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• Windows Server 2012 licensing issue preventing RDP connections?

  - by QF_Developer

  I am witnessing an unusual behaviour on 1 of 5 Windows Server 2012 R2 machines (clean install) that is preventing any remote connections from being established via RDP. I have run through the prerequisites for RDP here but I am finding that any remote connection attempt instantly stops the "Windows Protection Service". When I check the event logs I see the following entry. The Software Protection Service has stopped Event ID: 903 Source: Security-SPP From what I have read Security-SPP is tasked with enforcing activation and licensing, it appears that RDP requires this service to be in the running state. Is it possible that I have inadvertently activated this instance of Windows with a key that has already been associated to another instance (We have 5 keys as part of an MSDN subscription)? Would this be sufficient to block RDP access? When I look under System Properties (Windows Activation) it states that Windows is activated and there are no other obvious indicators that there's a licensing issue. EDIT 1: I ran a Powershell script to display the product keys for all servers in order to check for any duplication. For the problematic server I am getting the message The RPC server is unavailable.

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• Changing the modified date of a message in Exchange 2010

  - by jgoldschrafe

  My organization is in the middle of a process to move their Exchange 2010 messaging system from one archiving platform to another. As part of this process, we need to restore all archived messages back into users' email accounts, and then let the new system import them again. The problem is that when the messages are dumped back, the modified date on the message is set to the date it was restored, which trips up message archiving and basically means nobody will have anything archived for six months. So you don't have to ask: no, our archiving platform only uses the modified timestamp on the message and cannot be altered to temporarily use the sent or received timestamp instead to determine whether to archive it. We and others have asked for the feature, but it doesn't exist right now. What we're looking for is a method to go through the user's mailbox and alter the modified timestamp of each message (or preferably received more than X months ago) to the received date of the message. We also don't want to spend more on this tool per user than we're spending on the archiving solution in the first place. We've run across a few tools that are something ridiculous like $25 per user. I don't think we're even paying close to that for Exchange and the archiving solution put together. Whatever we settle on should function on a live mailbox with no downtime. Playing around with PST imports and hacky little things like that isn't going to work. We're fine with programming/scripting, if anyone knows the best way through PowerShell, COM automation or some other way to best handle this.

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• Elevating UAC via .bat file?

  - by jslaker

  Pretty straightforward one that I'm having trouble finding an answer to. serverfault previously helped me with finding a way to automate Windows updates without using WSUS. It's working fantastically, but to run it over the network, you have to first mount a shared drive. That's pretty simple XP since you just mount the drive and run the updater. On Vista and W7, though, this all has to be done with elevated privileges to work correctly. The UAC account can't see network drives mounted by the regular user, so in order to get everything working, I have to mount the share via net use from an escalated shell. I'd like to automate mounting this share and launching the updater via a simple .bat file. I could probably just instruct everybody to right click "Run as Administrator" on the .bat file, but I'd like to keep things as simple as possible and have the .bat automatically prompt the user to escalate their privileges. Since these computers don't belong to us, I can't count on anything like Powershell being installed, so that rules any solution along those lines out and pretty much have to rely on things that would be included in an RTM Vista install. I'm hoping I'm mostly missing something obvious here. :)

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• Kerberos issues after new server of same name joined to domain

  - by MentalBlock

  Environment: Windows Server 2012, 2 Domain Controllers, 1 domain. A server called Sharepoint1 was joined to the domain (running Sharepoint 2013 using NTLM). The fresh install for Sharepoint1 (OS and Sharepoint) is performed and set up for Kerberos and joined to the domain using the same name. Two SPNs added for HTTP/sharepoint1 and HTTP/sharepoint1.somedomain.net for account SPFarm. Active Directory shows a single, non-duplicate computer account with a create date of the first server and a modify date of the second server creation. A separate server also on the domain has the server added to All Servers in Server Manager. This server shows a local error in the events exactly like This from Technet (Kerberos error 4 - KRB_AP_ERR_MODIFIED). Question: Can someone help me understand if the problem is: The computer account is still the old account and causing a Kerberos ticket mismatch (granted some housekeeping in AD might have prevented this) (In my limited understanding of Kerberos and SPNs) that the SPFarm account used for the SPNs is somehow mismatched with HTTP calls made by the remote server management tools services in Windows Server 2012 Something completely different? I am leaning towards the first one, since I tested the same SPNs on another server and it didn't seem to cause the same issue. If this is the case, can it be easily and safely repaired? Is there a proper way to either reset the account or better yet, delete and re-add the account? Although it sounds simple enough with some powershell or clicking around in AD Users and Computers, I am uncertain what impact this might have on an existing server, particularly one running SharePoint. What is the safest and simplest way to proceed? Thanks!

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• Experience with asymmetrical (non-identical hardware) SQL Server 2005 / Win 2003 cluster

  - by user24161

  I am reasonably good at dealing with SQL Server clusters; I am wondering if folks have experience, good or bad, using a mix of different models of servers from the same vendor in one SQL 2005 cluster. Suppose: I have one more powerful, more RAM, more shizzle box and one less powerful, less memory, less shizzle box bound together in a 2-node cluster. These would be HP DL380 and 580 machines (not that it should matter) I understand AND automate the process of managing memory for each SQL instance, so there's no memory contention when SQL instances fail over. Basically I am thinking a CLR proc will monitor the instances and self-regulate memory caps on each instance, so that they won't page or step on one another. I get the fact the instances might be slower and or under memory pressure if they share a "lesser" node, and that's OK. The business can deal with a slower instance in a server-problem scenario. Reasonable? Any "gotchas" to watch out for? More info 10/28: doing some experiments with a test cluster I find that reconfiguring max/min memory is OK PROVIDED the instance isn't already under memory pressure. If I torture the system with a huge query that demands a big chunk of RAM, and simultaneously adjust the memory allocation to a smaller value than what is being actively used, it's possible to run the instance out of memory and have it halt and restart itself (unhappy situation). Many ugly out-of-memory messages in the error log, crashing, burning... It's an extreme case, but good to know. Seems, then, that it would only be really safe to set this on startup of the instance, as in have a startup script that says "I am on node1, so my RAM settings are X or I am on node two, so they are Y," like this: http://sqlblog.com/blogs/aaron_bertrand... Update: I am testing a SQL Agent + PowerShell solution described in more detail here.

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• Two folders with identical names causing many problems.

  - by R. A. Chaucer

  In my 'Documents' folder (Win7) I have two folders with names that appear in Explorer to be identical, though their contents are different. I can rename them both to something else (eg: 'Test') and Explorer doesn't complain. The dir listing that cmd.exe and powershell gives me only lists one of them, but also lists this suspicious entry: 20/04/2010 12:16 PM <DIR> ???? Even if I rename the folders to have unique names, one of them still shows up as ???? in cmd.exe. Desktop.ini in my Documents folder doesn't contain anything out of the ordinary. Both folders appear to be read-only in their properties panel, and if I untick the read-only box it will ask me if I want to apply the action recursively, but either way when I close the panel and open it again the folder is once again read-only. They are both set to not inherit permissions. The folder that shows up correctly in the cmd.exe dir listing is the "real" one, the other seems to be automatically created when a program tries to access it. How is this possible?This is driving me nuts!

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• How should an experienced Windows SysAdmin learn Linux? [closed]

  - by Systemspoet

  I have a new hire starting in a few weeks who is an experienced Windows SysAdmin. I think he's fairly senior on the Windows side, with a pretty deep AD understanding and experience with Exchange 2007, 2010, and exchange migrations. He's done a little PowerShell but I suspect more of the "run this command to do this" variety then "write a script to do this" sort. However, we are a mixed shop and (he knows this) I expect him to become a reasonably competent Linux SysAdmin over time. I'm looking for good starting points to bring him along. I have over ten years of Linux/UNIX experience, so it all sort of seems intuitive to me, but I've been thinking about the toolkit you actually need to be productive in the Linux CLI world. Just to be able to use the machines at all, off the top of my head... vi Basic CLI stuff -- move around, rename files, copy files, tar, gzip, changing passwords, finding relevant manpages, keep track of where you are, find things in your history, etc, etc. More advanced things that I take for granted but are actually pretty hard -- doing things with 'find', extracting relevant text via 'awk' and/or 'cut', knowing when to use 'grep' and when to use 'grep -e' or 'egrep'. Distribution specific stuff... compiling software, rpm, yum, apt-get, you name it. This all seems pretty basic to me, but when I think back to 1995 when I was first learning my way, some of those things took me years to master. So my question is -- where should I send him to pick up those skills? I'm not just thinking of classes, but rather also websites and books? Where do you all suggest as a starting point for picking up Linux skills?

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• Unable to delete a file or take ownership on Win7x64

  - by Basic

  I'm a developer and as part of the build process, a Microsoft dll is copied to a certain folder. That file copy is now failing as the target can't be overwritten. I decided to delete it by hand (using an admin account but a non-elevated explorer) so browsed to the folder and attempted a delete. This failed (Require permission from the Administrator). The same applies when using an elevated explorer. So I tried Properties-Security-Advanced-Ownership The current owner is showing as Unable to display current owner. I can't take ownership (a simple Access Denied message with no elaboration). Elevated Command Prompt/PowerShell don't help either (both give an Access Denied in their own way). Process explorer shows no open handles on the file. Eventually, I booted to linux and deleted the file but what I'd like to know is what caused it? Security Essentials had no issues with the file. It's digitally signed by MS and the signatures match.

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• Lots of first chance Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinderExceptions thrown when dealing with dynamics

  - by Orion Edwards

  I've got a standard 'dynamic dictionary' type class in C# - class Bucket : DynamicObject { readonly Dictionary<string, object> m_dict = new Dictionary<string, object>(); public override bool TrySetMember(SetMemberBinder binder, object value) { m_dict[binder.Name] = value; return true; } public override bool TryGetMember(GetMemberBinder binder, out object result) { return m_dict.TryGetValue(binder.Name, out result); } } Now I call it, as follows: static void Main(string[] args) { dynamic d = new Bucket(); d.Name = "Orion"; // 2 RuntimeBinderExceptions Console.WriteLine(d.Name); // 2 RuntimeBinderExceptions } The app does what you'd expect it to, but the debug output looks like this: A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll 'ScratchConsoleApplication.vshost.exe' (Managed (v4.0.30319)): Loaded 'Anonymously Hosted DynamicMethods Assembly' A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll Any attempt to access a dynamic member seems to output a RuntimeBinderException to the debug logs. While I'm aware that first-chance exceptions are not a problem in and of themselves, this does cause some problems for me: I often have the debugger set to "break on exceptions", as I'm writing WPF apps, and otherwise all exceptions end up getting converted to a DispatcherUnhandledException, and all the actual information you want is lost. WPF sucks like that. As soon as I hit any code that's using dynamic, the debug output log becomes fairly useless. All the useful trace lines that I care about get hidden amongst all the useless RuntimeBinderExceptions Is there any way I can turn this off, or is the RuntimeBinder unfortunately just built like that? Thanks, Orion

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• FragmentStatePagerAdapter IllegalStateException: <MyFragment> is not currently in the FragmentManager

  - by Ixx

  I'm getting this on some cases, when going back to the activity, which uses a FragmentStatePagerAdapter, using back button of the devices. Not always. Not reproducible. I'm using support package v4, last revision (8). Already searched with google, no success finding a useful answer. Looking in the source, it's thrown here: FragmentManager.java @Override public void putFragment(Bundle bundle, String key, Fragment fragment) { if (fragment.mIndex < 0) { throw new IllegalStateException("Fragment " + fragment + " is not currently in the FragmentManager"); } bundle.putInt(key, fragment.mIndex); } But why is the index of fragment < 0 there? The code instantiating the fragments: @Override public Fragment getItem(int position) { Fragment fragment = null; switch(position) { case 0: fragment = Fragment1.newInstance(param1); break; case 1: fragment = MyFragment2.newInstance(param2, param3); break; } return fragment; } @Override public int getCount() { return 2; } I also can't debug through the source since the support package doesn't let me attach the source, for some reason... but that's a different question...

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• Running MSBuild fails to read SDKToolsPath

  - by Scott Mayfield

  Howdy, I'm having a bit of an issue runnning a NAnt script that used to properly build my .Net 2.0 based website, when compiling with VS2008 and it's associated tools. I've recently upgraded all the project/solution files to VS2010, and now my build fails with the following error: [exec] C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v4.0.30319\Microsoft.Common.targets(2249,9): error MSB3086: Task could not find "sgen.exe" using the S dkToolsPath "" or the registry key "HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0A". Make sure the SdkToolsPath is set and the tool exists in the correct processor specific location under the SdkToolsPath and that the Microsoft Windows SDK is installed Now, I DO have prior versions (.Net 3.5) of the Windows SDK installed on the build server, and the full .Net 4.0 framework is installed, but I've not run across a .Net 4.0 specific version of the Windows SDK. After a bit of experimentation and research, I finally just setup a new environmental variable "SDKToolsPath" and pointed it to the copy of sgen.exe in my windows 6.0 sdk folder. This generated the same error, but it got me to notice that even though the SDKToolsPath environmental variable IS set (confirmed that I can "echo" it at the command line and it has the expected value), the error message seems to indicated that it's not being read (note the empty quotes). Most of the information I've found is .Net 3.5 (or earlier) specific. Not much 4.0 related out there yet. Searching for error code MSB3086 generated nothing useful either. Any idea what this might be? Scott

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• How to troubleshoot errors with TeamCity

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm following this guide to set up a small environment for source control and automated builds - mostly for learning what it is and how it works, but also for using in those of my hobby projects that I believe will actually be useful some day. However, at the step where he commits and builds, I fail to get a success status in the TeamCity history log. I keep getting the error described in the stack trace below. I have verified with Windows Explorer that the solution file it can't find is actually there, so I really don't know what to do. How do I fix/troubleshoot this? [15:16:06]: Checking for changes [15:16:08]: Clearing temporary directory: C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\temp\buildTmp [15:16:08]: Checkout directory: C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588 [15:16:08]: Updating sources: server side checkout... [15:16:08]: [Updating sources: server side checkout...] Building incremental patch for VCS root: DemoProjects [15:16:09]: [Updating sources: server side checkout...] Repository sources transferred [15:16:09]: [Updating sources: server side checkout...] Updating C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588 [15:16:10]: Start process: "c:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\bin\..\plugins\dotnetPlugin\bin\JetBrains.BuildServer.MsBuildBootstrap.exe" "/workdir:C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588" /msbuildPath:C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\MSBuild.exe [15:16:10]: in: C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588 [15:16:11]: TeamCity MSBuild bootstrap v5.1 Copyright (C) JetBrains s.r.o. [15:16:11]: Application failed with internal error: [15:16:11]: Failed to find project file at path: C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588\Nehemia\trunk\Nehemiah.sln [15:16:11]: System.Exception: Failed to find project file at path: C:\Program Files\JetBrains\BuildAgent\work\72d50012f70c4588\Nehemia\trunk\Nehemiah.sln [15:16:11]: at JetBrains.BuildServer.MSBuildBootstrap.Impl.MSBuildBootstrapFactory.Create(IClientRunArgs args) in c:\Agent\work\6223f0c8b1d45aaa\src\MSBuildBootstrap.Core\src\Impl\MSBuildBootstrapFactory.cs:line 25 [15:16:11]: at JetBrains.BuildServer.MSBuildBootstrap.Program.Run(String[] _args) in c:\Agent\work\6223f0c8b1d45aaa\src\MSBuildBootstrap\src\Program.cs:line 66 [15:16:11]: Process exited with code -11 [15:16:11]: Build finished

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• Problems with builds on TFS 2010 and resolving dependencies

  - by Jimmy Engtröm

  Hi I have a project that works great on my machine (and production servers). It's a VS2010 project running C#3.5. When letting my build server build the solution it can't resolve a couple of my third party dll's. Error message: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v4.0.30319\Microsoft.Common.targets(1360,9): warning MSB3268: The primary reference "Third.Party.Assembly, Version=50.11.2.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=0561a7c6dbd6f0ea, processorArchitecture=MSIL" could not be resolved because it has an indirect dependency on the framework assembly "Microsoft.VisualBasic.Compatibility, Version=8.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" which could not be resolved in the currently targeted framework. ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5". To resolve this problem, either remove the reference "Third.Party.Assembly, Version=50.11.2.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=0561a7c6dbd6f0ea, processorArchitecture=MSIL" or retarget your application to a framework version which contains "Microsoft.VisualBasic.Compatibility, Version=8.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a". [d:\Builds\3\mySolution.sln] Everything compiles and runs great on my machine, but the build server seem to struggle. I think the Third.Party.Assembly is written in VB.net. Since the assembly is third party I can't remove the reference to "Microsoft.VisualBasic.Compatibility" and since I don't get any warnings on my computer could it really be that I'm running v3.5? Any suggestions? /Jimmy

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• "OutputPath property is not set" error occurs only when calling MSBuild in CCNET

  - by LostInCCNET

  I've made an MSBuild project that simply does an msbuild task with our solution file as parameter. I've defined a BeforeBuild target where I set some properties, and a Build target that executes the msbuild task. I've confirmed that no errors occured when building the msbuild script in the command line console. However, when I use it in the msbuild task in my CCNET project, I keep getting the following error: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Microsoft.Common.targets (483,9): error: The OutputPath property is not set for project 'MyProject.msbuild'. Please check to make sure that you have specified a valid combination of Configuration and Platform for this project. Configuration='Debug' Platform='AnyCPU'. You may be seeing this message because you are trying to build a project without a solution file, and have specified a non-default Configuration or Platform that doesn't exist for this project. I checked the build log and it seems that the error occurs during _CheckForInvalidConfigurationAndPlatform. It wasn't even able to continue to my Build task! Since the script is only intended to build the solution under Debug/Release and AnyCPU as platform, I tried to add the following lines to my msbuild project: <PropertyGroup Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug|AnyCPU' "> <OutputPath>.\bin\Debug\</OutputPath> </PropertyGroup> <PropertyGroup Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release|AnyCPU' "> <OutputPath>.\bin\Release\</OutputPath> </PropertyGroup> I could still build the project without errors in the command line, but CCNET is returning the same error mentioned above. I don't understand why CCNET keeps getting the error, and I don't know what else to try. Please help.

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• System.MissingMethodException for XslCompiledTransform.Transform when running application on differe

  - by Codesleuth

  I have a problem where I compiled my application on Visual Studio 2010 while targetting the .NET Framework 3.5, deployed it to a client server, only to find it gives me the following error: ************** Exception Text ************** System.MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'Void System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform.Transform( System.Xml.XPath.IXPathNavigable, System.Xml.Xsl.XsltArgumentList, System.Xml.XmlWriter, System.Xml.XmlResolver)'. ************** Loaded Assemblies ************** [...] System.Xml Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3082 (QFE.050727-3000) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Xml/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Xml.dll The method it says it's looking for is this: XslTransform.Transform Method (IXPathNavigable, XsltArgumentList, XmlWriter, XmlResolver) (Supported in: 4, 3.5, 3.0, 2.0, 1.1) I've tried setting up a redirect to the .NET Framework 4.0 version of the same DLL using the assemblyBinding element like so: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="System.Xml" publicKeyToken="b77a5c561934e089" culture="neutral" /> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="2.0.0.0" newVersion="4.0.0.0"/> <codeBase version="4.0.0.0" href="file:///C:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Xml/v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Xml.dll" /> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> But now the application won't run, and puts this in the event log: EventType clr20r3, P1 myapplication.exe, P2 3.85.12.27583, P3 4be9757f, P4 system.configuration, P5 2.0.0.0, P6 4889de74, P7 1a6, P8 136, P9 ioibmurhynrxkw0zxkyrvfn0boyyufow, P10 NIL. So, in summary, (1) does anyone know why the application can't find the method listed, and (2) why doesn't it let me redirect to the .NET 4.0 version of System.Xml? Any help is appreciated, I'm totally stuck!

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• AppFabric Cache - An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host

  - by Wallace Breza

  I'm trying to get AppFabric cache up and running on my local development environment. I have Windows Server AppFabric Beta 2 Refresh installed, and the cache cluster and host configured and started running on Windows 7 64-bit. I'm running my MVC2 website in a local IIS website under a v4.0 app pool in integrated mode. HostName : CachePort Service Name Service Status Version Info -------------------- ------------ -------------- ------------ SN-3TQHQL1:22233 AppFabricCachingService UP 1 [1,1][1,1] I have my web.config configured with the following: <configSections> <section name="dataCacheClient" type="Microsoft.ApplicationServer.Caching.DataCacheClientSection, Microsoft.ApplicationServer.Caching.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" allowLocation="true" allowDefinition="Everywhere"/> </configSections> <dataCacheClient> <hosts> <host name="SN-3TQHQL1" cachePort="22233" /> </hosts> </dataCacheClient> I'm getting an error when I attempt to initialize the DataCacheFactory: protected CacheService() { _cacheFactory = new DataCacheFactory(); <-- Error here _defaultCache = _cacheFactory.GetDefaultCache(); } I'm getting the ASP.NET yellow error screen with the following: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Source Error: Line 21: protected CacheService() Line 22: { Line 23: _cacheFactory = new DataCacheFactory(); Line 24: _defaultCache = _cacheFactory.GetDefaultCache(); Line 25: }

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• Weird - "The EntityReference object could not be serialized" when serializing from an ASP.NET Web Si

  - by Mikey Cee

  I have an Entity Framework data model. Part of the model is a Customer entity. The web service provides a method to get a customer, and to receive an updated version of this customer to be persisted. To test this, I created a new ASP.NET web Application, (Solution Add New Project ASP.NET Web Application), then added a reference to my service reference using the standard Add Service Reference dialog. I then call the service using the following code: var client = new CustomerServiceClient(); var customer = client.GetCustomerByID(18); // get it customer.LimitDown = 100; // change it client.SaveCustomer(customer); // persist it Everything works as expected. Now, I do exactly the same thing, but this time with as ASP.NET Web Site (Solution Add New Web Site ASP.NET Web Site). I add the reference in a similar fashion and copy and paste the code above into the new site. But now I get the following exception thrown on the 4th line: System.InvalidOperationException The EntityReference object could not be serialized. This type of object cannot be serialized when the RelationshipManager belongs to an entity object that does not implement IEntityWithRelationships. Source Error: Line 2474: Line 2475: public SkyWalkerCustomerService.OperationResult SaveCustomer(SkyWalkerCustomerService.Customer customer) { Line 2476: return base.Channel.SaveCustomer(customer); Line 2477: } Line 2478: } Stack Trace: System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) +9475203 System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) +345 SkyWalkerCustomerService.ICustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) +0 SkyWalkerCustomerService.CustomerServiceClient.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) in c:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30128\Temporary ASP.NET Files\testsite2\dd2bcf8d\f95604ff\App_WebReferences.fz4h7x7l.0.cs:2476 _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Users\Mike\Documents\Repositories\UWC\SkyWalker\TestSite2\Default.aspx.cs:17 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +91 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +61 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1966 Googling for this error returns very little. Why doesn't this work?

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• Deploying an MVC 2.0 .Net 4.0 application to Windows Server 2003

  - by Brett Rigby

  I've spent the past couple of nights on this, and have come to the conclusions that I'm doing something wrong! Basically, I have my .Net 4.0 MVC 2.0 application deployed to my 2003 Server and it's constantly giving me the following error: The value for the 'compilerVersion' attribute in the provider options must be 'v4.0' or later if you are compiling for version 4.0 or later of the .NET Framework. To compile this Web application for version 3.5 or earlier of the .NET Framework, remove the 'targetFramework' attribute from the element of the Web.config file. I also have the .Net 3.5 MVC 1.0 application also deployed to the same server (from before the upgrade to .Net 4.0), and it works absolutely fine. I have re-run through Phil Haack's post on IIS6, making the necessary changes for .Net 4.0, but no luck. I have been through the steps in the British Developer's post too, but no joy. I have also tried the steps outlined in Johan's blog post, but the settings he mentions were already enabled. Obviously, I can't simply upgrade to a 2008 box, nor do I want to downgrade my software back to < 4.0 - any other ideas?

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• Unable to debug XBAP with Visual Studio 2010

  - by Oleg I.

  Just migrated my project to Visual Studio 2010, but target framework was left 3.5. Project contains an XBAP app in partial trust and a bunch of WCF services. Debugging is configured to start PresentationHost.exe with -debug and -debugSecurityZoneUrl parameters. Under VS2008 everything works fine, and in VS2010 Beta2 (don't sure about RC), but under VS2010 RTM debugging is for some reason doesn't working. Application runs, but doesn't hit any breakpoint. And if for example exception occurs, message box appears "Do you wish to debug or close..." and after I choose "debug" option new weird message box appears: --------------------------- Warning --------------------------- A debugger is attached to PresentationHost.exe but not configured to debug this unhandled exception. To debug this exception, detach the current debugger. An unhandled exception was raised from Microsoft .NET Framework v 1.0, 1.1, or 2.0, but the current debugger is configured to debug Microsoft .NET Framework v4.0 code. Examine the exception using the SOS tool. --------------------------- OK --------------------------- And where is the vaunted multitargeting? Did anyone have already bumped into same issue? UPDATE: Tried to debug with "Start browser with URL" option. Debugging is working, but I get SecurityException. So it is possible, just need to figure out how to make it work with "Start external program" option. UPDATE2: Checked what PresentationHost is actually loads in both scenarios: "Start external program" - Latest version (4.0.31106.0) from C:\Windows\System32\ "Start browser with URL" - Old version (3.0.6920.4902) from C:\Windows\winsxs\x86_wpf-presentationhostexe_31bf3856ad364e35_6.1.7600.16385_none_6fca8974817173aa

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• Problem resolving a generic Repository with Entity Framework and Castle Windsor Container

  - by user368776

  Hi, im working in a generic repository implementarion with EF v4, the repository must be resolved by Windsor Container. First the interface public interface IRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); void Delete(T entity); T Find(int key) } Then a concrete class implements the interface public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> where T: class { private IObjectSet<T> _objectSet; } So i need _objectSet to do stuff like this in the previous class public void Add(T entity) { _objectSet.AddObject(entity); } And now the problem, as you can see im using a EF interface like IObjectSet to do the work, but this type requires a constraint for the T generic type "where T: class". That constrait is causing an exception when Windsor tries to resolve its concrete type. Windsor configuration look like this. <castle> <components> <component id="LVRepository" service="Repository.Infraestructure.IRepository`1, Repository" type="Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1, Repository" lifestyle="transient"> </component> </components> The container resolve code IRepository<Product> productsRep =_container.Resolve<IRepository<Product>>(); Now the exception im gettin System.ArgumentException: GenericArguments[0], 'T', on 'Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1[T]' violates the constraint of type 'T'. ---> System.TypeLoadException: GenericArguments[0], 'T', on 'Repository.Infraestructure.Repository`1[T]' violates the constraint of type parameter 'T'. If i remove the constraint in the concrete class and the depedency on IObjectSet (if i dont do it get a compile error) everything works FINE, so i dont think is a container issue, but IObjectSet is a MUST in the implementation. Some help with this, please.

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• Program and debugger quit without indication of problem

  - by spender

  OK, not quite a Heisenbug but similar in nature. I'm developing a WPF application. When debugging, the logic reaches a certain point, then the application quits for no reason. VS debugger catches nothing and the only indication of a problem is the following in the output window: The program '[6228] SomeApp.vshost.exe: Managed (v4.0.30319)' has exited with code 1073741855 (0x4000001f). When debugging the release version, or indeed running the debug build out of the debugger (in fact all combos that aren't running the debug version in debugger), everything works fine. I'm trying to catch unhandled exceptions with the following code: AppDomain .CurrentDomain .UnhandledException += (sender, e) => { Debug.WriteLine("Unhandled Exception " + e.ExceptionObject); }; Application .Current .DispatcherUnhandledException += (sender1, e1) => { Debug.WriteLine("DispatcherUnhandledException " + e1.Exception); }; ...but I'm not catching anything. I'm considering peppering the app with debug output statements, but it's highly asynchronous so reading this will be both arduous and tedious. So tell me, if you can... how do I start figuring WTF is going on?

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• HttpUtility does not exist in the current context

  - by Shaihi

  I get this error when compiling a C# application. Looks like a trivial error, but I can't get around it. My setup is Windows 7 64 bit. Visual-Studio 2010 C# express B2Rel. I added a reference to System.Web.dll located at C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0, but it has a yellow exclamation symbol and I still get the above error. I also have the using System.Web declaration. What am I doing wrong? Update: After getting the prompt answer pointing me at the root cause, I searched a bit in Google to where it states that System.Web.dll is for the full framework. I did not find such a reference. For newbies like me, this blog summarizes the difference between the frameworks (client and full) nicely. I could not find a spot that says whether a certain Dll is supported in the client framework or not. I guess the exclamation mark in Visual Studio should be the first signal...

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• MissingMethodException when running application on different computer

  - by Codesleuth

  I have a problem where I compiled my application on Visual Studio 2010 while targetting the .NET Framework 3.5, deployed it to a client server, only to find it gives me the following error: ************** Exception Text ************** System.MissingMethodException: Method not found: 'Void System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform.Transform( System.Xml.XPath.IXPathNavigable, System.Xml.Xsl.XsltArgumentList, System.Xml.XmlWriter, System.Xml.XmlResolver)'. ************** Loaded Assemblies ************** [...] System.Xml Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3082 (QFE.050727-3000) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Xml/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Xml.dll The method it says it's looking for is this: XslTransform.Transform Method (IXPathNavigable, XsltArgumentList, XmlWriter, XmlResolver) (Supported in: 4, 3.5, 3.0, 2.0, 1.1) I've tried setting up a redirect to the .NET Framework 4.0 version of the same DLL using the assemblyBinding element like so: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="System.Xml" publicKeyToken="b77a5c561934e089" culture="neutral" /> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="2.0.0.0" newVersion="4.0.0.0"/> <codeBase version="4.0.0.0" href="file:///C:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Xml/v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Xml.dll" /> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> But now the application won't run, and puts this in the event log: EventType clr20r3, P1 myapplication.exe, P2 3.85.12.27583, P3 4be9757f, P4 system.configuration, P5 2.0.0.0, P6 4889de74, P7 1a6, P8 136, P9 ioibmurhynrxkw0zxkyrvfn0boyyufow, P10 NIL. So, in summary, (1) does anyone know why the application can't find the method listed, and (2) why doesn't it let me redirect to the .NET 4.0 version of System.Xml? Any help is appreciated, I'm totally stuck!

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• Referencing .NET Assembly in VB6 won't work

  - by dretzlaff17

  I wrote a .net assembly using c# to perform functions that will be used by both managed and unmanaged code. I have a VB6 project that now needs to use the assembly via COM. I created my .net assembly, made sure that ComVisible is set to true and that it is registered for COM interop via project properties. public class MyClass [ComVisible(true)] public string GetResponse() { return "Testing Response" } } I build the assembly and copied the file into a folder. TestInterop.dll I then run a batch file to register the assembly tool to register the object for COM. cd C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\ regasm "c:\Program Files\TestApp\TestInterop.dll" /tlb:TestInterop.tlb I open a new VB6 application and reference TestInterop.dll In VB6 I write the following code and it compiles. Dim obj as TestInterop.MyClass Set obj = new TestInterop.MyClass Dim strTest as string strTest = obj.GetRespose() When I run the program it errors on the obj.GetResponse() line. Run-time error' -2147024894 (80070002'): Automation error The system cannot find the file specified Also, the intellesense does not work on obj. I had to type the GetResponse method. Is this normal? Does anyone have any clue what could be wrong or what steps I missed. Thanks!

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• CSharpCodeProvider doesn't return compiler warnings when there are no errors

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm using the CSharpCodeProvider class to compile a C# script which I use as a DSL in my application. When there are warnings but no errors, the Errors property of the resulting CompilerResults instance contains no items. But when I introduce an error, the warnings suddenly get listed in the Errors property as well. string script = @" using System; using System; \\ generate a warning namespace MyNamespace { public class MyClass { public void MyMethod() { \\ uncomment the next statement to generate an error \\intx = 0; } } } "; CSharpCodeProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider( new Dictionary<string, string>() { { "CompilerVersion", "v4.0" } }); CompilerParameters compilerParameters = new CompilerParameters(); compilerParameters.GenerateExecutable = false; compilerParameters.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results = provider.CompileAssemblyFromSource( compilerParameters, script); foreach (CompilerError error in results.Errors) { Console.Write(error.IsWarning ? "Warning: " : "Error: "); Console.WriteLine(error.ErrorText); } So how to I get hold of the warnings when there are no errors? By the way, I don't want to set TreatWarningsAsErrors to true.

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