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  • Unknown Argument Error "-p" when deploying to heroku.

    - by user3312278
    We are deploying a rails app to Heroku. The app should be making a youtube api call, using the Trollop Gem as a command line parser. We keep getting this error back. 2014-07-30T23:17:57.526014+00:00 app[web.1]: Error: unknown argument '-p'. 2014-07-30T23:17:57.526020+00:00 app[web.1]: Try --help for help. 2014-07-30T23:17:57.526541+00:00 app[web.1]: Completed 500 Internal Server Error in 7466ms This is what our Trollop code looks like. def self.youtube_search(query) p ENV["YOUTUBE_DEVELOPER_KEY"] p query p "point of no return" p "*"*25 youtube_service_api_name = "youtube" youtube_api_version = "v3" # opts = HTTParty.get("https://www.youtube.com/results?search_query=russia") opts = Trollop::options do opt :q, 'Search term', :source => String, :default => query opt :maxResults, 'Max results', :source => :int, :default => 25 end What's much stranger is that it was working an hour ago and now it's not. Does anyone have any ideas? This doesn't seem to be documented anywhere.

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  • What's the state of PHP unit testing frameworks in 2010?

    - by Pekka
    As far as I can see, PHPUnit is the only serious product in the field at the moment. It is widely used, is integrated into Continuous Integration suites like phpUnderControl, and well regarded. The thing is, I don't really like working with PHPUnit. I find it hard to set up (PEAR is the only officially supported installation method, and I hate PEAR), sometimes complicated to work with and, correct me if I'm wrong, lacking executability from a web page context (i.e. no CLI, which would really be nice when developing a web app.) The only competition to I can see is Simpletest, which looks very nice but hasn't seen a new release for almost two years, which tends to rule it out for me - Unit Testing is quite a static field, true, but as I will be deploying those tests alongside web applications, I would like to see active development on the project, at least for security updates and such. There is a SO question that pretty much confirms what I'm saying: Simple test vs PHPunit Seeing that that is almost two years old as well, though, I think it's time to ask again: Does anybody know any other serious feature-complete unit testing frameworks? Am I wrong in my criticism of PHPUnit? Is there still development going on for SimpleTest?

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  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

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  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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  • Git rebase and semi-tracked per-developer config files.

    - by dougkiwi
    This is my first SO question and I'm new-ish to Git as well. Background: I am supposed to be the version control guru for Git in my group of about 8 developers. As I don't have a lot of Git experience, this is exciting. I decided we need a shared repository that would be the authoritative master for the production code and the main meeting-point for the development code. As we work for a corporation, we really do need to show an authoritive source for the production code at least. I have instructed the developers to pull-rebase when pulling from the shared repository, then push the commits that they want to share. We have been running into problems with a particular type of file. One of these files, which I currently assume is typical of the problem, is called web.config. We want a version-controlled master web.config for devs to clone, but each dev may make minor edits to this file that they wish to locally save but not share. The problem is this: how do I tell git not to consider local changes or commits to this file to be relevent for rebasing and pushing? Gitignore does not seem to solve the problem, but maybe that's because I put web.config into .gitignore too late? In some simple situations we have stacked local changes, rebased, pushed, and popped the stack, but that doesn't seem to work all of the time. I haven't picked up the pattern quite yet. The published documentation on pull --rebase tends to deal with simplier situations. Or do I have the wrong idea entirely? Are we misusing Git? Dougkiwi

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  • Deal with update location for click-once.

    - by Assimilater
    I'm not sure how many people here are experts with visual studios, but I'd imagine a handful (not to raise expectations but to appeal to your egos :P). I'm working primarily in visual basic for now (though I hope to switch to c# in the near future and maybe a java or web app). Basically I'm trying to create an update feature that will work similarly to how common programs such as firefox or itunes update automatically. There is supposed to be provided functionality for this in what is called click once. I carry out the following procedures and get the following errors when trying to change the update url of my program to a password-protected ftp location. Go to project properties Go to publish click updates click browse click FTP Site Under Server put: web###.opentransfer.com Under Port: 21 Under Directory put: CMSOFT Passive mode is selected (which is what filezilla tells me the server is accessed with) Anonymous User is unselected and a username and password are typed in Push Ok Under Update location it shows: ftp://web###.opentransfer.com/CMSOFT I push Ok I see a message box titled Microsoft Visual Basic 2010 Express with an x icon Publish.UpdateUrl: The string must be a fully qualified URL or UNC path, for example "http://www.microsoft.com/myapplication" or "\server\myapplication". I've tried changing the directory to "CMSOFT/PQCM.exe" and the results are the same...hope this was descriptive enough.

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  • Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

    - by NickGPS
    I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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  • Ninject: How do I inject into a class library ?

    - by DennyDotNet
    To start I'm using Ninject 1.5. I have two projects: Web project and a Class library. My DI configuration is within the Web project. Within my class library I have the following defined: public interface ICacheService<T> { string Identifier { get; } T Get(); void Set( T objectToCache, TimeSpan timeSpan ); bool Exists(); } And then a concrete class called CategoryCacheService. In my web project I bind the two: Bind( typeof( ICacheService<List<Category>> ) ).To( typeof(CategoryCacheService)).Using<SingletonBehavior>(); In my class library I have extension methods for the HtmlHelper class, for example: public static class Category { [Inject] public static ICacheService Categories { get; set; } public static string RenderCategories(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper) { var c = Categories.Get(); return string.Join(", ", c.Select(s = s.Name).ToArray()); } } I've been told that you cannot inject into static properties, instead I should use Kernel.Get<() - However... Since the code above is in a class library I don't have access to the Kernel. How can I get the Kernel from this point or is there a better way of doing this? Thanks!

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  • Enterprise Platform in Python, Design Advice

    - by Jason Miesionczek
    I am starting the design of a somewhat large enterprise platform in Python, and was wondering if you guys can give me some advice as to how to organize the various components and which packages would help achieve the goals of scalability, maintainability, and reliability. The system is basically a service that collects data from various outside sources, with each outside source having its own separate application. These applications would poll a central database and get any requests that have been submitted to perform on the external source. There will be a main website and REST/SOAP API that should also have access to the central data service. My initial thought was to use Django for the web site, web service and data access layer (using its built-in ORM), and then the outside source applications can use the web service(s) to get the information they need to process the request and save the results. Using this method would allow me to have multiple instances of the service applications running on the same or different machines to balance out the load. Are there more elegant means of accomplishing this? i've heard of messaging systems such as MQ, would something like that be beneficial in this scenario? My other thought was to use a completely separate data service not based on Django, and use some kind of remoting or remote objects (in they exist in Python) to interact with the data model. The downside here would be with the website which would become much slower if it had to push all of its data requests through a second layer. I would love to hear what other developers have come up with to achieve these goals in the most flexible way possible.

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  • why i cant read my webservice with jquery???

    - by rima
    what's my function problem?I wana read from my webservice but I just receive error :( the browser message is: "undefined- status:error" when I press button just I see the error function of my Jqueary calling but I dont know why??plz help me. function SetupCompanyInfo(companyID) { //alert('aaa'); companyID = '1'; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '../../../Services/CompanyServices.asmx/GetCompanyInfo', data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: OnSuccess, error: OnError }); } function OnSuccess(data, status) { SetMainBody(data); } function OnError(request, status, error) { SetMainBody(error + '- ' + request + ' status:' + status); } my webservice: using System; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Script.Services; /// <summary> /// Summary description for CompanyServices /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [ScriptService] //[System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] public class CompanyServices : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string GetCompanyInfo() { string response = "aaa"; Console.WriteLine("here"); return response.ToString(); } [WebMethod] public string GetCompanyInfo(string id) { string response = "aaa"; Console.WriteLine("here2"+id); return response.ToString(); } } my aspx file,part of head and my button code: <script src="../../Scripts/InnerFunctions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/TabMenu.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/InternalFunctions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div dir="rtl" style="border: 1px solid #CCCCCC"> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl="../../generalImg/Icons/64X64/settings_Icon_64.gif" style="width: 27px; height: 26px" onclick="SetupCompanyInfo(1)" /></div>

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  • Why is Log4Net not creating log file in production?

    - by uriDium
    I am using VS2005, a website project, a web deployment project and Log4Net. I can use logging when I am developing locally. I can see the log files and everything is fine. When I build my website, (using the web deployment project), I use the deploy as a single DLL option. When I then check the locations of where my log files should be I cannot see any files. Is there a way to troubleshoot this. I don't think adding the debug value to the App Settings will help because I don't have a console because it is a website. EDIT I don't want the 150 rep to go to waste so one last time. I compared the internal trace from my dev environment to the trace from the production. My dev environment trace shows the call the Xml Configurator where the production one does not. I have code in the global.asax on application_start() method. I put debug code in there and it is getting called in dev but not in production. I think this is where the web deployment project is causing some issues. Does the global.asax get compiled into the single DLL? When I do a build in the deployment directory I see a global.compiled file. Must this go into the bin folder in production? Or is the global.asax code in the single DLL? Having both in the bin folder or the just the DLL didn't change anything.

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  • Am I a dinosaur programmer?

    - by dlb
    I have been a professional programmer for more than 30 years, and have chosen a career path involving hands-on programming. Programming is something that I love, and I take great pride in the fact that I have continued to keep up to date with current technology. Projects on which I have worked include large enterprise projects as well as smaller desktop programs. The problem I am facing is that I do not have any web-based experience other than some web services. Most of the jobs now available have some web component. I have now been out of work for a year and a half, and have been keeping busy by studying technology that will bridge that gap: CSS, Java Script, JQuery, and Ruby on Rails; AJAX is next. Hiring managers give no consideration whatsoever to the studying that I have been doing. I know that I cannot compete at a senior software level, but companies will not hire someone with my experience at a more junior level. Is there any way to break out of this Catch 22?

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  • Computer Science taxonomy

    - by Bakhtiyor
    I am developing web application where users have collection of tags. I need to create a suggestion list for users based on the similarity of their tags. For example, when a user logs in to the system, system gets his tags and search these tags in the DB of users and showing users who have similar tags. For instance if User 1 has following tags [Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP] and User 2 has [Windows, IIS, PHP, MySQL] it says that User 2 matchs User 1 with a weight of 50%, because he has 2 similar tags(PHP and MySQL). But imagine the situation where User 1 has [ASP, IIS, MS Access] and User 2 has [PHP, Apache, MySQL]. In this situation my system doesn't suggest User 2 as a "friend" to User 1 or vice versa. But we now that these two users has similarity on the the field of work, both works on Web Technology (or Web Programming, etc). So, that is why I need kind of taxonomy of computer science (right now, but probably I would need taxonomy of other fields also, like medicine, physics, mathematics, etc.) where these concepts are categorized and so that when I search for similarity of ASP and PHP, for example, it can say that they have similarity and belong into one group(or category). I hope I described my problem clearly, but if something wrong explained would be happy for your corrections. Thanks

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  • Spring.net customer namespace parser

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a customer parser which looks like this: [NamespaceParser( Namespace = "http://mysite/schema/cache", SchemaLocationAssemblyHint = typeof(CacheNamespaceParser ), SchemaLocation = "/cache.xsd" ) ] public class CacheNamespaceParser : NamespaceParserSupport { public override void Init() { RegisterObjectDefinitionParser("cache", new CacheParser ()); } } public class CacheParser : AbstractSimpleObjectDefinitionParser { protected override Type GetObjectType(XmlElement element) { return typeof(CacheDefinition); } protected override void DoParse(XmlElement element, ObjectDefinitionBuilder builder) { } protected override bool ShouldGenerateIdAsFallback { get { return true; } } } in the web config i have the following configuration.... <spring> <parsers> <parser type="Spring.Data.Config.DatabaseNamespaceParser, Spring.Data"/> <parser type="App.Web.CacheNamespaceParser, WebApp" /> </parsers> When I run the project I get the following error: An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for spring/parsers: Invalid resource name. Name has to be in 'assembly:<assemblyName>/<namespace>/<resourceName>' format. I put a break point in the CacheNamespaceParser init method and it is called. If I remove from the web config all is well! Any ideas whats wrong

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  • J2EE and alternatives

    - by Ilya K
    Hello, I am J2SE developer but I have rich web-background (php, perl/cgi and so on) and now I am starting new project. It will have web interface, spaghetti business logic, relational database as storage and connections to other services. I do it from the scratch. My colleagues told me to use spring, spring security and struts. I look briefly at J2EE spec and found that it covers almost all aspects of enterprise application. I asked my colleagues why do they need spring and struts, but looks like they use technologies simply because they are familiar with them and not familiar with classic J2EE stack. So, my question is: what is bad about J2EE? Why do I need spring if there are JNDI lookups? It will take a day or two to create fake InitialContext for unit-tests. And that is all: I stand with out of external tools like spring. Why do I need spring-security if there is a security built in Servlets spec? I can map any request to any servlet using web.xml, no struts.xml is needed. I can use servlet-filters instead of struts interceptors. There is RMI, so I do not need spring-remote. And so on.. Why should I bother my self with all that fancy stuff if there is J2EE? I really want to find situation when J2EE is not enough. Do you have any? Thanks!

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  • Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

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  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

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  • Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

    - by MaseBase
    I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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  • Speed/expensive of SQLite query vs. List.contains() for "in-set" icon on list rows

    - by kpdvx
    An application I'm developing requires that the app main a local list of things, let's say books, in a local "library." Users can access their local library of books and search for books using a remote web service. The app will be aware of other users of the app through this web service, and users can browse other users' lists of books in their library. Each book is identified by a unique bookId (represented as an int). When viewing books returned through a search result or when viewing another user's book library, the individual list row cells need to visually represent if the book is in the user's local library or not. A user can have at most 5,000 books in the library, stored in SQLite on the device (and synchronized with the remote web service). My question is, to determine if the book shown in the list row is in the user's library, would it be better to directly ask SQLite (via SELECT COUNT(*)...) or to maintain, in-memory, a List or int[] array of some sort containing the unique bookIds. So, on each row display do I query SQLite or check if the List or int[] array contains the unique bookId? Because the user can have at most 5,000 books, each bookId occupies 4 bytes so at most this would use ~ 20kB. In thinking about this, and in typing this out, it seems obvious to me that it would be far better for performance if I maintained a list or int[] array of in-library bookIds vs. querying SQLite (the only caveat to maintaining an int[] array is that if books are added or removed I'll need to grow or shrink the array by hand, so with this option I'll most likely use an ArrayList or Vector, though I'm not sure of the additional memory overhead of using Integer objects as opposed to primitives). Opinions, thoughts, suggestions?

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  • Netbeans, JPA Entity Beans in seperate projects. Unknown entity bean class

    - by Stu
    I am working in Netbeans and have my entity beans and web services in separate projects. I include the entity beans in the web services project however the ApplicaitonConfig.java file keeps getting over written and removing the entries I make for the entity beans in the associated jar file. My question is: is it required to have both the EntityBeans and the WebServices share the same project/jar file? If not what is the appropriate way to include the entity beans which are in the jar file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="2.1" xmlns="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_1.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="jdbc/emrPool" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/emrPool</jta-data-source> <exclude-unlisted-classes>false</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="none"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Based on Melc's input i verified that that the transaction type is set to JTA and the jta-data-source is set to the value for the Glassfish JDBC Resource. Unfortunately the problem still persists. I have opened the WAR file and validated that the EntityBean.jar file is the latest version and is located in the WEB-INF/lib directory of the War file. I think it is tied to the fact that the entities are not being "registered" with the entity manager. However i do not know why they are not being registered.

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  • Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

    - by danswain
    We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Can I add a spring mvc filter using jetty with a jar file?

    - by Juan Manuel
    I have a simple web application disguised as a java application (as in, it's a .jar instead of a .war), and I'd like to use a filter for my requests. If it was a .war, I could initialize it with a WebAppContext and specify a web.xml file where I'd have my filter declaration like this <filter> <filter-name>myFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>MyFilterClass</filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>myFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> However, I'm using a simple Context to initialize my application with Spring. Server server = new Server(8082); Context root = new Context(server, "/", Context.SESSIONS); DispatcherServlet dispatcherServlet = new DispatcherServlet(); dispatcherServlet.setContextConfigLocation("classpath:application-context.xml"); root.addServlet(new ServletHolder(dispatcherServlet), "/*"); server.start(); Is there a way to programmatically specify filters for the spring servlet, without using a web.xml file?

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  • IIS7.5 and MVC 2 : Implementing HTTP(S) security

    - by Program.X
    This is my first ASP.NET MVC application, and my first on an IIS 7.x installation whereby I have to do anything over and above the standard. I need to enforce Windows authentication on the /Index and /feeds/xxx.svc pages/services. In ASP.NET Web Forms, I would apply the Windows permissions on the files and remove Anonymous authentication in IIS 6. This needs to work over HTTP/S, but don't worry about that, that's in hand. What happens in MVC/IIS 7? I have tried modifying the permissions on the /Index.aspx view, which seems to block access. It asks me for a username/password, but does not grant access when I enter a valid username/password. Pressing Escape gives me an exception "*Access to the path 'E:\dev\xxx\xxx.ConsultantRegistration.Web.Admin\Views\ConsultantRegistration\index.aspx' is denied. *", which does get sent as a 401. So although the username/password does exist on the Index.aspx view, I can't use those credentials to access said view. I have in my web.config: What am I missing?

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  • how do you authenticate a user between two services, if they are both using a common third-party oauth service?

    - by urandom
    I'm currently experimenting with oauth logins on a website, using google oauth2. While I set that up without too many problems, I saw that there isn't some kind of permanent token, which only google and the authorized service know about a user. Also, from what I gathered, if I were to create a companion app on android, the preferred way is to go with AccountManager, which seems to handle giving oauth2 access tokens for google accounts. But if I authenticate myself from the anroid app using a google account, how do I now link that user to the same one in the web app? One way I think this can be done if the user also logs into the web app as well, so that the server receives a fresh access token, and the android and web one are compared. But that seems like a huge hassle, and I haven't seen many other apps do that. Another is to use a refresh token on the server, but that would require extra permissions which might put off any potential visitors. So what is the general workflow for achieving this? Or am I thinking the wrong way?

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  • Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

    - by Alex
    So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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