to specify as bfdname for input and output format. So, I couldn't get it working either. Dumping with fromelf and using generated bin file seems to be overkill, so I decided to ask you guys if there is anything I should try to do or maybe someone has already done similar task and could help me. Basically, all I want to do is to compile my code with RVCT compiler and see what's the performance difference. My code has zero dependencies on any c runtime functions. thanks!

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  • How to use multiple flatpages models in a django app?

    - by the_drow
    I have multiple models that can be converted to flatpages but have to have some extra information (For example I have an about us page but I also have a blog). However I understand that there must be only one flatpages model since the middleware only returns the flatpages instance and does not resolve the child models. What do I have to do? EDIT: It seems I need to change the views. Here's the current code: from django.contrib.flatpages.models import FlatPage from django.template import loader, RequestContext from django.shortcuts import get_object_or_404 from django.http import HttpResponse, HttpResponseRedirect from django.conf import settings from django.core.xheaders import populate_xheaders from django.utils.safestring import mark_safe from django.views.decorators.csrf import csrf_protect DEFAULT_TEMPLATE = 'flatpages/default.html' # This view is called from FlatpageFallbackMiddleware.process_response # when a 404 is raised, which often means CsrfViewMiddleware.process_view # has not been called even if CsrfViewMiddleware is installed. So we need # to use @csrf_protect, in case the template needs {% csrf_token %}. # However, we can't just wrap this view; if no matching flatpage exists, # or a redirect is required for authentication, the 404 needs to be returned # without any CSRF checks. Therefore, we only # CSRF protect the internal implementation. def flatpage(request, url): """ Public interface to the flat page view. Models: `flatpages.flatpages` Templates: Uses the template defined by the ``template_name`` field, or `flatpages/default.html` if template_name is not defined. Context: flatpage `flatpages.flatpages` object """ if not url.endswith('/') and settings.APPEND_SLASH: return HttpResponseRedirect("%s/" % request.path) if not url.startswith('/'): url = "/" + url # Here instead of getting the flat page it needs to find if it has a page with a child model. f = get_object_or_404(FlatPage, url__exact=url, sites__id__exact=settings.SITE_ID) return render_flatpage(request, f) @csrf_protect def render_flatpage(request, f): """ Internal interface to the flat page view. """ # If registration is required for accessing this page, and the user isn't # logged in, redirect to the login page. if f.registration_required and not request.user.is_authenticated(): from django.contrib.auth.views import redirect_to_login return redirect_to_login(request.path) if f.template_name: t = loader.select_template((f.template_name, DEFAULT_TEMPLATE)) else: t = loader.get_template(DEFAULT_TEMPLATE) # To avoid having to always use the "|safe" filter in flatpage templates, # mark the title and content as already safe (since they are raw HTML # content in the first place). f.title = mark_safe(f.title) f.content = mark_safe(f.content) # Here I need to be able to configure what I am passing in the context c = RequestContext(request, { 'flatpage': f, }) response = HttpResponse(t.render(c)) populate_xheaders(request, response, FlatPage, f.id) return response

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 Unused Model Property being called when posting a product to the server?

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    i have my auto-generated linq to sql classes, and i extend this class using partial classing (instead of using inheritance), and i have properties that that i've put in later which are not part of the database model and should not be. these are things like "FinalPrice" and "DisplayFinalPrice" - in the dbase, there is only RetailPrice and WholesalePrice so FinalPrice etc are more like extensions of the dbase fields. when i submit the form with nothing filled in, "FinalPrice" gets called (the 'get' of the property) even tho i never ask for it to be, and even tho it is not needed. this happens before validation, so i don't even get the validation errors i would get. i've tried using and on the FinalPrice and FinalPriceDisplay properties - no go! why does this happen and how can i stop it from happening? is the modelstate just trying to validate everything so therefore it calls every item no matter what? for those interested, here is all the code... Partial Public Class tProduct 'Inherits tProduct Private Const CommissionMultiplier As Decimal = CDec(1.18) Private _FinalPrice As Decimal? Private _DisplayFinalPrice As String Private _DisplayNormalPrice As String Public Property CategoryComplete As Short <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property FinalPrice As Decimal Get 'If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing OrElse WholesalePrice IsNot Nothing Then If _FinalPrice Is Nothing Then If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing Then _FinalPrice = RetailPrice Else _FinalPrice = WholesalePrice * CommissionMultiplier ' TODO: this should be rounded to the nearest 5th cent so prices don't look weird. End If Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value) Dim DecimalPart = _FinalPrice.Value - NormalPart If DecimalPart = 0 OrElse DecimalPart = 0.5 Then Return _FinalPrice ElseIf DecimalPart > 0 AndAlso DecimalPart < 0.5 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 ' always rounded up to the nearest 50 cents. ElseIf DecimalPart > 0.5 AndAlso DecimalPart < 1 Then ' Only in this case round down if its about to be rounded up to a valeu like 20, 30 or 50 etc as we want most prices to end in 9. If NormalPart.ToString.LastChr.ToInt = 9 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 Else DecimalPart = 1 End If End If _FinalPrice = NormalPart + DecimalPart End If Return _FinalPrice 'End If End Get End Property <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property DisplayFinalPrice As String Get If _DisplayFinalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayFinalPrice = FormatCurrency(FinalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayFinalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DisplayNormalPrice As String Get If _DisplayNormalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayNormalPrice = FormatCurrency(NormalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayNormalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DivID As String Get Return "pdiv" & ProductID End Get End Property End Class more... i get busted here, with a null reference exception telling me it should contain a value... Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value)

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  • HTTP request, strange socket behavoir

    - by hoodoos
    I expirience strange behavior when doing HTTP requests through sockets, here the request: POST https://test.com:443/service/XMLSelect HTTP/1.1 Content-Length: 10926 Host: test.com User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 1.0.3705) Authorization: Basic XXX SOAPAction: http://test.com/SubmitXml Later on there goes body of my request with given content length. After that I recive something like: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 Content-Type: text/xml;charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 06:13:52 GMT So everything seem to be fine here. I read all contents from network stream and successfuly recieve response. But my socket which I'm doing polling on switches it's modes like that: write ( i write headers and request here ) read ( after headers sent i begin to recieve response ) write ( STRANGE BEHAVIOUR HERE. WHY? here i send nothing really ) read ( here it switches to read back again ) last two steps can repeat several times. So I want to ask what leads for socket's mode change? And in this case it's not a big problem, but when I use gzip compression in my request ( no idea how it's related ) and ask server to send gzipped response to me like this: POST https://test.com:443/service/XMLSelect HTTP/1.1 Content-Length: 1076 Accept-Encoding: gzip Content-Encoding: gzip Host: test.com User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 1.0.3705) Authorization: Basic XXX SOAPAction: http://test.com/SubmitXml I recieve response like that: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 Content-Encoding: gzip Content-Type: text/xml;charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:26:33 GMT 2000 ? I recieve a chunk size and GZIP header, it's all okay. And here's what is happening with my poor little socket meanwhile: write ( i write headers and request here ) read ( after headers sent i begin to recieve response ) write ( STRANGE BEHAVIOUR HERE. And it finally sits here forever waiting for me to send something! But if i refer to HTTP I don't have to send anything more! ) What can it be related to? What it wants me to send? Is it remote web server's problem or do I miss something? PS All actual service references and login/passwords replaced with fake ones :)

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  • Advanced Django query with subselects and custom JOINS

    - by Bryan Ward
    I have been investigating this number theoretic function (found in the Height model) and I need to query for things based on the prime factorization of the primary key, or id. I have created a model for Factors of the id which maintains all of the prime factors. class Height(models.Model): b = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) c = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) d = models.FloatField(null=True, blank=True) class Factors(models.Model): height = models.ForeignKey(Height, null=True, blank=True) factor = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) degree = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) prime_id = models.IntegerField(null=True, blank=True) For example, if id=24, then the associated entries in the factors table would be height_id=24,factor=2,degree=3,prime_id=0 height_id=24,factor=3,degree=1,prime_id=1 the prime_id keep track of the relative order of the primes. Now let p < q < r < s all be prime numbers and a,b,c,d be positive integers. Then I want to be able to query for all Heights of the form id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d). Now this is simple in the case that all of p,q,r,s,a,b,c,d are known in that I can just run Height.objects.get(id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d)) But I need to be able to query for something like (2**a)*(3**2)*(r**c)*(s**d) where r,s,a,d are unknown and all Heights of such form will be returned. Furthermore, not all of the rows in Height will have exactly four prime factors, so I need to make sure that I am not matching rows of the form id=(p**a)*(q**b)*(r**c)*(s**d)*(t**e)... From what I can tell, the following MySQL query accomplishes this, but I would like to do it through the Django ORM. I also don't know if this MySQL query is the proper way to go about doing things. SELECT h.*,count(f.height_id) AS factorsCount FROM height AS h LEFT JOIN factors AS f ON ( f.height_id = h.id AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=1 AND factor=2 AND degree=1) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=2 AND factor=3 AND degree=2) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=3 AND factor=5 AND degree=1) AND f.height_id IN (SELECT height_id FROM factors where prime_id=4 AND factor=7 ANd degree=1) ) GROUP BY h.id HAVING factorsCount=4 ORDER BY h.id; Any ideas or suggestions for things to try?

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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  • trying to divide complex numbers, division by zero

    - by user553619
    I'm trying the program below to divide complex numbers, it works for complex numbers but not when the denominator is real (i.e, the complex part is zero). Division by zero occurs in this line ratio = b->r / b->i ;, when the complex part b->i is zero (in the case of a real denominator). How do I get around this? and why did the programmer do this, instead of the more straightforward rule for complex division The wikipedia rule seems to be better, and no division by zero error would occur here. Did I miss something? Why did the programmer not use the wikipedia formula?? Thanks /*! @file dcomplex.c * \brief Common arithmetic for complex type * * <pre> * -- SuperLU routine (version 2.0) -- * Univ. of California Berkeley, Xerox Palo Alto Research Center, * and Lawrence Berkeley National Lab. * November 15, 1997 * * This file defines common arithmetic operations for complex type. * </pre> */ #include <math.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include "slu_dcomplex.h" /*! \brief Complex Division c = a/b */ void z_div(doublecomplex *c, doublecomplex *a, doublecomplex *b) { double ratio, den; double abr, abi, cr, ci; if( (abr = b->r) < 0.) abr = - abr; if( (abi = b->i) < 0.) abi = - abi; if( abr <= abi ) { if (abi == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "z_div.c: division by zero\n"); exit(-1); } ratio = b->r / b->i ; den = b->i * (1 + ratio*ratio); cr = (a->r*ratio + a->i) / den; ci = (a->i*ratio - a->r) / den; } else { ratio = b->i / b->r ; den = b->r * (1 + ratio*ratio); cr = (a->r + a->i*ratio) / den; ci = (a->i - a->r*ratio) / den; } c->r = cr; c->i = ci; }

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  • JavaCC: Please help me understand token ambiguity.

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? What I would need is telling JavaCC to recognize "everything until ?>" as processing instruction data. How can it be done? Thank you.

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