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  • OnSelectedIndexChange only fires on second click when using custom page validation script

    - by Kris P
    Okay.. this is hard to explain, so here it goes. I have an update panel which contains a number of controls. The update panel is triggered by the OnSelectedIndexChanged event of a dropdownlist called: ddlUSCitizenshipStatus. It works as expected when I selected a new item. However, if I leave ddlUSCitizenshipStatus with the default value, and then click "submit" button on the page, the requiredfieldvalidators say there is an error on ddlUSCitizenshipStatus (which it should, as I never selected a value). So I then choose a value, the error message goes away on ddlUSCitizenshipStatus, however the updatepanel does not refresh. I've debugged this locally and the OnSelectedIndexChanged event for ddlUSCitizenshipStatus does not fire. If I choose an item in the ddlUSCitizenshipStatus list a second time, the OnSelectedIndexChanged server event fires and the update panel refreshes and works as expected. The issue is, I have to select an item in ddlUSCitizenshipStatus twice, after failed validation, before the updatepanel it's sitting in updates. The submit button on the page looks like this: <asp:LinkButton ID="btnSubmitPage1" runat="server" CssClass="continueButton" OnClick="btnSubmitPage1_Click" CausesValidation="true" OnClientClick="javascript: return ValidatePage();" /> If I remove my custom OnClientClick script, making the submit button look like this: <asp:LinkButton ID="btnSubmitPage1" runat="server" CssClass="continueButton" OnClick="btnSubmitPage1_Click" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="valGrpAdditionalInformation" /> The dropdownlist, update panel, and reguiredfieldvalidator all work as expected. However, I need to run that custom "ValidatePage()" script when the button is clicked. Below is what my ValidatePage script looks like. I've been troubleshooting this for more hours than I can count.... I hope someone is able to help me. Please let me know if you can figure out why ddlUSCitizenshipStatus doesn't update the updatepanel until the second click after a failed validation. function ValidatePage() { var blnDoPostBack = true; if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function' ) { //Client side validation can occur, so lets do it. //Validate each validation group. for( var i = 0; i < Page_ValidationSummaries.length; i++ ) Page_ClientValidate( Page_ValidationSummaries[i].validationGroup.toString() ); //Validate every validation control on the page. for (var i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) ValidatorValidate(Page_Validators[i]); //Figure out which validation groups have errors, store a list of these validation groups in an array. var aryValGrpsWithErrors = []; for( var i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++ ) { if( !Page_Validators[i].isvalid ) { //This particular validator has thrown an error. //Remeber to not do a postback, as we were able to catch this validation error client side. blnDoPostBack = false; //If we haven't already registered the validation group this erroring validation control is a part of, do so now. if( aryValGrpsWithErrors.indexOf( Page_Validators[i].validationGroup.toString() ) == -1 ) aryValGrpsWithErrors[aryValGrpsWithErrors.length++] = Page_Validators[i].validationGroup.toString(); } } //Now display every validation summary that has !isvalid validation controls in it. for( var i = 0; i < Page_ValidationSummaries.length; i++ ) { if( aryValGrpsWithErrors.indexOf( Page_ValidationSummaries[i].validationGroup.toString() ) != -1 ) { Page_ValidationSummaries[i].style.display = ""; document.getElementById( Page_ValidationSummaries[i].id.toString() + "Wrapper" ).style.display = ""; } else { //The current validation summary does not have any error messages in it, so make sure it's hidden. Page_ValidationSummaries[i].style.display = "none"; document.getElementById( Page_ValidationSummaries[i].id.toString() + "Wrapper" ).style.display = "none"; } } } return blnDoPostBack; }

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  • Samplegrabber works fine on AVI/MPEG files but choppy with WMV

    - by jomtois
    I have been using the latest version of the WPFMediaKit. What I am trying to do is write a sample application that will use the Samplegrabber to capture the video frames of video files so I can have them as individual Bitmaps. So far, I have had good luck with the following code when constructing and rendering my graph. However, when I use this code to play back a .wmv video file, when the samplegrabber is attached, it will play back jumpy or choppy. If I comment out the line where I add the samplegrabber filter, it works fine. Again, it works with the samplegrabber correctly with AVI/MPEG, etc. protected virtual void OpenSource() { FrameCount = 0; /* Make sure we clean up any remaining mess */ FreeResources(); if (m_sourceUri == null) return; string fileSource = m_sourceUri.OriginalString; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(fileSource)) return; try { /* Creates the GraphBuilder COM object */ m_graph = new FilterGraphNoThread() as IGraphBuilder; if (m_graph == null) throw new Exception("Could not create a graph"); /* Add our prefered audio renderer */ InsertAudioRenderer(AudioRenderer); var filterGraph = m_graph as IFilterGraph2; if (filterGraph == null) throw new Exception("Could not QueryInterface for the IFilterGraph2"); IBaseFilter renderer = CreateVideoMixingRenderer9(m_graph, 1); IBaseFilter sourceFilter; /* Have DirectShow find the correct source filter for the Uri */ var hr = filterGraph.AddSourceFilter(fileSource, fileSource, out sourceFilter); DsError.ThrowExceptionForHR(hr); /* We will want to enum all the pins on the source filter */ IEnumPins pinEnum; hr = sourceFilter.EnumPins(out pinEnum); DsError.ThrowExceptionForHR(hr); IntPtr fetched = IntPtr.Zero; IPin[] pins = { null }; /* Counter for how many pins successfully rendered */ int pinsRendered = 0; m_sampleGrabber = (ISampleGrabber)new SampleGrabber(); SetupSampleGrabber(m_sampleGrabber); hr = m_graph.AddFilter(m_sampleGrabber as IBaseFilter, "SampleGrabber"); DsError.ThrowExceptionForHR(hr); /* Loop over each pin of the source filter */ while (pinEnum.Next(pins.Length, pins, fetched) == 0) { if (filterGraph.RenderEx(pins[0], AMRenderExFlags.RenderToExistingRenderers, IntPtr.Zero) >= 0) pinsRendered++; Marshal.ReleaseComObject(pins[0]); } Marshal.ReleaseComObject(pinEnum); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(sourceFilter); if (pinsRendered == 0) throw new Exception("Could not render any streams from the source Uri"); /* Configure the graph in the base class */ SetupFilterGraph(m_graph); HasVideo = true; /* Sets the NaturalVideoWidth/Height */ //SetNativePixelSizes(renderer); } catch (Exception ex) { /* This exection will happen usually if the media does * not exist or could not open due to not having the * proper filters installed */ FreeResources(); /* Fire our failed event */ InvokeMediaFailed(new MediaFailedEventArgs(ex.Message, ex)); } InvokeMediaOpened(); } And: private void SetupSampleGrabber(ISampleGrabber sampleGrabber) { FrameCount = 0; var mediaType = new AMMediaType { majorType = MediaType.Video, subType = MediaSubType.RGB24, formatType = FormatType.VideoInfo }; int hr = sampleGrabber.SetMediaType(mediaType); DsUtils.FreeAMMediaType(mediaType); DsError.ThrowExceptionForHR(hr); hr = sampleGrabber.SetCallback(this, 0); DsError.ThrowExceptionForHR(hr); } I have read a few things saying the the .wmv or .asf formats are asynchronous or something. I have attempted inserting a WMAsfReader to decode which works, but once it goes to the VMR9 it gives the same behavior. Also, I have gotten it to work correctly when I comment out the IBaseFilter renderer = CreateVideoMixingRenderer9(m_graph, 1); line and have filterGraph.Render(pins[0]); -- the only drawback is that now it renders in an Activemovie widow of its own instead of my control, however the samplegrabber functions correctly and without any skipping. So I am thinking the bug is in the VMR9 / samplegrabbing somewhere. Any help? I am new to this.

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  • Understanding Node.js and concept of non-blocking I/O

    - by Saif Bechan
    Recently I became interested in using Node.js to tackle some of the parts of my web-application. I love the part that its full JavaScript and its very light weight so no use anymore to call an JavaScript-PHP call but a lighter JavaScript-JavaScript call. I however do not understand all the concepts explained. Basic concepts Now in the presentation for Node.js Ryan Dahl talks about non-blocking IO and why this is the way we need to create our programs. I can understand the theoretical concept. You just don't wait for a response, you go ahead and do other things. You make a callback for the response, and when the response arrives millions of clock-cycles later, you can fire that. If you have not already I recommend to watch this presentation. It is very easy to follow and pretty detailed. There are some nice concepts explained on how to write your code in a good manner. There are also some examples given and I am going to work with the basic example given. Examples The way we do thing now: puts("Enter your name: "); var name = gets(); puts("Name: " + name); Now the problem with this is that the code is halted at line 1. It blocks your code. The way we need to do things according to node puts("Enter your name: "); gets(function (name) { puts("Name: " + name); }); Now with this your program does not halt, because the input is a function within the output. So the programs continues to work without halting. Questions Now the basic question I have is how does this work in real-life situations. I am talking here for the use in web-applications. The application I am writing does I/O, bit is still does it in am blocking matter. I think that most of the time, if not all, you need to block, because you have to wait on what the response is you have to work with. When you need to get some information from the database, most of the time this data needs to be verified before you can further with the code. Example 1 If you take a login for example. You have to wait for the database to response to return, because you can not do anything else. I can't see a way around this without blocking. Example 2 Going back to the basic example. The use just request something from a database which does not need any verification. You still have to block because you don't have anything to do more. I can not come up with a single example where you want to do other things while you wait for the response to return. Possible answers I have read that this frees up recourses. When you program like this it takes less CPU or memory usage. So this non-blocking IO is ONLY meant to free up recourses and does not have any other practical use. Not that this is not a huge plus, freeing up recourses is always good. Yet I fail to see this as a good solution. because in both of the above examples, the program has to wait for the response of the user. Whether this is inside a function, or just inline, in my opinion there is a program that wait for input. Resources I looked at I have looked at some recourses before I posted this question. They talk a lot about the theoretical concept, which is quite clear. Yet i fail to see some real-life examples where this is makes a huge difference. Stackoverflow: What is in simple words blocking IO and non-blocking IO? Blocking IO vs non-blocking IO; looking for good articles tidy code for asynchronous IO Other recources: Wikipedia: Asynchronous I/O Introduction to non-blocking I/O The C10K problem

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  • Dynamic gridview columns event problem

    - by ropstah
    Hi, i have a GridView (selectable) in which I want to generate a dynamic GridView in a new row BELOW the selected row. I can add the row and gridview dynamically in the Gridview1 PreRender event. I need to use this event because: _OnDataBound is not called on every postback (same for _OnRowDataBound) _OnInit is not possible because the 'Inner table' for the Gridview is added after Init _OnLoad is not possible because the 'selected' row is not selected yet. I can add the columns to the dynamic GridView based on my ITemplate class. But now the button events won't fire.... Any suggestions? The dynamic adding of the gridview: Private Sub GridView1_PreRender(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles GridView1.PreRender Dim g As GridView = sender g.DataBind() If g.SelectedRow IsNot Nothing AndAlso g.Controls.Count &gt; 0 Then Dim t As Table = g.Controls(0) Dim r As New GridViewRow(-1, -1, DataControlRowType.DataRow, DataControlRowState.Normal) Dim c As New TableCell Dim visibleColumnCount As Integer = 0 For Each d As DataControlField In g.Columns If d.Visible Then visibleColumnCount += 1 End If Next c.ColumnSpan = visibleColumnCount Dim ph As New PlaceHolder ph.Controls.Add(CreateStockGrid(g.SelectedDataKey.Value)) c.Controls.Add(ph) r.Cells.Add(c) t.Rows.AddAt(g.SelectedRow.RowIndex + 2, r) End If End Sub Private Function CreateStockGrid(ByVal PnmAutoKey As String) As GridView Dim col As Interfaces.esColumnMetadata Dim coll As New BLL.ViewStmCollection Dim entity As New BLL.ViewStm Dim query As BLL.ViewStmQuery = coll.Query Me._gridStock.AutoGenerateColumns = False Dim buttonf As New TemplateField() buttonf.ItemTemplate = New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.Item, "", "Button") buttonf.HeaderTemplate = New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.Header, "", "Button") buttonf.EditItemTemplate = New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.EditItem, "", "Button") Me._gridStock.Columns.Add(buttonf) For Each col In coll.es.Meta.Columns Dim headerf As New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.Header, col.PropertyName, col.Type.Name) Dim itemf As New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.Item, col.PropertyName, col.Type.Name) Dim editf As New QuantityTemplateField(ListItemType.EditItem, col.PropertyName, col.Type.Name) Dim f As New TemplateField() f.HeaderTemplate = headerf f.ItemTemplate = itemf f.EditItemTemplate = editf Me._gridStock.Columns.Add(f) Next query.Where(query.PnmAutoKey.Equal(PnmAutoKey)) coll.LoadAll() Me._gridStock.ID = "gvChild" Me._gridStock.DataSource = coll AddHandler Me._gridStock.RowCommand, AddressOf Me.gv_RowCommand Me._gridStock.DataBind() Return Me._gridStock End Function The ITemplate class: Public Class QuantityTemplateField : Implements ITemplate Private _itemType As ListItemType Private _fieldName As String Private _infoType As String Public Sub New(ByVal ItemType As ListItemType, ByVal FieldName As String, ByVal InfoType As String) Me._itemType = ItemType Me._fieldName = FieldName Me._infoType = InfoType End Sub Public Sub InstantiateIn(ByVal container As System.Web.UI.Control) Implements System.Web.UI.ITemplate.InstantiateIn Select Case Me._itemType Case ListItemType.Header Dim l As New Literal l.Text = "&lt;b&gt;" & Me._fieldName & "</b>" container.Controls.Add(l) Case ListItemType.Item Select Case Me._infoType Case "Button" Dim ib As New Button() Dim eb As New Button() ib.ID = "InsertButton" eb.ID = "EditButton" ib.Text = "Insert" eb.Text = "Edit" ib.CommandName = "Edit" eb.CommandName = "Edit" AddHandler ib.Click, AddressOf Me.InsertButton_OnClick AddHandler eb.Click, AddressOf Me.EditButton_OnClick container.Controls.Add(ib) container.Controls.Add(eb) Case Else Dim l As New Label l.ID = Me._fieldName l.Text = "" AddHandler l.DataBinding, AddressOf Me.OnDataBinding container.Controls.Add(l) End Select Case ListItemType.EditItem Select Case Me._infoType Case "Button" Dim b As New Button b.ID = "UpdateButton" b.Text = "Update" b.CommandName = "Update" b.OnClientClick = "return confirm('Sure?')" container.Controls.Add(b) Case Else Dim t As New TextBox t.ID = Me._fieldName AddHandler t.DataBinding, AddressOf Me.OnDataBinding container.Controls.Add(t) End Select End Select End Sub Private Sub InsertButton_OnClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Console.WriteLine("insert click") End Sub Private Sub EditButton_OnClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Console.WriteLine("edit click") End Sub Private Sub OnDataBinding(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim boundValue As Object = Nothing Dim ctrl As Control = sender Dim dataItemContainer As IDataItemContainer = ctrl.NamingContainer boundValue = DataBinder.Eval(dataItemContainer.DataItem, Me._fieldName) Select Case Me._itemType Case ListItemType.Item Dim fieldLiteral As Label = sender fieldLiteral.Text = boundValue.ToString() Case ListItemType.EditItem Dim fieldTextbox As TextBox = sender fieldTextbox.Text = boundValue.ToString() End Select End Sub End Class

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  • Memory Troubles with UIImagePicker

    - by Dan Ray
    I'm building an app that has several different sections to it, all of which are pretty image-heavy. It ties in with my client's website and they're a "high-design" type outfit. One piece of the app is images uploaded from the camera or the library, and a tableview that shows a grid of thumbnails. Pretty reliably, when I'm dealing with the camera version of UIImagePickerControl, I get hit for low memory. If I bounce around that part of the app for a while, I occasionally and non-repeatably crash with "status:10 (SIGBUS)" in the debugger. On low memory warning, my root view controller for that aspect of the app goes to my data management singleton, cruises through the arrays of cached data, and kills the biggest piece, the image associated with each entry. Thusly: - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Low Memory Warning" message:@"Cleaning out events data" delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"All right then." otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; NSInteger spaceSaved; DataManager *data = [DataManager sharedDataManager]; for (Event *event in data.eventList) { spaceSaved += [(NSData *)UIImagePNGRepresentation(event.image) length]; event.image = nil; spaceSaved -= [(NSData *)UIImagePNGRepresentation(event.image) length]; } NSString *titleString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Saved %d on event images", spaceSaved]; for (WondrMark *mark in data.wondrMarks) { spaceSaved += [(NSData *)UIImagePNGRepresentation(mark.image) length]; mark.image = nil; spaceSaved -= [(NSData *)UIImagePNGRepresentation(mark.image) length]; } NSString *messageString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"And total %d on event and mark images", spaceSaved]; NSLog(@"%@ - %@", titleString, messageString); // Relinquish ownership any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } As you can see, I'm making a (poor) attempt to eyeball the memory space I'm freeing up. I know it's not telling me about the actual memory footprint of the UIImages themselves, but it gives me SOME numbers at least, so I can see that SOMETHING'S happening. (Sorry for the hamfisted way I build that NSLog message too--I was going to fire another UIAlertView, but realized it'd be more useful to log it.) Pretty reliably, after toodling around in the image portion of the app for a while, I'll pull up the camera interface and get the low memory UIAlertView like three or four times in quick succession. Here's the NSLog output from the last time I saw it: 2010-05-27 08:55:02.659 EverWondr[7974:207] Saved 109591 on event images - And total 1419756 on event and mark images wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 2010-05-27 08:55:08.759 EverWondr[7974:207] Saved 4 on event images - And total 392695 on event and mark images 2010-05-27 08:55:14.865 EverWondr[7974:207] Saved 4 on event images - And total 873419 on event and mark images 2010-05-27 08:55:14.969 EverWondr[7974:207] Saved 4 on event images - And total 4 on event and mark images 2010-05-27 08:55:15.064 EverWondr[7974:207] Saved 4 on event images - And total 4 on event and mark images And then pretty soon after that we get our SIGBUS exit. So that's the situation. Now my specific questions: THE time I see this happening is when the UIPickerView's camera iris shuts. I click the button to take the picture, it does the "click" animation, and Instruments shows my memory footprint going from about 10mb to about 25mb, and sitting there until the image is delivered to my UIViewController, where usage drops back to 10 or 11mb again. If we make it through that without a memory warning, we're golden, but most likely we don't. Anything I can do to make that not be so expensive? Second, I have NSZombies enabled. Am I understanding correctly that that's actually preventing memory from being freed? Am I subjecting my app to an unfair test environment? Third, is there some way to programmatically get my memory usage? Or at least the usage for a UIImage object? I've scoured the docs and don't see anything about that.

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  • Cocoa Basic HTTP Authentication : Advice Needed..

    - by Kristiaan
    Hello all, im looking to read the contents of a webpage that is secured with a user name and password. this is a mac OS X application NOT an iphone app so most of the things i have read on here or been suggested to read do not seem to work. Also i am a total beginner with Xcode and Obj C i was told to have a look at a website that provided sample code to http auth however so far i have had little luck in getting this working. below is the main code for the button press in my application, there is also another unit called Base64 below that has some code in i had to change to even get it compiling (no idea if what i changed is correct mind you). NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"my URL"]; NSString *userName = @"UN"; NSString *password = @"PW"; NSError *myError = nil; // create a plaintext string in the format username:password NSMutableString *loginString = (NSMutableString*)[@"" stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@:%@", userName, password]; // employ the Base64 encoding above to encode the authentication tokens char *encodedLoginData = [base64 encode:[loginString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; // create the contents of the header NSString *authHeader = [@"Basic " stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@", [NSString stringWithCString:encodedLoginData length:strlen(encodedLoginData)]]; //NSString *authHeader = [@"Basic " stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@", loginString];//[NSString stringWithString:loginString length:strlen(loginString)]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: url cachePolicy: NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval: 3]; // add the header to the request. Here's the $$$!!! [request addValue:authHeader forHTTPHeaderField:@"Authorization"]; // perform the reqeust NSURLResponse *response; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: request returningResponse: &response error: &myError]; //*error = myError; // POW, here's the content of the webserver's response. NSString *result = [NSString stringWithCString:[data bytes] length:[data length]]; [myTextView setString:result]; code from the BASE64 file #import "base64.h" static char *alphabet = "ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZabcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz0123456789+-"; @implementation Base64 +(char *)encode:(NSData *)plainText { // create an adequately sized buffer for the output. every 3 bytes // become four basically with padding to the next largest integer // divisible by four. char * encodedText = malloc((((([plainText length] % 3) + [plainText length]) / 3) * 4) + 1); char* inputBuffer = malloc([plainText length]); inputBuffer = (char *)[plainText bytes]; int i; int j = 0; // encode, this expands every 3 bytes to 4 for(i = 0; i < [plainText length]; i += 3) { encodedText[j++] = alphabet[(inputBuffer[i] & 0xFC) >> 2]; encodedText[j++] = alphabet[((inputBuffer[i] & 0x03) << 4) | ((inputBuffer[i + 1] & 0xF0) >> 4)]; if(i + 1 >= [plainText length]) // padding encodedText[j++] = '='; else encodedText[j++] = alphabet[((inputBuffer[i + 1] & 0x0F) << 2) | ((inputBuffer[i + 2] & 0xC0) >> 6)]; if(i + 2 >= [plainText length]) // padding encodedText[j++] = '='; else encodedText[j++] = alphabet[inputBuffer[i + 2] & 0x3F]; } // terminate the string encodedText[j] = 0; return encodedText;//outputBuffer; } @end when executing the code it stops on the following line with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS ?!?!? NSString *authHeader = [@"Basic " stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@", [NSString stringWithCString:encodedLoginData length:strlen(encodedLoginData)]]; any help would be appreciated as i am a little clueless on this problem, not being very literate with Cocoa, objective c, xcode is only adding fuel to this fire for me.

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  • Quartz Thread Execution Parallel or Sequential?

    - by vikas
    We have a quartz based scheduler application which runs about 1000 jobs per minute which are evenly distributed across seconds of each minute i.e. about 16-17 jobs per second. Ideally, these 16-17 jobs should fire at same time, however our first statement, which simply logs the time of execution, of execute method of the job is being called very late. e.g. let us assume we have 1000 jobs scheduled per minute from 05:00 to 05:04. So, ideally the job which is scheduled at 05:03:50 should have logged the first statement of the execute method at 05:03:50, however, it is doing it at about 05:06:38. I have tracked down the time taken by the scheduled job which comes around 15-20 milliseconds. This scheduled job is fast enough because we just send a message on an ActiveMQ queue. We have specified the number of threads of quartz to be 100 and even tried with increasing it to 200 and more, but no gain. One more thing we noticed is that logs from scheduler are coming sequential after first 1 minute i.e. [Quartz_Worker_28] <Some log statement> .. .. [Quartz_Worker_29] <Some log statement> .. .. [Quartz_Worker_30] <Some log statement> .. .. So it suggesting that after some time quartz is running threads almost sequential. May be this is happening due to the time taken in notifying the job completion to persistence store (which is a separate postgres database in this case) and/or context switching. What can be the reason behind this strange behavior? EDIT: More detailed Log [06/07/12 10:08:37:192][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] org.quartz.plugins.history.LoggingTriggerHistoryPlugin - Trigger [<trigger_name>] fired job [<job_name>] scheduled at: 06-07-2012 10:08:33.458, next scheduled at: 06-07-2012 10:34:53.000 [06/07/12 10:08:37:192][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] <my_package>.scheduler.quartz.ScheduledLocateJob - execute begin--------- ScheduledLocateJob with key: <job_name> started at Fri Jul 06 10:08:37 EDT 2012 [06/07/12 10:08:37:192][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] <my_package>.scheduler.quartz.ScheduledLocateJob <some log statement> [06/07/12 10:08:37:192][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] <my_package>.scheduler.quartz.ScheduledLocateJob <some log statement> [06/07/12 10:08:37:192][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] <my_package>.scheduler.quartz.ScheduledLocateJob <some log statement> [06/07/12 10:08:37:220][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] <my_package>.scheduler.quartz.ScheduledLocateJob - execute end--------- ScheduledLocateJob with key: <job_name> ended at Fri Jul 06 10:08:37 EDT 2012 [06/07/12 10:08:37:220][QuartzScheduler_Worker-34][INFO] org.quartz.plugins.history.LoggingTriggerHistoryPlugin - Trigger [<trigger_name>] completed firing job [<job_name>] with resulting trigger instruction code: DO NOTHING. Next scheduled at: 06-07-2012 10:34:53.000 I am doubting on this section of the above log scheduled at: 06-07-2012 10:08:33.458, next scheduled at: 06-07-2012 10:34:53.000 because this job was scheduled for 10:04:53, but it fired at 10:08:33 and still quartz didn't consider it as misfire. Shouldn't it be a misfire?

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  • Backbone.js Model change events in nested collections not firing as expected

    - by Pallavi Kaushik
    I'm trying to use backbone.js in my first "real" application and I need some help debugging why certain model change events are not firing as I would expect. I have a web service at /employees/{username}/tasks which returns a JSON array of task objects, with each task object nesting a JSON array of subtask objects. For example, [{ "id":45002, "name":"Open Dining Room", "subtasks":[ {"id":1,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Clean all tables"}, {"id":2,"status":"RED","name":"Clean main floor"}, {"id":3,"status":"RED","name":"Stock condiments"}, {"id":4,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Check / replenish trays"} ] },{ "id":47003, "name":"Open Registers", "subtasks":[ {"id":1,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Turn on all terminals"}, {"id":2,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Balance out cash trays"}, {"id":3,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Check in promo codes"}, {"id":4,"status":"YELLOW","name":"Check register promo placards"} ] }] Another web service allows me to change the status of a specific subtask in a specific task, and looks like this: /tasks/45002/subtasks/1/status/red [aside - I intend to change this to a HTTP Post-based service, but the current implementation is easier for debugging] I have the following classes in my JS app: Subtask Model and Subtask Collection var Subtask = Backbone.Model.extend({}); var SubtaskCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Subtask }); Task Model with a nested instance of a Subtask Collection var Task = Backbone.Model.extend({ initialize: function() { // each Task has a reference to a collection of Subtasks this.subtasks = new SubtaskCollection(this.get("subtasks")); // status of each Task is based on the status of its Subtasks this.update_status(); }, ... }); var TaskCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Task }); Task View to renders the item and listen for change events to the model var TaskView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: "li", template: $("#TaskTemplate").template(), initialize: function() { _.bindAll(this, "on_change", "render"); this.model.bind("change", this.on_change); }, ... on_change: function(e) { alert("task model changed!"); } }); When the app launches, I instantiate a TaskCollection (using the data from the first web service listed above), bind a listener for change events to the TaskCollection, and set up a recurring setTimeout to fetch() the TaskCollection instance. ... TASKS = new TaskCollection(); TASKS.url = ".../employees/" + username + "/tasks" TASKS.fetch({ success: function() { APP.renderViews(); } }); TASKS.bind("change", function() { alert("collection changed!"); APP.renderViews(); }); // Poll every 5 seconds to keep the models up-to-date. setInterval(function() { TASKS.fetch(); }, 5000); ... Everything renders as expected the first time. But at this point, I would expect either (or both) a Collection change event or a Model change event to get fired if I change a subtask's status using my second web service, but this does not happen. Funnily, I did get change events to fire if I added one additional level of nesting, with the web service returning a single object that has the Tasks Collection embedded, for example: "employee":"pkaushik", "tasks":[{"id":45002,"subtasks":[{"id":1..... But this seems klugey... and I'm afraid I haven't architected my app right. I'll include more code if it helps, but this question is already rather verbose. Thoughts?

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  • XSL to show highest number of copies in catalog.xml file

    - by SANJAY RAO
    In this the catalog.xml file. I have two books who have the same inventory (i.e. 20). I want to write an XSL file that will display the highest number of copies of a book in a catalog. If there are two or more books of the same inventory then they have to be displayed. <catalog> <Book> <sku>12345</sku> <title>Beauty Secrets</title> <condition>New</condition> <current_inventory>20</current_inventory> <price>99.99</price> </Book> <Book> <sku>54321</sku> <title>Picturescapes</title> <current_inventory>20</current_inventory> <condition>New</condition> <price>50.00</price> </Book> <Book> <sku>33333</sku> <title>Tourist Perspectives</title> <condition>New</condition> <current_inventory>0</current_inventory> <price>75.00</price> </Book> <Book> <sku>10001</sku> <title>Fire in the Sky</title> <condition>Used</condition> <current_inventory>0</current_inventory> <price>10.00</price> </Book> </catalog> Below is my catalog3.xsl file which is able to display only one out of the two books: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" > <xsl:variable name="max"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <h2>Titles of Books for which Most Copies are Available</h2> <table border="2"> <tr bgcolor="#9acd32"> <th>Title</th> <th>No of Copies</th> </tr> <xsl:apply-templates/> </table> </body> </html> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="catalog"> <xsl:for-each select="Book"> <xsl:sort select="current_inventory" data-type="number" order="descending"/> <tr> <xsl:if test="position()= 1"> <p><xsl:value-of select="$max = "/></p> <td><xsl:value-of select="title"/></td> <td><xsl:value-of select="current_inventory"/></td> </xsl:if> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Could anybody correct me to achieve my goal of displaying all the copies having the same maximum inventory in the catalog. Thanks.

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  • Asp.net mvc application deployment / security issues

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I'll start with appologies; I wasn't sure if this was best posted here of Server Fault so if its in the wrong place then please move :-) Basic information I have written the first module of a new application at work. This is written using Visual Studio 2010, targetting .net 3.5 (at the moment) and asp.net mvc 2. This has been working fine during development running on the built in Development server from VS but however does not work once deployed to IIS 7/7.5. To deploy the application, I have built it in release mode and created a deployment package by right clicking on the project in the solution explorer (this will be done with an automated build in tfs once upgrade from the beta). This has then been imported into IIS on the server. The application is using windows/domain authentication. Issue #1 I can fire up internet explorer and browse to the application from a client computer as well as on a remote desktop connection. I can execute the code which reads/stores data in Session fine from the IE instance on the remote desktop but if I browse to it from the client pc it seems to lose the session state. I click on the form submit and the page refreshes and doesn't execute the required code. I've tried setting with; InProc, SQLServer and StateServer. but with no luck :-( Issue #2 As part of the application it views PDF and Tiff documents on the fly which are on a network share on the office network and creates thumbnails if the document hasn't been viewed before. This works if running on the machine the application is deployed to; however when browsing from a client pc I get an error saying: Access to the path '\\fileserver\folder\file.tif' is denied Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\fileserver\folder\file.TIF' is denied. ASP.NET is not authorized to access the requested resource. Consider granting access rights to the resource to the ASP.NET request identity. ASP.NET has a base process identity (typically {MACHINE}\ASPNET on IIS 5 or Network Service on IIS 6) that is used if the application is not impersonating. If the application is impersonating via , the identity will be the anonymous user (typically IUSR_MACHINENAME) or the authenticated request user. As this is on a different server the user is not accessible. To get round this I have tried: 1 - setting the application pool to run as domain administrator (I know this is a security risk, but I'm just trying to get it to work at the moment!) 2 - to set the log on account for World Wide Web Publishing service to be the domain admin . When trying to restart the service I get ... Windows could not start the World Wide Web Publishing Service service on the Local Computer. Error 1079: The account specified for this service is different from the account specified fro the other services running in the same process. Any pointers/help would be much appriciated as I'm pulling my hair out (of what little I have left). Update I've been using this funky little tool I found - DelegConfig v2 beta (Delegation / Kerberos Configuration Tool). This has been really usefull. So I've got the accessing of the file share working (there is a test page which will read the files) so now I've just got the issue of passing through the users credentials through to the SQL Server (wans't my choice to do it this way!!) to execute the queries etc. but I can't get it to log on as the user. It tries to access it as "NT Authority\Network Service" which doesn't have a sql login (as should be the logged on user). My connection string is: <add name="User" connectionString="Data Source=.;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> No initial catalog is specified as the system is over multiple dbs (also wasn't my choice!!). I really appriciate all the help so far! :-) Any further hints?!

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  • Domain Validation in a CQRS architecture

    - by Jupaol
    Basically I want to know if there is a better way to validate my domain entities. This is how I am planning to do it but I would like your opinion The first approach I considered was: class Customer : EntityBase<Customer> { public void ChangeEmail(string email) { if(string.IsNullOrWhitespace(email)) throw new DomainException(“...”); if(!email.IsEmail()) throw new DomainException(); if(email.Contains(“@mailinator.com”)) throw new DomainException(); } } I actually do not like this validation because even when I am encapsulating the validation logic in the correct entity, this is violating the Open/Close principle (Open for extension but Close for modification) and I have found that violating this principle, code maintenance becomes a real pain when the application grows up in complexity. Why? Because domain rules change more often than we would like to admit, and if the rules are hidden and embedded in an entity like this, they are hard to test, hard to read, hard to maintain but the real reason why I do not like this approach is: if the validation rules change, I have to come and edit my domain entity. This has been a really simple example but in RL the validation could be more complex So following the philosophy of Udi Dahan, making roles explicit, and the recommendation from Eric Evans in the blue book, the next try was to implement the specification pattern, something like this class EmailDomainIsAllowedSpecification : IDomainSpecification<Customer> { private INotAllowedEmailDomainsResolver invalidEmailDomainsResolver; public bool IsSatisfiedBy(Customer customer) { return !this.invalidEmailDomainsResolver.GetInvalidEmailDomains().Contains(customer.Email); } } But then I realize that in order to follow this approach I had to mutate my entities first in order to pass the value being valdiated, in this case the email, but mutating them would cause my domain events being fired which I wouldn’t like to happen until the new email is valid So after considering these approaches, I came out with this one, since I am going to implement a CQRS architecture: class EmailDomainIsAllowedValidator : IDomainInvariantValidator<Customer, ChangeEmailCommand> { public void IsValid(Customer entity, ChangeEmailCommand command) { if(!command.Email.HasValidDomain()) throw new DomainException(“...”); } } Well that’s the main idea, the entity is passed to the validator in case we need some value from the entity to perform the validation, the command contains the data coming from the user and since the validators are considered injectable objects they could have external dependencies injected if the validation requires it. Now the dilemma, I am happy with a design like this because my validation is encapsulated in individual objects which brings many advantages: easy unit test, easy to maintain, domain invariants are explicitly expressed using the Ubiquitous Language, easy to extend, validation logic is centralized and validators can be used together to enforce complex domain rules. And even when I know I am placing the validation of my entities outside of them (You could argue a code smell - Anemic Domain) but I think the trade-off is acceptable But there is one thing that I have not figured out how to implement it in a clean way. How should I use this components... Since they will be injected, they won’t fit naturally inside my domain entities, so basically I see two options: Pass the validators to each method of my entity Validate my objects externally (from the command handler) I am not happy with the option 1 so I would explain how I would do it with the option 2 class ChangeEmailCommandHandler : ICommandHandler<ChangeEmailCommand> { public void Execute(ChangeEmailCommand command) { private IEnumerable<IDomainInvariantValidator> validators; // here I would get the validators required for this command injected, and in here I would validate them, something like this using (var t = this.unitOfWork.BeginTransaction()) { var customer = this.unitOfWork.Get<Customer>(command.CustomerId); this.validators.ForEach(x =. x.IsValid(customer, command)); // here I know the command is valid // the call to ChangeEmail will fire domain events as needed customer.ChangeEmail(command.Email); t.Commit(); } } } Well this is it. Can you give me your thoughts about this or share your experiences with Domain entities validation EDIT I think it is not clear from my question, but the real problem is: Hiding the domain rules has serious implications in the future maintainability of the application, and also domain rules change often during the life-cycle of the app. Hence implementing them with this in mind would let us extend them easily. Now imagine in the future a rules engine is implemented, if the rules are encapsulated outside of the domain entities, this change would be easier to implement

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  • MVC keeping the PartialView in its own context - ignore the main view holding the partial view

    - by Mike
    I'm looking at the partialview components of the MVC Framework. i want my partial view to be handled in its own action and for the rest of the view to handle itself, but i'm getting an exception because the main page is not getting its view fired. Am i going around this the wrong way? My Main View (Jobs/Index.aspx): <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<MvcApplication3.Models.JobViewModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% Html.RenderPartial("JobListing", Model.Jobs); %> </asp:Content> The partialview (Jobs/JobListing.ascx): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<MvcApplication3.Models.Job>>" %> <table> <tr> <td> Job Title </td> <td> Job Location</td> </tr> <% foreach (var job in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= job.Title %> </td> <td> <%= job.Location %> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% Html.BeginForm("DoSomeStuff", "Job", null, FormMethod.Post); %> <%= Html.TextBox("SomeInfo") %> <button type="submit" id="submit" /> <% Html.EndForm(); %> The main controller for both the main view (Index) and the partialview (DoSomeStuff()) public class JobController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { JobProvider provider = new JobProvider(Session); JobViewModel vm = new JobViewModel(); vm.Jobs = provider.GetJobs(); return View(vm); } public PartialViewResult DoSomeStuff() { return PartialView("JobListing"); } } As you can see in the partial view, it has its own form that posts to the Action called DoSomeStuff(). i want this action to handle any data submitted from that form. but when the form is submitted the main action (Index) does not fire and then i get an exception as the Model (.Models.JobViewModel) is not passed to the view that the partialview (JobListings) lives in. basically what im saying is, if i have a myview.aspx with lots of html.RenderPartialView('apartialview') that have forms in them, can i get it so these forms post to their own actions and the main view (with what ever model it inherits) is handled as well. Rather then having all the form submitting code in the main action for the view. am i do this wrong?

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  • Themes outside application.

    - by Marek
    Hi all I read http://forum.kohanaframework.org/comments.php?DiscussionID=5744&page=1#Item_0 and I want to use similar solution, but with db. In my site controller after(): $theme = $page->get_theme_name(); //Orange Kohana::set_module_path('themes', Kohana::get_module_path('themes').'/'.$theme); $this->template = View::factory('layout') I checked with firebug: fire::log(Kohana::get_module_path('themes')); // D:\tools\xampp\htdocs\kohana\themes/Orange I am sure that path exists. I have directly in 'Orange' folder 'views' folder with layout.php file. But I am getting: The requested view layout could not be found Extended Kohana_Core is just: public static function get_module_path($module_key) { return self::$_modules[$module_key]; } public static function set_module_path($module_key, $path) { self::$_modules[$module_key] = $path; } Could anybody help me with solving that issue? Maybe it is a .htaccess problem: # Turn on URL rewriting RewriteEngine On # Put your installation directory here: # If your URL is www.example.com/kohana/, use /kohana/ # If your URL is www.example.com/, use / RewriteBase /kohana/ # Protect application and system files from being viewed RewriteCond $1 ^(application|system|modules) # Rewrite to index.php/access_denied/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ / [PT,L] RewriteRule ^(media) - [PT,L] RewriteRule ^(themes) - [PT,L] # Allow these directories and files to be displayed directly: # - index.php (DO NOT FORGET THIS!) # - robots.txt # - favicon.ico # - Any file inside of the images/, js/, or css/ directories RewriteCond $1 ^(index\.php|robots\.txt|favicon\.ico|static) # No rewriting RewriteRule ^(.*)$ - [PT,L] # Rewrite all other URLs to index.php/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [PT,L] Could somebody help? What I am doing wrong? Regards [EDIT] My controller code: class Controller_Site extends Controller_Fly { public static $meta_names = array('keywords', 'descriptions', 'author'); public function action_main() { $this->m('page')->get_main_page(); } public function action_page($page_title) { $this->m('page')->get_by_link($page_title); } public function after() { $page = $this->m('page'); $metas = ''; foreach(self::$meta_names as $meta) { if (! empty($page->$meta)) { $metas .= html::meta($page->$meta, $meta).PHP_EOL; } } $theme = $page->get_theme_name(); Kohana::set_module_path('themes', Kohana::get_module_path('themes').'/'.$theme); $menus = $page->get_menus(); $this->template = View::factory('layout') ->set('theme', $theme) ->set('metas', $metas) ->set('menus', $menus['content']) ->set('sections', $page->get_sections()) ->set_global('page', $page); if ($page->header_on) { $settings = $this->m('setting'); $this->template->header = View::factory('/header') ->set('title', $settings->title) ->set('subtitle', $settings->subtitle) ->set('menus', $menus['header']); } if ($page->sidebar_on) { $this->template->sidebar = View::factory('sidebar', array('menus' => $menus['sidebar'])); } if ($page->footer_on) { $this->template->footer = View::factory('footer'); } parent::after(); } } and parent controller: abstract class Controller_Fly extends Controller_Template { protected function m($model_name, $id = NULL) { if (! isset($this->$model_name)) { $this->$model_name = ORM::factory($model_name, $id); } return $this->$model_name; } protected function mf($model_name, $id = NULL) { return ORM::factory($model_name, $id); } }

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  • Why does this valid Tkinter code crash when mixed with a bit of PyWin32?

    - by Erlog
    So I'm making a very small program for personal use in tkinter, and I've run into a really strange wall. I'm mixing tkinter with the pywin32 bindings because I really hate everything to do with the syntax and naming conventions of pywin32, and it feels like tkinter gets more done with far less code. The strangeness is happening in the transition between the pywin32 clipboard watching and my program's reaction to it in tkinter. My window and all its controls are being handled in tkinter. The pywin32 bindings are doing clipboard watching and clipboard access when the clipboard changes. From what I've gathered about the way the clipboard watching pieces of pywin32 work, you can make it work with anything you want as long as you provide pywin32 with the hwnd value of your window. I'm doing that part, and it works when the program first starts. It just doesn't seem to work when the clipboard changes. When the program launches, it grabs the clipboard and puts it into the search box and edit box just fine. When the clipboard is modified, the event I want to fire off is firing off...except that event that totally worked before when the program launched is now causing a weird hang instead of doing what it's supposed to do. I can print the clipboard contents to stdout all I want if the clipboard changes, but not put that same data into a tkinter widget. It only hangs like that if it starts to interact with any of my tkinter widgets after being fired off by a clipboard change notification. It feels like there's some pywin32 etiquette I've missed in adapting the clipboard-watching sample code I was using over to my tkinter-using program. Tkinter apparently doesn't like to produce stack traces or error messages, and I can't really even begin to know what to look for trying to debug it with pdb. Here's the code: #coding: utf-8 #Clipboard watching cribbed from ## {{{ http://code.activestate.com/recipes/355593/ (r1) import pdb from Tkinter import * import win32clipboard import win32api import win32gui import win32con import win32clipboard def force_unicode(object, encoding="utf-8"): if isinstance(object, basestring) and not isinstance(object, unicode): object = unicode(object, encoding) return object class Application(Frame): def __init__(self, master=None): self.master = master Frame.__init__(self, master) self.pack() self.createWidgets() self.hwnd = self.winfo_id() self.nextWnd = None self.first = True self.oldWndProc = win32gui.SetWindowLong(self.hwnd, win32con.GWL_WNDPROC, self.MyWndProc) try: self.nextWnd = win32clipboard.SetClipboardViewer(self.hwnd) except win32api.error: if win32api.GetLastError () == 0: # information that there is no other window in chain pass else: raise self.update_search_box() self.word_search() def word_search(self): #pdb.set_trace() term = self.searchbox.get() self.resultsbox.insert(END, term) def update_search_box(self): clipboardtext = "" if win32clipboard.IsClipboardFormatAvailable(win32clipboard.CF_TEXT): win32clipboard.OpenClipboard() clipboardtext = win32clipboard.GetClipboardData() win32clipboard.CloseClipboard() if clipboardtext != "": self.searchbox.delete(0,END) clipboardtext = force_unicode(clipboardtext) self.searchbox.insert(0, clipboardtext) def createWidgets(self): self.button = Button(self) self.button["text"] = "Search" self.button["command"] = self.word_search self.searchbox = Entry(self) self.resultsbox = Text(self) #Pack everything down here for "easy" layout changes later self.searchbox.pack() self.button.pack() self.resultsbox.pack() def MyWndProc (self, hWnd, msg, wParam, lParam): if msg == win32con.WM_CHANGECBCHAIN: self.OnChangeCBChain(msg, wParam, lParam) elif msg == win32con.WM_DRAWCLIPBOARD: self.OnDrawClipboard(msg, wParam, lParam) # Restore the old WndProc. Notice the use of win32api # instead of win32gui here. This is to avoid an error due to # not passing a callable object. if msg == win32con.WM_DESTROY: if self.nextWnd: win32clipboard.ChangeClipboardChain (self.hwnd, self.nextWnd) else: win32clipboard.ChangeClipboardChain (self.hwnd, 0) win32api.SetWindowLong(self.hwnd, win32con.GWL_WNDPROC, self.oldWndProc) # Pass all messages (in this case, yours may be different) on # to the original WndProc return win32gui.CallWindowProc(self.oldWndProc, hWnd, msg, wParam, lParam) def OnChangeCBChain (self, msg, wParam, lParam): if self.nextWnd == wParam: # repair the chain self.nextWnd = lParam if self.nextWnd: # pass the message to the next window in chain win32api.SendMessage (self.nextWnd, msg, wParam, lParam) def OnDrawClipboard (self, msg, wParam, lParam): if self.first: self.first = False else: #print "changed" self.word_search() #self.word_search() if self.nextWnd: # pass the message to the next window in chain win32api.SendMessage(self.nextWnd, msg, wParam, lParam) if __name__ == "__main__": root = Tk() app = Application(master=root) app.mainloop() root.destroy()

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  • UIView, UIScrollView and UITextFields problem calling Method

    - by Jeff Groby
    I have a view with several embedded UITextFields, this UIView is subordinated to a UIScrollView in IB. Each text field is supposed to invoke a method called updateText defined in the viewcontroller implementation file when the user is done editing the field. For some reason, the method updateText never gets invoked. Anyone have any ideas how to go about fixing this? The method fired off just fine when the UIScrollView was not present in the project but the keyboard would cover the text fields during input, which was annoying. Now my textfields move up above the keyboard when it appears, but won't fire off the method when done editing. Here is my implementation file: #import "MileMarkerViewController.h" @implementation MileMarkerViewController @synthesize scrollView,milemarkerLogDate,milemarkerDesc,milemarkerOdobeg,milemarkerOdoend,milemarkerBusiness,milemarkerPersonal,milemarker; - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (BOOL) textFieldShouldReturn: (UITextField*) theTextField { return [theTextField resignFirstResponder]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver: self selector: @selector(keyboardWasShown:) name: UIKeyboardDidShowNotification object: nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver: self selector: @selector(keyboardWasHidden:) name: UIKeyboardDidHideNotification object: nil]; keyboardShown = NO; // 1 [scrollView setContentSize: CGSizeMake( 320, 480)]; // 2 } - (void)keyboardWasShown:(NSNotification*)aNotification { if (keyboardShown) return; NSDictionary* info = [aNotification userInfo]; // Get the size of the keyboard. NSValue* aValue = [info objectForKey:UIKeyboardBoundsUserInfoKey]; CGSize keyboardSize = [aValue CGRectValue].size; // Resize the scroll view (which is the root view of the window) CGRect viewFrame = [scrollView frame]; viewFrame.size.height -= keyboardSize.height; scrollView.frame = viewFrame; // Scroll the active text field into view. CGRect textFieldRect = [activeField frame]; [scrollView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; keyboardShown = YES; } - (void)keyboardWasHidden:(NSNotification*)aNotification { NSDictionary* info = [aNotification userInfo]; // Get the size of the keyboard. NSValue* aValue = [info objectForKey:UIKeyboardBoundsUserInfoKey]; CGSize keyboardSize = [aValue CGRectValue].size; // Reset the height of the scroll view to its original value CGRect viewFrame = [scrollView frame]; viewFrame.size.height += keyboardSize.height; [scrollView scrollRectToVisible:CGRectMake(0, 0, 1, 1) animated:YES]; scrollView.frame = viewFrame; keyboardShown = NO; } - (void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { activeField = textField; } - (void)textFieldDidEndEditing:(UITextField *)textField { activeField = nil; } - (IBAction)updateText:(id) sender { NSLog(@"You just entered: %@",self.milemarkerLogDate.text); self.milemarker.logdate = self.milemarkerLogDate.text; self.milemarker.desc = self.milemarkerDesc.text; self.milemarker.odobeg = self.milemarkerOdobeg.text; self.milemarker.odoend = self.milemarkerOdoend.text; self.milemarker.business = self.milemarkerBusiness.text; self.milemarker.personal = self.milemarkerPersonal.text; NSLog(@"Original textfield is set to: %@",self.milemarker.logdate); [self.milemarker updateText]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Ado.net Fill method not throwing error on running a Stored Procedure that does not exist.

    - by Mike
    I am using a combination of the Enterprise library and the original Fill method of ADO. This is because I need to open and close the command connection myself as I am capture the event Info Message Here is my code so far // Set Up Command SqlDatabase db = new SqlDatabase(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectionName].ConnectionString); SqlCommand command = db.GetStoredProcCommand(StoredProcName) as SqlCommand; command.Connection = db.CreateConnection() as SqlConnection; // Set Up Events for Logging command.StatementCompleted += new StatementCompletedEventHandler(command_StatementCompleted); command.Connection.FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors = true; command.Connection.InfoMessage += new SqlInfoMessageEventHandler(Connection_InfoMessage); // Add Parameters foreach (Parameter parameter in Parameters) { db.AddInParameter(command, parameter.Name, (System.Data.DbType)Enum.Parse(typeof(System.Data.DbType), parameter.Type), parameter.Value); } // Use the Old Style fill to keep the connection Open througout the population // and manage the Statement Complete and InfoMessage events SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(command); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); // Open Connection command.Connection.Open(); // Populate da.Fill(ds); // Dispose of the adapter if (da != null) { da.Dispose(); } // If you do not explicitly close the connection here, it will leak! if (command.Connection.State == ConnectionState.Open) { command.Connection.Close(); } ... Now if I pass into the variable StoredProcName = "ThisProcDoesNotExists" And run this peice of code. The CreateCommand nor da.Fill through an error message. Why is this. The only way I can tell it did not run was that it returns a dataset with 0 tables in it. But when investigating the error it is not appearant that the procedure does not exist. EDIT Upon further investigation command.Connection.FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors = true; is causeing the error to be surpressed into the InfoMessage Event From BOL When you set FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors to true, errors that were previously treated as exceptions are now handled as InfoMessage events. All events fire immediately and are handled by the event handler. If is FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors is set to false, then InfoMessage events are handled at the end of the procedure. What I want is each print statement from Sql to create a new log record. Setting this property to false combines it as one big string. So if I leave the property set to true, now the question is can I discern a print message from an Error ANOTHER EDIT So now I have the code so that the flag is set to true and checking the error number in the method void Connection_InfoMessage(object sender, SqlInfoMessageEventArgs e) { // These are not really errors unless the Number >0 // if Number = 0 that is a print message foreach (SqlError sql in e.Errors) { if (sql.Number == 0) { Logger.WriteInfo("Sql Message",sql.Message); } else { // Whatever this was it was an error throw new DataException(String.Format("Message={0},Line={1},Number={2},State{3}", sql.Message, sql.LineNumber, sql.Number, sql.State)); } } } The issue now that when I throw the error it does not bubble up to the statement that made the call or even the error handler that is above that. It just bombs out on that line The populate looks like // Populate try { da.Fill(ds); } catch (Exception e) { throw new Exception(e.Message, e); } Now even though I see the calling codes and methods still in the Call Stack, this exception does not seem to bubble up?

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  • Editing a Gridview row with drop-down lists gets too wide - how can I use popup panels instead?

    - by David
    I have a series of GridViews in a Tab Panel - databound to a generic List of Business Objects. The columns in the Gridview are all similar to the following: <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Company" SortExpression="Company.ShortName"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblCompany" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Company.ShortName") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlCompany" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> The GridView generates the "Edit" link at the beginning of the row, all the events fire ok. The problem is that the data is getting long. When in 'display mode', it's fine because the GridView control is smart enough to break some text into multiple lines (in particular Project, Title and Worker names can get pretty long). The problem come in editing mode. Drop-down lists DON'T break entries into multiple lines (for obvious reasons). Going into Edit ode on a row in the Gridview can make the Griview expand horizontally to twice the screen size (blowing through the width limits in the Master page and CSS but that's only a related problem). What I need is something like the ModalPopup - but trying to tie it to an ID in an EditItemTemplate gives me errors when the page renders (because the 'ddlXXXX' doesn't exist at the time). In addition I don't know how to dynamically populate the panel so that I can get a response from it (like the ID of the Company they selected). I'm also trying to avoid javascript and would like this to be a 'pure' aspx/code-behind solution (for simplicity's sake among others). All the examples I find are of Modal Popups with the panels pre-defined. Even if it (the popup panel) were something like a list of checkboxes, it could be databound to the SortedList I have ready to go and an OK/Cancel button combination to accept or ignore things. I'm just not sure of what goes where. I'm open to suggestions. Thanks in advance. EDIT: Final solution looks as follows: <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Company" SortExpression="Company.ShortName"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblCompany" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Company.ShortName") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkCompany" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Company.ShortName") %>'></asp:LinkButton> <asp:Panel ID="pnlCompany" runat="server" style="display:none"> <div> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlCompany" runat="server" ></asp:DropDownList> <br/> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnOKCo" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Images/greencheck.gif" OnCommand="PopupButton_Command" CommandName="SelectCO" /> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnCxlCo" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Images/RedX.gif" /> </div> </asp:Panel> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="mpeCompany" runat="server" TargetControlID="lnkCompany" PopupControlID="pnlCompany" BackgroundCssClass="modalBackground" CancelControlID="btnCxlCo" DropShadow="true" PopupDragHandleControlID="pnlCompany" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> And in the code-behind, lstIDLabor is the generic List of data lines (of which Company is one of the properties that is also a business object) that is bound to the GridView: Sub PopupButton_Command(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As CommandEventArgs) Dim intRow As Integer Dim intVal As Integer RestoreFromSessionVariables() Select Case e.CommandName Case "SelectCO" intRow = grdIDCostLabor.EditIndex Dim ddlCo As DropDownList = CType(grdIDCost.Rows(intRow).FindControl("ddlCompany"), DropDownList) intVal = ddlCo.SelectedValue lstIDLabor(intRow).CompanyID = intVal lstIDLabor(intRow).Company = Company.Read(intVal) Case Else ' End Select MakeSessionVariables() BindGrids() End Sub

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  • Php template caching design

    - by Thomas
    Hello to all, I want to include caching in my app design. Caching templates for starters. The design I have used so far is very modular. I have created an ORM implementation for all my tables and each table is represented by the corresponding class. All the requests are handled by one controller which routes them to the appropriate webmethod functions. I am using a template class for handling UI parts. What I have in mind for caching includes the implementation of a separate Cache class for handling caching with the flexibility to either store in files, apc or memcache. Right now I am testing with file caching. Some thoughts Should I include the logic of checking for cached versions in the Template class or in the webmethods which handle the incoming requests and which eventually call the Template class. In the first case, things are pretty simple as I will not have to change anything more than pass the template class an extra argument (whether to load from cache or not). In the second case however, I am thinking of checking for a cached version immediately in the webmethod and if found return it. This will save all the processing done until the logic reaches the template (first case senario). Both senarios however, rely on an accurate mechanism of invalidating caches, which brings as to Invalidating caches As I see it (and you can add your input freely) a template cached file, becomes invalidate if: a. the expiration set, is reached. b. the template file itself is updated (ie by the developer when adding a new line) c. the webmethod that handles the request changes (ie the developer adds/deletes something in the code) d. content coming from the db and ending in the template file is modified I am thinking of storing a json encoded array inside the cached file. The first value will be the expiration timestamp of the cache. The second value will be the modification time of the php file with the code handling the request (to cope with option c above) The third will be the content itself The validation process I am considering, according to the above senarios, is: a. If the expiration of the cached file (stored in the array) is reached, delete the cache file b. if the cached file's mod time is smaller than the template's skeleton file mod time, delete the cached file c. if the mod time of the php file is greated than the one stored in the cache, delete the cached file. d. This is tricky. In the ORM implementation I ahve added event handlers (which fire when adding, updating, deleting objects). I could delete the cache file every time an object thatprovides content to the template, is modified. The problem is how to keep track which cached files correpond to each schema object. Take this example, a user has his shortprofile page and a full profile page (2 templates) These templates can be cached. Now, every time the user modifies his profile, the event handler would need to know which templates or cached files correspond to the User, so that these files can be deleted. I could store them in the db but I am looking for a beter approach

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  • Apache/PHP serving file multiple times

    - by easement
    I have a system with a download.php page. The page takes and id and loads a file based on from the DB Record and then serves it up. I've noticed a couple instances where files are requested multiple times in short time spans (20ms). Times that are too quick for human input. There are plenty of instances where the downloader functions fine. However, in taking a closer look at the downloader’s usage, I did see some interesting behavior. For instance, the IP address xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx (which is one in a range owned by xxxxxx.de in Germany) came to the site through Google. They browsed around and then came to the page http://site.com/xxxx/press+125.php There they issued a request for /download.php?id=/ZZ/n+aH55Y= (a PDF) at 9:04:23AM. That alone is not a big deal. However, what is interesting is that the server seems to have been quite preoccupied with serving that request. In the logs the request first completes between 9:09:48 and 9:10:00. It looks like the user must have gotten tired of waiting during that time and requested the document two more times. Between 09:14:47 and 09:15:00 the same request appears again, except it is from 9:04:43AM, 20ms later than the first request. Then it pops up a third time, with a request that started at 09:05:06 completing between 09:19:55 and 09:19:58! I’m suspicious of that document. In looking through the logs I see other instances where it takes the server a little while to handle that specific file. Check out this list of requests from zzz.zzz.zzz.zzz[different than above] for the file /download.php?id=/ZZ/n+aH55Y= (the same docuemnt as before): Request time Complete Time 04:32:43 04:33:36 04:32:50 04:33:36 04:32:51 04:33:38 04:33:05 04:33:38 04:33:34 04:33:42 04:33:05 04:33:42 So something is definitely going on. Whether it has to do with this specific document tripping up the server, the download.php page’s code, or if we’re just seeing the evidence of some server level overload as it plays out in real time I’m not yet sure. In fairness, there are other instances of people downloading /download.php?id=/ZZ/n+aH55Y= (the same PDF) without error. However, it is interesting that the multiple processes only seem to happen with this one file, and then only when it is accessed through the page http://site.com/press+125.php . It bears further investigation if there’s something amiss inside the code that causes the system to fire off multiple download requests that occupy the server. I don't know if this press+125.php is a rabbit hole, but there is weird consicence. Any ideas? I'm totally out of ideas. Apache maxed out? Things like that. ///DOWNLOAD.php $file = new files(); $file->comparison_filter("id", "=", $id); //sql to load if ($file->load()) { $file->serve(); } //FILES function serve() { if ($this->is_loaded) { if (file_exists($this->get_value("filename"))) { if ($this->get_value("content_type") != "") { header("Content-Type: " . $this->get_value("content_type")); } header("Content-Length: " . filesize($this->get_value("filename"))); if ($this->get_value("flag_image") == 0 || $this->get_value("flag_image") == false) { header("Cache-Control: private"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=" . urlencode($this->get_value("original_filename"))); } set_time_limit(0); @readfile($this->get_value("filename")); exit; } } }

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  • onCommand on button not firing inside gridView??

    - by sah302
    This is really driving me crazy. I've got a button inside a gridview to remove that item from the gridview (its datasource is a list). I've got the list being saved to session anytime a change is being made to it, and on page_load check if that session variable is empty, if not, then set that list to bind to the gridview. Code Behind: Public accomplishmentTypeDao As New AccomplishmentTypeDao() Public accomplishmentDao As New AccomplishmentDao() Public userDao As New UserDao() Public facultyDictionary As New Dictionary(Of Guid, String) Public facultyList As New List(Of User) Public associatedFaculty As New List(Of User) Public facultyId As New Guid Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'If Not Session("associatedFaculty") Is Nothing Then' ' Dim associatedFacultyArray As User() = DirectCast(Session("associatedFaculty"), User())' ' associatedFaculty = associatedFacultyArray.ToList()' 'End If' Page.Title = "Add a New Faculty Accomplishment" ddlAccomplishmentType.DataSource = accomplishmentTypeDao.getEntireTable() ddlAccomplishmentType.DataTextField = "Name" ddlAccomplishmentType.DataValueField = "Id" ddlAccomplishmentType.DataBind() facultyList = userDao.getListOfUsersByUserGroupName("Faculty") For Each faculty As User In facultyList facultyDictionary.Add(faculty.Id, faculty.LastName & ", " & faculty.FirstName) Next If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ddlFacultyList.DataSource = facultyDictionary ddlFacultyList.DataTextField = "Value" ddlFacultyList.DataValueField = "Key" ddlFacultyList.DataBind() End If gvAssociatedUsers.DataSource = associatedFaculty gvAssociatedUsers.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub deleteUser(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.CommandEventArgs) facultyId = New Guid(e.CommandArgument.ToString()) associatedFaculty.Remove(associatedFaculty.Find(Function(user) user.Id = facultyId)) Session("associatedFaculty") = associatedFaculty.ToArray() gvAssociatedUsers.DataBind() upAssociatedFaculty.Update() End Sub Protected Sub btnAddUser_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnAddUser.Click facultyId = New Guid(ddlFacultyList.SelectedValue) associatedFaculty.Add(facultyList.Find(Function(user) user.Id = facultyId)) Session.Add("associatedFaculty", associatedFaculty.ToArray()) gvAssociatedUsers.DataBind() upAssociatedFaculty.Update() End Sub Protected Sub Delete(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.CommandEventArgs) End Sub End Class Markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upAssociatedFaculty" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <p><b>Created By:</b> <asp:Label ID="lblCreatedBy" runat="server"></asp:Label></p> <p><b>Accomplishment Type: </b><asp:DropDownList ID="ddlAccomplishmentType" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList></p> <p><b>Accomplishment Applies To: </b><asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFacultyList" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList> &nbsp;<asp:Button ID="btnAddUser" runat="server" Text="Add Faculty" OnClientClick="incrementCounter();" /></p> <p> <asp:GridView ID="gvAssociatedUsers" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" GridLines="None" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Id" HeaderText="Id" Visible="False" /> <asp:TemplateField ShowHeader="False"> <ItemTemplate> <span style="margin-left: 15px;"> <p><%#Eval("LastName")%>, <%#Eval("FirstName")%> <asp:Button ID="btnUnassignUser" runat="server" CausesValidation="false" CommandArgument='<%# Eval("Id") %>' CommandName="Delete" OnCommand="deleteUser" Text='Remove' /></p> </span> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> <EmptyDataTemplate> <em>There are currently no faculty associated with this accomplishment.</em> </EmptyDataTemplate> </asp:GridView> </p> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Now here is the crazy part I am simply boggled by, if I uncomment the If Not Session... block of page_load, then deleteUser will never fire when btnUnassignUser is clicked. If I keep it commented out...it fires no problem, but then of course my list can never have more than one item since I am not loading the saved list from session into the gridview but just a fresh one. But the button click is being registered, because page_load is being stepped through again when I am viewing in debug mode, just deleteUser never fires. Why is this happening?? And how can I fix it??

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  • How do I get a delete trigger working using fluent API in CTP5?

    - by user668472
    I am having trouble getting referential integrity dialled down enough to allow my delete trigger to fire. I have a dependent entity with three FKs. I want it to be deleted when any of the principal entities is deleted. For principal entities Role and OrgUnit (see below) I can rely on conventions to create the required one-many relationship and cascade delete does what I want, ie: Association is removed when either principal is deleted. For Member, however, I have multiple cascade delete paths (not shown here) which SQL Server doesn't like, so I need to use fluent API to disable cascade deletes. Here is my (simplified) model: public class Association { public int id { get; set; } public int roleid { get; set; } public virtual Role role { get; set; } public int? memberid { get; set; } public virtual Member member { get; set; } public int orgunitid { get; set; } public int OrgUnit orgunit { get; set; } } public class Role { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Member { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Organization { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } My first run at fluent API code looks like this: protected override void OnModelCreating(System.Data.Entity.ModelConfiguration.ModelBuilder modelBuilder) { DbDatabase.SetInitializer<ConfDB_Model>(new ConfDBInitializer()); modelBuilder.Entity<Member>() .HasMany(m=>m.assocations) .WithOptional(a=>a.member) .HasForeignKey(a=>a.memberId) .WillCascadeOnDelete(false); } My seed function creates the delete trigger: protected override void Seed(ConfDB_Model context) { context.Database.SqlCommand("CREATE TRIGGER MemberAssocTrigger ON dbo.Members FOR DELETE AS DELETE Assocations FROM Associations, deleted WHERE Associations.memberId = deleted.id"); } PROBLEM: When I run this, create a Role, a Member, an OrgUnit, and an Association tying the three together all is fine. When I delete the Role, the Association gets cascade deleted as I expect. HOWEVER when I delete the Member I get an exception with a referential integrity error. I have tried setting ON CASCADE SET NULL because my memberid FK is nullable but SQL complains again about multiple cascade paths, so apparently I can cascade nothing in the Member-Association relationship. To get this to work I must add the following code to Seed(): context.Database.SqlCommand("ALTER TABLE dbo.ACLEntries DROP CONSTRAINT member_aclentries"); As you can see, this drops the constraint created by the model builder. QUESTION: this feels like a complete hack. Is there a way using fluent API for me to say that referential integrity should NOT be checked, or otherwise to get it to relax enough for the Member delete to work and allow the trigger to be fired? Thanks in advance for any help you can offer. Although fluent APIs may be "fluent" I find them far from intuitive.

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  • window.requestFileSystem fails/events firing multiple times in PhoneGap Cordova 3

    - by ezycheez
    cordova 3.1.0-0.2.0 Droid Razr M Android 4.1.2 Windows 7 New to PhoneGap/Cordova. Running one of the filesystem demos from http://docs.phonegap.com/en/3.1.0/cordova_file_file.md.html#File. Using "cordova run android" to compile the code and run it on the phone attached via USB. Problem #1: When the app first starts I get alert("1") twice and then nothing else. Problem #2: When I kick of the code via the button onclick I get the following alert pattern: 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 6, 5, 7, 4, 6, 5, 7. Some of that makes sense based on the code flow but most of them are firing twice. I'm suspecting problem #2 is being caused by some asynchronous calls hanging out from the first attempt but no matter how long I wait those events don't fire until I kick of the code via the button. So why is the requestFileSystem call failing even though it is waiting for deviceready and why is the other code getting intermingled? Any thoughts are appreciated. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>FileReader Example</title> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="cordova.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> // Wait for device API libraries to load // document.addEventListener("deviceready", onDeviceReady, false); // device APIs are available // function onDeviceReady() { alert("1"); window.requestFileSystem(LocalFileSystem.PERSISTENT, 0, gotFS, fail); } function gotFS(fileSystem) { alert("2"); fileSystem.root.getFile("readme.txt", null, gotFileEntry, fail); } function gotFileEntry(fileEntry) { alert("3"); fileEntry.file(gotFile, fail); } function gotFile(file) { alert("4"); readDataUrl(file); alert("5"); readAsText(file); } function readDataUrl(file) { alert("6"); var reader = new FileReader(); reader.onloadend = function (evt) { console.log("Read as data URL"); console.log(evt.target.result); }; reader.readAsDataURL(file); } function readAsText(file) { alert("7"); var reader = new FileReader(); reader.onloadend = function (evt) { console.log("Read as text"); console.log(evt.target.result); }; reader.readAsText(file); } function fail(error) { alert("8"); console.log(error.code); } </script> </head> <body> <h1>Example</h1> <p>Read File</p> <button onclick="onDeviceReady();">Read File</button> </body> </html>

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  • JSF2 - Problems with Composite Components and Validatiors

    - by Shadowman
    I've created some Facelets to make developing our pages easier. Particularly, I've created a series of Facelets for input components. I have 1 Facelet, <xxx:input /> that displays a label around the input field. Beyond that, I have Facelets like <xxx:inputText /> and <xxx:inputSecret /> that render the actual input field. Each of these makes use of <xxx:input /> to display the label. The Facelet looks something like this: <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <label><h:outputText value="#{cc.attrs.labelText}" /></label> <composite:insertChildren /> </composite:implementation> </html> The <xxx:inputText /> Facelet would then look like this... <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <xxx:input labelText=...> <h:inputText id="myinput" ... /> </xxx:input> </composite:implementation> </html> Everything renders just fine, but I am having troubles when trying to add <f:validator /> or other validation tags. From what I've read, I have to add a tag to my Facelet. So, I added <composite:editableValueHolder name="myinput" targets="myinput" /> line in the interface section. However, I still do not see my validator being fired. I have something like this in my .xhtml file... ... <xxx:inputText value="..."> <f:validateLength minimum="10" /> </xxx:inputText> ... Regardless of the input I enter, the validator never seems to fire and I never get an error message. A coworker suggested that it is due to the target ID I am using and the fact that it is wrapped by the <xxx:input /> Facelet. Do I need to incorporate the parent component ID in my target definition? Is there something else that I'm missing? It works just fine if I exclude the <xxx:input /> Facelet, so I'm assuming it's something related to that, but don't know how to solve it. Any help you can provide is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • How do you send a named pipe string from umnanaged to managed code space?

    - by billmcf
    I appear to have a named pipes 101 issue. I have a very simple set up to connect a simplex named pipe transmitting from a C++ unmanaged app to a C# managed app. The pipe connects, but I cannot send a "message" through the pipe unless I close the handle which appears to flush the buffer and pass the message through. It's like the message is blocked. I have tried reversing the roles of client/server and invoking them with different Flag combinations without any luck. I can easily send messages in the other direction from C# managed to C++ unmanaged. Does anyone have any insight. Can any of you guys successfully send messages from C++ unmanaged to C# managed? I can find plenty of examples of intra amanged or unmanaged pipes but not inter managed to/from unamanged - just claims to be able to do it. In the listings, I have omitted much of the wrapper stuff for clarity. The key bits I believe that are relevant are the pipe connection/creation/read and write methods. Don't worry too much about blocking/threading here. C# Server side // This runs in its own thread and so it is OK to block private void ConnectToClient() { // This server will listen to the sending client if (m_InPipeStream == null) { m_InPipeStream = new NamedPipeServerStream("TestPipe", PipeDirection.In, 1); } // Wait for client to connect to our server m_InPipeStream.WaitForConnection(); // Verify client is running if (!m_InPipeStream.IsConnected) { return; } // Start listening for messages on the client stream if (m_InPipeStream != null && m_InPipeStream.CanRead) { ReadThread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(Read)); ReadThread.Start(m_InPipeStream); } } // This runs in its own thread and so it is OK to block private void Read(object serverObj) { NamedPipeServerStream pipeStream = (NamedPipeServerStream)serverObj; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(pipeStream)) { while (true) { string buffer = "" ; try { // Blocks here until the handle is closed by the client-side!! buffer = sr.ReadLine(); // <<<<<<<<<<<<<< Sticks here } catch { // Read error break; } // Client has disconnected? if (buffer == null || buffer.Length == 0) break; // Fire message received event if message is non-empty if (MessageReceived != null && buffer != "") { MessageReceived(buffer); } } } } C++ client side // Static - running in its own thread. DWORD CNamedPipe::ListenForServer(LPVOID arg) { // The calling app (this) is passed as the parameter CNamedPipe* app = (CNamedPipe*)arg; // Out-Pipe: connect as a client to a waiting server app->m_hOutPipeHandle = CreateFile("\\\\.\\pipe\\TestPipe", GENERIC_WRITE, 0, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_ATTRIBUTE_NORMAL, NULL); // Could not create handle if (app->m_hInPipeHandle == NULL || app->m_hInPipeHandle == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { return 1; } return 0; } // Sends a message to the server BOOL CNamedPipe::SendMessage(CString message) { DWORD dwSent; if (m_hOutPipeHandle == NULL || m_hOutPipeHandle == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { return FALSE; } else { BOOL bOK = WriteFile(m_hOutPipeHandle, message, message.GetLength()+1, &dwSent, NULL); //FlushFileBuffers(m_hOutPipeHandle); // <<<<<<< Tried this return (!bOK || (message.GetLength()+1) != dwSent) ? FALSE : TRUE; } } // Somewhere in the Windows C++/MFC code... ... // This write is non-blocking. It just passes through having loaded the pipe. m_pNamedPipe->SendMessage("Hi de hi"); ...

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  • Using resize to getScript if above x pixels (jQuery)

    - by user1065573
    So I have an issue with this script. It basically is loading the script on any resize event. I have it working if lets say... - User has window size above 768 (getScipt() and content by .load() in that script) - Script will load (and content) - User for some reason window size goes below 768 (css hides #div) - User re-sizes again above 768, And does not load the script again! (css displays the div) Great. Works right. Now.. (for some cray reason) - User has window size below 768 (Does NOT getScript() or nothing) - User re-sizes above 768 and stops at any px (getScript and content) - User re-sizes again anything above 768 (It getScript AGAIN) I need it to only get script once. Ive used some code from here jQuery: How to detect window width on the fly? (edit - i found this, which he has the same issue of loading a script once.) Problem with function within $(window).resize - using jQuery And others i lost the links to :/ When i first found this problem I was using something like this, then i added the allcheckWidth() to solve problem. But it does not. var $window = $(window); function checkWidth() { var windowsize = $window.width(); ////// LETS GET SOME THINGS IF IS DESKTOP var $desktop_load = 0; if (windowsize >= 768) { if (!$desktop_load) { // GET DESKTOP SCRIPT TO KEEP THINGS QUICK $.getScript("js/desktop.js", function() { $desktop_load = 1; }); } else { } } ////// LETS GET SOME THINGS IF IS MOBILE if (windowsize < 768) { } } checkWidth(); function allcheckWidth () { var windowsize = $window.width(); //// IF WINDOW SIZE LOADS < 768 THEN CHANGES >= 768 LOAD ONCE var $desktop_load = 0; if (!$desktop_load) { if (windowsize < 768) { if ( $(window).width() >= 768) { $.getScript("js/desktop.js", function() { $desktop_load = 1; }); } } } } $(window).resize(allcheckWidth); Now im using something like this which makes more sense? $(function() { $(window).resize(function() { var $desktop_load = 0; //Dekstop if (window.innerWidth >= 768) { if (!$desktop_load) { // GET DESKTOP SCRIPT TO KEEP THINGS QUICK $.getScript("js/desktop.js", function() { $desktop_load + 1; }); } else { } } if (window.innerWidth < 768) { if (window.innerWidth >= 768) { if (!$desktop_load) { // GET DESKTOP SCRIPT TO KEEP THINGS QUICK $.getScript("js/desktop.js", function() { $desktop_load + 1; }); } else { } } } }) .resize(); // trigger resize event }) Ty for future response. Edit - To give an example, in desktop.js i have a gif that loads before "abc" content, that gets inserted by .load(). On resize this gif will show up and the .load() in desktop.js will fire again. So if getScript was only being called once, it should not be doing anything again in desktop.js. Confusing?

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