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  • Different behavior of reflected generic delegates with and without debugger

    - by Andrew_B
    Hello. We have encountered some strange things while calling reflected generic delegates. In some cases with attatched debuger we can make impossible call, while without debugger we cannot catch any exception and application fastfails. Here is the code: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Reflection; namespace GenericDelegate { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate Class2 Delegate1(); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MethodInfo mi = typeof (Class1<>).GetMethod("GetClass", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static); if (mi != null) { Delegate1 del = (Delegate1) Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof (Delegate1), mi); MessageBox.Show("1"); try { del(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("No, I can`t catch it"); } MessageBox.Show("2"); mi.Invoke(null, new object[] {});//It's Ok, we'll get exception here MessageBox.Show("3"); } } class Class2 { } class Class1<T> : Class2 { internal static Class2 GetClass() { Type type = typeof(T); MessageBox.Show("Type name " + type.FullName +" Type: " + type + " Assembly " + type.Assembly); return new Class1<T>(); } } } } There are two problems: Behavior differs with debugger and without You cannot catch this error without debugger by clr tricks. It's just not the clr exception. There are memory acces vialation, reading zero pointer inside of internal code. Use case: You develop something like plugins system for your app. You read external assembly, find suitable method in some type, and execute it. And we just forgot about that we need to check up is the type generic or not. Under VS (and .net from 2.0 to 4.0) everything works fine. Called function does not uses static context of generic type and type parameters. But without VS application fails with no sound. We even cannot identify call stack attaching debuger. Tested with .net 4.0 The question is why VS catches but runtime do not?

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  • Draw rectangle-like objects on a bitmap

    - by _simon_
    I am performing OCR (optical character recognition) on a bunch of images. Images are grouped into different projects (tickets, credit cards, insurance cards etc). Each image represents an actual product (for instance, if we have images of credit cards, picture1.jpg is image of my credit card, picture2.jpg is image of your credit card,... you get it). I have a settings.xml file, which contains regions of the image, where OCR should be performed. Example: <Project Name="Ticket1" TemplateImage="...somePath/templateTicket1.jpg"> <Region Name="Prefix" NumericOnly="false" Rotate="0"> <x>470</x> <y>395</y> <width>31</width> <height>36</height> </Region> <Region Name="Num1" NumericOnly="true" Rotate="0"> <x>555</x> <y>402</y> <width>123</width> <height>35</height> </Region> </Project> </Project Name="CreditCard" TemplateImage="...somePath/templateCreditCard1.jpg"> <Region Name="SerialNumber" NumericOnly="false" Rotate="90"> <x>332</x> <y>12</y> <width>20</width> <height>98</height> </Project> I would like to set these parameters through GUI (now I just write them into xml file). So, first I load a template image for a project (an empty credit card). Then I would like to draw a rectangle around a text, where OCR should be performed. I guess this isn't hard, but it would be great if I could also move and resize this rectangle object in the picture. I have to display all regions (rectangles) on the picture also. Also - there will probably be a list of regions in a listview, so when you click a region in this listview, it should mark it on the picture in a green color for example. Do you know for a library, which I could use? Or a link with some tips how to create such objects?

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  • Bing search API and Azure

    - by Gapton
    I am trying to programatically perform a search on Microsoft Bing search engine. Here is my understanding: There was a Bing Search API 2.0 , which will be replaced soon (1st Aug 2012) The new API is known as Windows Azure Marketplace. You use different URL for the two. In the old API (Bing Search API 2.0), you specify a key (Application ID) in the URL, and such key will be used to authenticate the request. As long as you have the key as a parameter in the URL, you can obtain the results. In the new API (Windows Azure Marketplace), you do NOT include the key (Account Key) in the URL. Instead, you put in a query URL, then the server will ask for your credentials. When using a browser, there will be a pop-up asking for a/c name and password. Instruction was to leave the account name blank and insert your key in the password field. Okay, I have done all that and I can see a JSON-formatted results of my search on my browser page. How do I do this programmatically in PHP? I tried searching for the documentation and sample code from Microsoft MSDN library, but I was either searching in the wrong place, or there are extremely limited resources in there. Would anyone be able to tell me how do you do the "enter the key in the password field in the pop-up" part in PHP please? Thanks alot in advance.

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

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  • CakePHP - Sorting using HABTM Join Table Field

    - by Ashok
    Hello Cake Gurus, here's my problem: Table1: Posts id - int title - varchar Table2: Categories id - int name - varchar HABTM JoinTable: categories_posts id - int post_id - int category_id - int postorder - int As you can see, the join table contains a field called 'postorder' - This is for ordering the posts in a particular category. For example, Posts: Post1, Post2, Post3, Post4 Categories: Cat1, Cat2 Ordering: Cat1 - Post1, Post3, Post2 Cat2 - Post3, Post1, Post4 Now in CakePHP, $postpages = $this->Post->Category->find('all'); gives me a array like Array ( [0] => Array ( [Category] => Array ( [id] => 13 [name] => Cat1 ) [Post] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Post2 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 17 [post_id] => 1 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 3 ) ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 4 [title] => Post1 [CategoriesPost] => Array ( [id] => 21 [post_id] => 4 [category_id] => 13 [postorder] => 1 ) ) ) ) ) As you can see [Post], they are not ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder but are ordered according to [CategoriesPost].id. How can I get the array ordered according to [CategoriesPost].postorder? Thanks in advance for your time :) Edit: The Queries from Cake's SQL Log are: SELECT `Category`.`id`, `Category`.`name` FROM `categories` AS `Category` WHERE 1 = 1 SELECT `Post`.`id`, `Post`.`title`, `CategoriesPost`.`id`, `CategoriesPost`.`post_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`category_id`, `CategoriesPost`.`postorder` FROM `posts` AS `Post` JOIN `categories_posts` AS `CategoriesPost` ON (`CategoriesPost`.`category_id` IN (13, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52) AND `CategoriesPost`.`post_id` = `Post`.`id`) What I am looking for is how to make cake put a Order By CategoriesPost.postorder in that second SELECT SQL Query.

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  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • GWT + JDO + ArrayList

    - by dvieira
    Hi, I'm getting a Null ArrayList in a program i'm developing. For testing purposes I created this really small example that still has the same problem. I already tried diferent Primary Keys, but the problem persists. Any ideas or suggestions? 1-Employee class @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Employee { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String key; @Persistent private ArrayList<String> nicks; public Employee(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.setNicks(nicks); } public String getKey() { return key; } public void setNicks(ArrayList<String> nicks) { this.nicks = nicks; } public ArrayList<String> getNicks() { return nicks; } } 2-EmployeeService public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements EmployeeService { public void addEmployee(){ ArrayList<String> nicks = new ArrayList<String>(); nicks.add("name1"); nicks.add("name2"); Employee employee = new Employee(nicks); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); try { pm.makePersistent(employee); } finally { pm.close(); } } /** * @return * @throws NotLoggedInException * @gwt.typeArgs <Employee> */ public Collection<Employee> getEmployees() { PersistenceManager pm = getPersistenceManager(); try { Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT FROM " + Employee.class.getName()); Collection<Employee> list = pm.detachCopyAll((Collection<Employee>)q.execute()); return list; } finally { pm.close(); } } }

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  • Average over a timeframe with missing data

    - by BHare
    Assuming a table such as: UID Name Datetime Users 4 Room 4 2012-08-03 14:00:00 3 2 Room 2 2012-08-03 14:00:00 3 3 Room 3 2012-08-03 14:00:00 1 1 Room 1 2012-08-03 14:00:00 2 3 Room 3 2012-08-03 14:15:00 1 2 Room 2 2012-08-03 14:15:00 4 1 Room 1 2012-08-03 14:15:00 3 1 Room 1 2012-08-03 14:30:00 6 1 Room 1 2012-08-03 14:45:00 3 2 Room 2 2012-08-03 14:45:00 7 3 Room 3 2012-08-03 14:45:00 8 4 Room 4 2012-08-03 14:45:00 4 I wanted to get the average user count of each room (1,2,3,4) from the time 2PM to 3PM. The problem is that sometimes the room may not "check in" at the 15 minute interval time, so the assumption has to be made that the previous last known user count is still valid. For example the check-in's for 2012-08-03 14:15:00 room 4 never checked in, so it must be assumed that room 4 had 3 users at 2012-08-03 14:15:00 because that is what it had at 2012-08-03 14:00:00 This follows on through so that the average user count I am looking for is as follows: Room 1: (2 + 3 + 6 + 3) / 4 = 3.5 Room 2: (3 + 4 + 4 + 7) / 4 = 4.5 Room 3: (1 + 1 + 1 + 8) / 4 = 2.75 Room 4: (3 + 3 + 3 + 4) / 4 = 3.25 where # is the assumed number based on the previous known check-in. I am wondering if it's possible to so this with SQL alone? if not I am curious of a ingenious PHP solution that isn't just bruteforce math, as such as my quick inaccurate pseudo code: foreach ($rooms_id_array as $room_id) { $SQL = "SELECT * FROM `table` WHERE (`UID` == $room_id && `Datetime` >= 2012-08-03 14:00:00 && `Datetime` <= 2012-08-03 15:00:00)"; $result = query($SQL); if ( count($result) < 4 ) { // go through each date and find what is missing, and then go to previous date and use that instead } else { foreach ($result) $sum += $result; $avg = $sum / 4; } }

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  • Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

    - by JLevett
    I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

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  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

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  • Zend_Db Enum Values [Closed]

    - by scopus
    I find this solution $metadata = $result->getTable()->info('metadata'); echo $metadata['Continent']['DATA_TYPE']; Hi, I want to get enum values in Zend_Db. My Code: $select = $this->select(); $result = $select->fetchAll(); print_r($result->getTable()); Output: Example Object ( [_name] => country [query] => Zend_Db_Table_Select Object ( [_info:protected] => Array ( [schema] => [name] => country [cols] => Array ( [0] => Code [1] => Continent ) [primary] => Array ( [1] => Code ) [metadata] => Array ( [Continent] => Array ( [SCHEMA_NAME] => [TABLE_NAME] => country [COLUMN_NAME] => Continent [COLUMN_POSITION] => 3 [DATA_TYPE] => enum('Asia','Europe','North America','Africa','Oceania','Antarctica','South America') [DEFAULT] => Asia [NULLABLE] => [LENGTH] => [SCALE] => [PRECISION] => [UNSIGNED] => [PRIMARY] => [PRIMARY_POSITION] => [IDENTITY] => ) I see enum values in data_type but i don't get this values. How can get data_type?

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • ajax checkbox filter

    - by user1018298
    I need some help with a checkbox filter I am working in. I have four groups of checkboxes (type, vehicle, availability, price) and I would like to filter the content on the page based on the user's input. I can get the filter working OK but I am having issues with the groups. I can only seem to match one checkbox from each group rather than all checkboxes from each group. For example, a visitor can select 1 option in group 1, all options in group 2, 1 option in group three and 1 option in group 4. I am using ajax to build an SLQ query to return the correct filtered results from my database. here is my code: $('div.filters').delegate('input:checkbox', 'change', function() { var type = $('input.exp_type:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var vehicle = $('input.vehicle_type:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var avail = $('input.availability:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var price = $('input.price:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); //alert($options); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"filtervouchers.php", data:"type="+type+"&vehicle="+vehicle+"&avail="+avail+"&price="+price, success:function(data){ $('.results').html(data); } });//end ajax }) and the php code: $type = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['type']); $vehicles = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['vehicle']); $avail = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['avail']); $price = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['price']); if ($type != '') { $sql2 = " AND exp_type IN ($type)"; } if ($vehicles != '') { $sql3 = " AND vehicle_type LIKE '%$vehicles%'"; } if ($avail != '') { $sql4 = " AND availability LIKE '%,' $avail% ','"; } if ($price != '') { $sql5 = " AND price_band IN ($price)"; } Can this be done using jquery?

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  • Entity framework with Linq to Entities performance

    - by mare
    If I have a static method like this public static string GetTicClassificationTitle(string classI, string classII, string classIII) { using (TicDatabaseEntities ticdb = new TicDatabaseEntities()) { var result = from classes in ticdb.Classifications where classes.ClassI == classI where classes.ClassII == classII where classes.ClassIII == classIII select classes.Description; return result.FirstOrDefault(); } } and use this method in various places in foreach loops or just plain calling it numerous times, does it create and open new connection every time? If so, how can I tackle this? Should I cache the results somewhere, like in this case, I would cache the entire Classifications table in Memory Cache? And then do queries vs this cached object? Or should I make TicDatabaseEntities variable static and initialize it at class level? Should my class be static if it contains only static methods? Because right now it is not.. Also I've noticed that if I return result.First() instead of FirstOrDefault() and the query does not find a match, it will issue an exception (with FirstOrDefault() there is no exception, it returns null). Thank you for clarification.

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • How Best to Replace Ugly Queries and Dynamic PL/SQL with C#?

    - by Mike
    Hi, I write a lot of one-off Oracle SQL queries (in Toad), and sometimes they can get complex, involving lots of unions, joins, and subqueries, and sometimes requiring dynamic SQL. That is, sometimes SQL queries require set based processing along with significant procedural processing. This is what PL/SQL is custom made for, but as a language it does not begin to compare to C#. Now and then I convert a PL/SQL procedure to C#, and am always amazed at how much cleaner and easier to both read and write the C# version is. The C# program might for example construct a SQL query string piece by piece and/or run several queries and process them as needed. The C# version is usually much faster as well, which must mean that I'm not very good at PL/SQL either. I do not currently have access to LINQ. My question is, how best to package all these little C# programs, which are really just mini reports, that is, replacements for ugly SQL queries? Right now I'm actually using NUnit to hold them, and calling each report a [Test], even though they aren't really tests. NUnit just happens to provide a convenient packaging framework.

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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  • Unable to insert DateTime format into database

    - by melvg
    I'm unable to insert the DateTime into my database. Am i writing the statement wrongly? Apparently without the DateTime, I am able to insert into the database string dateAndTime = date + " " + time; CultureInfo provider = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture; DateTime theDateTime = DateTime.ParseExact(dateAndTime, "d MMMM yyyy hh:mm tt", provider); //Create a connection, replace the data source name with the name of the SQL Anywhere Demo Database that you installed SAConnection myConnection = new SAConnection("UserID=dba;Password=sql;DatabaseName=emaDB;ServerName=emaDB"); //open the connection ; myConnection.Open(); //Create a command object. SACommand insertAccount = myConnection.CreateCommand(); //Specify a query. insertAccount.CommandText = ("INSERT INTO [meetingMinutes] (title,location,perioddate,periodtime,attenders,agenda,accountID,facilitator,datetime) VALUES ('"+title+"','" + location + "', '" + date + "','" + time + "', '" + attender + "','" + agenda + "', '" + accountID + "','" + facilitator + "','" +theDateTime+ "')"); try { insertAccount.ExecuteNonQuery(); if (title == "" || agenda == "") { btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", "displayIfSuccessfulInsert();"); //ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, GetType(), "error", "alert('Please ensure to have a title or agenda!');", true); } else { btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", "displayIfSuccessfulInsert();"); Response.Redirect("HomePage.aspx"); //ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Redit", "alert('Minutes Created!'); window.location='" + Request.ApplicationPath + "/HomePage.aspx';", true); } } catch (Exception exception) { Console.WriteLine(exception); } finally { myConnection.Close(); } It does not insert the SQL into my database.

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  • Need help/suggestions for creating fantasy sports scoring databases and queries

    - by MGumbel
    I'm trying to create a website for my friends and I to keep track of fantasy sports scoring. So far, I've been doing the calculations and storage in Excel, which is very tedious. I'm trying to make it more simplified and automated through a SQL database that I can then wrap a web app around to enter daily stat updates. It's premised on our participation in another commercial site where we trade virtual shares of athletes, and thus acquire an "ownership percentage" in each athlete. For instance, if there are 100 shares of AROD, and I own 10 shares, then I own 10%. It then applies this to traditional baseball rotisserie scoring. So, for instance, if AROD has 1 HR today, then his adjusted HR stat would be 1.10. If he also has 2 RBI's, then his adjusted RBI stat today would be 2.20, based on (2 x 1.10)(1 to normalize the stat, and the .10 to represent the ownership percentage). All the stats for my team would then be summed each day and added to my stat history to come to an aggregated total. After that, points are allocated based on the ranking of each participant in each category at the end of the day. E.g. if there are 10 participants, and I have the highest total aggregate number of Adjusted HR's, then I get 10 pts. The points are then summed across the different stat categories to come up with a total point ranking for that day. An added difficulty is that ownership %'s can change on a daily basis. So far, in playing around with different schema, I don't know that having a separate table for each athlete's stats and each player's ownership %'s is the wisest choice. It seems to me that simply having two tables, one that contains the daily stat information for each athlete, and another that shows the ownership % of each player. My friend suggested using a start and end date for each ownership % to represent the potential daily changes in this category. I'm admittedly new to database development, so any suggestions on query code would be appreciated.

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  • jquery mobile mPDF not rendering on form submission

    - by Adam
    Im trying to have the user submit form data to a mPDF page the will render a pdf with the data included. The problem Im having is that jquery mobile initializes the mPDF page not allowing the mPDF to render properly. Im trying to figure out how to stop jquery mobile from initializing the mPDF page. Just a note, when I remove query mobile the functionality works. HTML <form id="rxForm" method="post" action="rxPDF.php"> <input type="text" name="dueDate"></form> </form> <button id="printPDF">Submit</button> JQUERY $('#printPDF').on('click', function() { console.log('pdf'); $('#rxForm').submit(); return false; }); mPDF <?php include ("library/mpdf.php"); $dueDate = $_POST['dueDate']; $html = 'The date is '.$dueDate.''; $mpdf = new mPDF(); $mpdf->WriteHTML($html, 0); $mpdf->Output(); exit; ?> I appreciate anyone's help!

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  • CommandName issues to insert to a database

    - by Alexander
    In the below code, when we define the parameters CommandName="Insert" is it actually the same as executing the method Insert? As I can't find Insert anywhere... <div class="actionbuttons"> <Club:RolloverButton ID="apply1" CommandName="Insert" Text="Add Event" runat="server" /> <Club:RolloverLink ID="Cancel" Text="Cancel" runat="server" NavigateURL='<%# "Events_view.aspx?EventID=" + Convert.ToString(Eval("ID")) %>' /> </div> I have the following SqlDataSource as well: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ClubSiteDB %>" SelectCommand="SELECT dbo.Events.id, dbo.Events.starttime, dbo.events.endtime, dbo.Events.title, dbo.Events.description, dbo.Events.staticURL, dbo.Events.photo, dbo.Events.location, dbo.Locations.title AS locationname FROM dbo.Events LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Locations ON dbo.Events.location = dbo.Locations.id where Events.id=@id" InsertCommand="INSERT INTO Events(starttime, endtime, title, description, staticURL, location, photo) VALUES (@starttime, @endtime, @title, @description, @staticURL, @location, @photo)" UpdateCommand="UPDATE Events SET starttime = @starttime, endtime=@endtime, title = @title, description = @description, staticURL = @staticURL, location = @location, photo = @photo WHERE (id = @id)" DeleteCommand="DELETE Events WHERE id=@id" OldValuesParameterFormatString="{0}"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="id" QueryStringField="ID" /> </SelectParameters> <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="starttime" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="endtime" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="title" /> <asp:Parameter Name="description" /> <asp:Parameter Name="staticURL" /> <asp:Parameter Name="location" /> <asp:Parameter Name="photo" /> <asp:Parameter Name="id" /> </UpdateParameters> <InsertParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="starttime" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="endtime" Type="DateTime" /> <asp:Parameter Name="title" /> <asp:Parameter Name="description" /> <asp:Parameter Name="staticURL" /> <asp:Parameter Name="location" /> <asp:Parameter Name="photo" /> <asp:Parameter Name="id" /> </InsertParameters> <DeleteParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="id" QueryStringField="ID" /> </DeleteParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> I want it to insert using the InsertCommand, however when I do SqlDataSource1.Insert() it's complaining that starttime is NULL

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  • custom *arbitrary* TemplateField definitions

    - by end-user
    I'm building a GridView on the fly, and I'd like to pre-define the TemplateFields to be included ondemand. So, what I'd like to do is have a declarative file that defines how the different templates look for a specific column. Like: <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a text column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> data goes here </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox Text="databindhere" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a bool column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> if(true) "yes" else "no" </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox Checked="databindme" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> So, if my query had a text and two bool fields, I could push the appropriate TemplateFields in the the Columns property as needed. (I hope I'm making sense here) So, how would I go about creating declarative files for the above definitions? And then, how would I reference those definitions programmatically?

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  • How can I set the tab on a webpage depending on which page you come from in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by uriDium
    I have a rather large entity. It has a parent relationship with many different child tables. Each of the child tables I have represented as a tab (luckily it makes sense and looks nice and makes things easier to navigate). If the users wants to add a new child row, they go the particular tab, and there they see a list of rows which is owned by the parent and they can do the usual CRUD. The CRUD takes them to a new controller and action and passes the ID of the parent to the action. (This is as far as I can tell what I was meant to do, any other ideas??) When they have finsihed they click save and it takes them back to the original page BUT I want it to automatically go to the right tab. How can I do this? I am using Jquery UI tabs, ASP.Net MVC 2.0. One idea I had was to just go back to the bookmark (the href part with the #, for e.g. /Parent/Details/4/#tabname). Apparently JQuery UI tabs can handle this. Or to set the tab name as part of the query string (/Parent/Details/4?tab=name) What is the best practise here?

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