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  • SQLite/iPhone read copyright symbol

    - by Marco A
    Hi All, I am having problems reading the copyright symbol from a sqlite db that I have for my App that I am developing. I import the information manually, ie, from an excel sheet. I have tried two ways of doing it and failed with both: 1) Tried replacing the copyright symbol with "\u00ae" (unicode combination) within excel and then importing the modified file. - Result: I get the combination of \u00ae as a part of the string, it doesnt detect the unicode combination. 2) Tried leaving as it is. Importing the excel with the copyright symbol. - Result: I get a symbol that is different from the copyright, its something like an AE put together.looks like this: Æ Heres my code how I read from DB: -(void) readCategoriesFromDatabase:(NSString *) rest_input { // Init the products Array categories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Open the database from the users filessytem rest_input = [rest_input stringByAppendingString:@"'"]; NSString *newString; newString = [@"select distinct category from food where restaurant='" stringByAppendingString:rest_input]; const char *cat_sqlStatement = [newString UTF8String]; sqlite3_stmt *cat_compiledStatement; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, cat_sqlStatement, -1, &cat_compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(cat_compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *catName = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(cat_compiledStatement,0)]; // Create a new product object with the data from the database Product *category = [[Product alloc] initWithName:catName]; // Add the product object to the respective Array [categories addObject:category]; [category release]; } sqlite3_finalize(cat_compiledStatement); } NSLog(@"Finished Accessing Database to gather Categories...."); } I open the DB with this function: -(void) checkAndCreateDatabase{ NSLog(@"Checking/Creating Database...."); NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:databasePath]; [fileManager removeFileAtPath:databasePath handler:nil]; NSString *databasePathFromApp = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; [fileManager copyItemAtPath:databasePathFromApp toPath:databasePath error:nil]; [fileManager release]; if (sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) != SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_close(database); database = nil; } NSLog(@"Finished Checking/Creating Database...."); } Thanks to anything that can help me out.

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  • How to send variable to php with ajax?

    - by Dee1983
    <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function load(thediv, thefile) { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject('Microsoft.XMLHTTP)'); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { document.getElementById(thediv) .innerHTML = xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open('GET', thefile, true); xmlhttp.send(); } </script> </head> <body> <?php //connection to db and mysql query $result = mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); $options=""; while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $id=$row["idProducts"]; $thing=$row["country"]; $options.="<OPTION VALUE=\"$id\">".$thing.'</option>'; } mysql_close(); ?> <SELECT id="countrySearch" NAME=countrySearch onchange="load('divtest', 'step2.search.php')";> <OPTION VALUE=0>Choose <?=$options?> </SELECT> <div id="divtest"> test </div> </body> step2.search.php consists of: <?php echo "I want it to store the users selection as a variable for php to use"; ?> The problem I have is I want to store what the user selects from the drop down box and use it in php to do a mysql query using the variable from the user select form to form the WHERE part of the mysql statement. Then use ajax to put new data in "divtest". How can I store the user selection into a variable then send it to be used in step2.search.php?

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • mysql - combining columns and tables

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, I'm not much of a SQL man so I'm seeking help for this one. I have a site where I have a database for all accounts and whatnot, and another for storing actions that the user has done on the site. Each user has their own table but I want to combine the data of each user group ( all users that are "linked together" ) and order that data in the time the actions took place. Heres what I have; <?php $query = "SELECT `TALKING_TO` FROM `nnn_instant_messaging` WHERE `AUTHOR` = '" . DISPLAY_NAME . "' AND `TALKING_TO` != ''"; $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { $table_str = ""; $select_ref_clause = "( "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "( "; while( $row = mysql_fetch_array( $query ) ) { $table_str .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . "`, "; $select_ref_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".TIME_STAMP`, "; } $table_str = $table_str . "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = substr($select_ref_clause, 0, -2) . ") AS `REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = substr($select_time_stamp_clause, 0, -2) . " ) AS `TIME_STAMP`"; }else{ $table_str = "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = "`REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "`TIME_STAMP`"; } $where_clause = $select_ref_clause . $select_time_stamp_clause; $query = "SELECT " . $where_clause . " FROM " . $table_str . " ORDER BY TIME_STAMP"; die($query); $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { }else{ ?> <p>Currently no actions have taken place in your network.</p> <?php } ?> The code above returns the sql statement: SELECT ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.REF`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.REF`) AS `REF`, ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.TIME_STAMP`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.TIME_STAMP` ) AS `TIME_STAMP` FROM `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson`, `actvbiz_networks`.`act_web_designs` ORDER BY TIME_STAMP I really am learning on my feet with SQL. Its not the PHP I have a problem with ( I can quite happly code away with PHP ) I'ts just help with the SQL statement. Any help much appreciated, REgards, Phil

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  • Get Confirm value in vb.net

    - by user1805641
    I have a hidden asp Button in a Repeater. In the VB.NET code behind I use the Rerpeater_ItemCommand to get the click event within the Repeater. There's a check if user is already recording a project. If yes and he wants to start a new one, a confirm box should appear asking "Are you sure?" How can I access the click value from confirm? <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemCommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="tile user_view user_<%# Eval("employeeName") %>"> <div class="tilesheight"></div> <div class="element"> <asp:Button ID="Button1" CssClass="hiddenbutton" runat="server" /> Index: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("index") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> customer: <asp:Label ID="CustomerLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("customer") %>' /><br /> <hr class ="hr" /> order: <asp:Label ID="OrderNoLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("orderNo") %>' /><br /> <asp:Label ID="DescriptionLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("description") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> code behind: If empRecs.Contains(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Then 'Catch index of recording order i = empRecs.IndexOf(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType, "confirm", "confirm('Order " & empRecs(i + 2) & " already recording. Would you like to start a new one?')",True) 'If users clicks ok insertData() End If Other solutions are using the Click Event and a hidden field. But the problem is, I don't want the confirmbox to appear every time the button is clicked. Only when empRecs conatins an employee. Thanks for helping

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  • SQL Server - Get Inserted Record Identity Value when Using a View's Instead Of Trigger

    - by CuppM
    For several tables that have identity fields, we are implementing a Row Level Security scheme using Views and Instead Of triggers on those views. Here is a simplified example structure: -- Table CREATE TABLE tblItem ( ItemId int identity(1,1) primary key, Name varchar(20) ) go -- View CREATE VIEW vwItem AS SELECT * FROM tblItem -- RLS Filtering Condition go -- Instead Of Insert Trigger CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go If I want to insert a record and get its identity, before implementing the RLS Instead Of trigger, I used: DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); With the trigger, SCOPE_IDENTITY() no longer works - it returns NULL. I've seen suggestions for using the OUTPUT clause to get the identity back, but I can't seem to get it to work the way I need it to. If I put the OUTPUT clause on the view insert, nothing is ever entered into it. -- Nothing is added to @ItemIds DECLARE @ItemIds TABLE (ItemId int); INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId INTO @ItemIds VALUES ('MyName'); If I put the OUTPUT clause in the trigger on the INSERT statement, the trigger returns the table (I can view it from SQL Management Studio). I can't seem to capture it in the calling code; either by using an OUTPUT clause on that call or using a SELECT * FROM (). -- Modified Instead Of Insert Trigger w/ Output CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go -- Calling Code INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); The only thing I can think of is to use the IDENT_CURRENT() function. Since that doesn't operate in the current scope, there's an issue of concurrent users inserting at the same time and messing it up. If the entire operation is wrapped in a transaction, would that prevent the concurrency issue? BEGIN TRANSACTION DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = IDENT_CURRENT('tblItem'); COMMIT TRANSACTION Does anyone have any suggestions on how to do this better? I know people out there who will read this and say "Triggers are EVIL, don't use them!" While I appreciate your convictions, please don't offer that "suggestion".

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  • help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

    - by ajsie
    im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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  • User authentication in Django. Problems with is_authenticated

    - by tim
    I have one problem with users menu. So, I want, that authenticated user can see his/her profile page and logout (links) in menu. It works (when I logging in) on index page: index, page1, profile, logout ,but, if I go to the, for example, page1 I can see in menu: index, page1, login, not profile and logout. How to fix it? in urls: url(r'^accounts/login/$', 'django.contrib.auth.views.login' ), url(r'^accounts/logout/$', 'django.contrib.auth.views.logout_then_login' ), url(r'^accounts/profile/$', 'my_app.views.profile' ), in views: def profile(request): if not request.user.is_authenticated(): return HttpResponseRedirect("/accounts/login/") else: user = request.user.is_authenticated() return render_to_response('profile.html',locals()) Part of index.html: {% if user.is_authenticated or request.user.is_authenticated %} <li><a href="/accounts/profile/">Profile</a></li> <li><a href="/accounts/logout/">logout</a></li> {% else %} <li><a href="/accounts/login/">login</a></li> {% endif %} login.html: {% extends "index.html" %} {% load url from future %} {% block application %} {% if form.errors %} <p>Try one more time</p> {% endif %} <form method="post" action="{% url 'django.contrib.auth.views.login' %}"> {% csrf_token %} <table> <tr> <td>{{ form.username.label_tag }}</td> <td>{{ form.username }}</td> </tr> <tr> <td>{{ form.password.label_tag }}</td> <td>{{ form.password }}</td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Login" /> <input type="hidden" name="next" value="{{ next }}" /> </form> {% endblock %} profile.html: {% extends "index.html" %} {% block application %} {% if request.user.is_authenticated %} <p>Welcome, {{ request.user.username }}. Thanks for logging in.</p> {% else %} <p>Welcome, new user. Please log in.</p> {% endif %} {% endblock %}

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • Generics vs Object performance

    - by Risho
    I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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  • How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

    - by Chris
    I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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  • unable to calculate textfield values

    - by user1726508
    i am trying to change the input field when users changes the quantity of items in a text field. Here i am iterating my list from my database. Now i have to make invoice for customer. In my code , if i am changing quantity of a single item, then it is effecting all the other items in the list. I want to change only to the specific items,where its quantity has been change. Below code is giving me error. It is changing all the items value on single change of item quantity. my code; <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(function() { $('input[name="quantity"]').change(function() { var unitprice = $('input[name^="unitprice"]').val(); $(this).parents('tr').find('input[name^="price"]').val($(this).val() * unitprice); }); }); }); </script> <tr> <td height="65%" valign="top" width="100%"> <table width="100%" height="100%" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <s:iterator value="#session.BOK" status="userStatus"> <tr style="height: 10px;"> <td width="65%" align="left"><s:property value="bookTitile"/></td> <td width="10%" align="left"><s:textfield name="unitprice" value="%{price}" size="4"/></td> <td width="10%" align="center"><s:textfield name="quantity" value="%{quantity}" size="2"/></td> <td width="15%" align="center"><s:textfield name="price" size="6"></s:textfield> </td> </tr> </s:iterator> </table> </td> </tr> output looks like this image...

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  • C++ include statement required if defining a map in a headerfile.

    - by Justin
    I was doing a project for computer course on programming concepts. This project was to be completed in C++ using Object Oriented designs we learned throughout the course. Anyhow, I have two files symboltable.h and symboltable.cpp. I want to use a map as the data structure so I define it in the private section of the header file. I #include <map> in the cpp file before I #include "symboltable.h". I get several errors from the compiler (MS VS 2008 Pro) when I go to debug/run the program the first of which is: Error 1 error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'table' c:\users\jsmith\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\project2\project2\symboltable.h 22 Project2 To fix this I had to #include <map> in the header file, which to me seems strange. Here are the relevant code files: // symboltable.h #include <map> class SymbolTable { public: SymbolTable() {} void insert(string variable, double value); double lookUp(string variable); void init(); // Added as part of the spec given in the conference area. private: map<string, double> table; // Our container for variables and their values. }; and // symboltable.cpp #include <map> #include <string> #include <iostream> using namespace std; #include "symboltable.h" void SymbolTable::insert(string variable, double value) { table[variable] = value; // Creates a new map entry, if variable name already exist it overwrites last value. } double SymbolTable::lookUp(string variable) { if(table.find(variable) == table.end()) // Search for the variable, find() returns a position, if thats the end then we didnt find it. throw exception("Error: Uninitialized variable"); else return table[variable]; } void SymbolTable::init() { table.clear(); // Clears the map, removes all elements. }

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  • How do I send a javascript variable to a subsequent jquery function or set of braces?

    - by desbest
    How do I send a javascript variable to a subsequent jquery function? Here is my code. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var name = $("#name"), email = $("#email"), password = $("#password"), itemid = $("#itemid"), tips = $(".validateTips"); function updateTips(t) { tips .text(t) .addClass('ui-state-highlight'); setTimeout(function() { tips.removeClass('ui-state-highlight', 1500); }, 500); } $("#dialog-form").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 320, width: 350, modal: true, /* buttons: { 'Change category': function() { alert("The itemid2 is "+itemid2); var bValid = true; $('#users tbody').append('<tr>' + '<td>' + name.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + email.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + password.val() + '</td>' + '<td>' + itemid.val() + '</td>' + '</tr>'); $(this).dialog('close'); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } }, */ close: function() { allFields.val('').removeClass('ui-state-error'); } }); $('.changecategory') .button() .click(function() { var categoryid = $(this).attr("categoryid"); var itemid = $(this).attr("itemid"); var itemid2 = $(this).attr("itemid"); var itemtitle = $(this).attr("itemtitle"); var parenttag = $(this).parent().get(0).tagName; var removediv = "itemid_" +itemid; alert("The itemid is "+itemid); $('#dialog-form').dialog('open'); }); }); </script> I'll break it down. The .changecategory section happens FIRST when an image on my page is clicked. $("#dialog-form").dialog({ is then called, and the variable item id is not passed to this function. How can I pass a variable from one function to another? Is that possible. Is there a way I can pass a variable to another jquery function without having to resort of setting a cookie with javascript and then using jquery to read it?

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • Serialize JavaScript's navigator object

    - by kappa
    Hi, I'm creating a page to help diagnose the problem our users are experiencing with our web pages (you know, asking a user "What browser are you using?" usually leads to "Internet"). This page already submits to me all the HTTP headers and now I'm trying to have JavaScript give some more informations, so I thought it would be great to have the user's navigator JavaScript object and I started looking how to serialize it so I can submit it through a form. The problem is I'm not able to serialize the navigator object using any JSON library I know of, everyone returns an empty object (?!), so I decided to write an ad-hoc serializer. You can find the code here: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function serialize (object) { var type = typeof object; if (object === null) { return '"nullValue"'; } if (type == 'string' || type === 'number' || type === 'boolean') { return '"' + object + '"'; } else if (type === 'function') { return '"functionValue"'; } else if (type === 'object') { var output = '{'; for (var item in object) { if (item !== 'enabledPlugin') { output += '"' + item + '":' + serialize(object[item]) + ','; } } return output.replace(/\,$/, '') + '}'; } else if (type === 'undefined') { return '"undefinedError"'; } else { return '"unknownTypeError"'; } }; $(document).ready(function () { $('#navigator').text(serialize(navigator)); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> #navigator { font-family: monospaced; } </style> <title>Serialize</title> </head> <body> <h1>Serialize</h1> <p id="navigator"></p> </body> </html> This code seems to work perfectly in Firefox, Opera, Chrome and Safari but (obviously) doesn't work in Internet Explorer (at least version 8.0), it complains that "Property or method not supported by the object" at line for (var item in object) {. Do you have any hint on how to fix the code or how to reach the goal (serialize the navigator object) by other means?

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  • assign a model's attribute through association

    - by justcode
    I'm new to rails and working on a rails app and I'm stuck pondering this issue. I have three models class product < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :issn, :category validates_presence_of :name, :issn, :category validates_numericality_of :issn, :message => "has to be a number" has_many :user_products has_many :users, :through => :user_products end class UserProduct < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :category validates_presence_of :price, :category validates_numericality_of :price, :message = "has to be a number" belongs_to :user belongs_to :product end class user < ActiveRecord::Base # devise authentication here # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me has_many :user_products has_many :products, :through = :user_products end here is my new.html.erb <div class="MainBodyWrapper"> <div class="span8"> <div id="listBoxWrapper"> <fieldset> <%= form_for(@product, :html => { :class => "form-inline" }, :style => "margin-bottom: 60px" ) do |f| %> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="name">name</label> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :price, :class => 'input-xlarge input-name', :id => "name" %> </div> </div> <div class="listingButtons"> <button class="btn btn-info"></i>Add</button> <a class="btn">Upload Pictures (anytime)</a> </div> </fieldset> </div> </div> There are reasons why I want to setup the models this way. So the question is this: I want the user to enter the info for the product in the form but it also involves putting in the price of the product which exists in a different model/table (user_product) that is associated with product. How can I do this? You can see that my form_for uses @product. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • Web Services, Memory Leaks and CRM

    - by Neil
    Hi, I have a website that allows users to upload a csv file. This calls a service that reads the information from the csv, puts it into DynamicEntity objects and calls the CRM service to Create/Update entities in CRM. When this service creates/updates an entity this kicks off other plugins to apply certain business rules. These rules can also Create or Update entites in CRM. The issue here is that the handle count of the w3wp.exe process that the website is calling increases every time the an entity is created or updated and it never comes back down. I tried putting Garbage Collection code in the business rules and this reduces the handle count of the CRM w3wp process (run by the Network Service), but not the other w3wp process. Should I have Dispose methods on the Web Service that calls the CRM service? I hope that makes sense. I'm not overly familiar with memory management issues so any help is appreciated. Can anybody give me some tips on how to stop this from occurring? Thanks, Neil -- EDIT Okay well the handle count goes up when I call the Service.Create(DynamicEntity) method. I don't think placing any code here would be beneficial. When I exit the method/class/service that contains this call the handle count stays as it is. What I need to know is whether this is something I should be managing or is it something CRM takes care of (or doesn't take care of but I can't do anything about it) -- Another Edit Right this is how it works. 1) We have CRM and its related services 2) We have another service independent of CRM that uses the CRM services (number 1 above) to create entities based on csv info passed into it 3) We have a website that allows a user to upload a csv, and calls service no 2 above to Create/Update entities in CRM 4) We have plugins fired by CRM which use Service 1 above to create/update entities So the user uploads a csv to the website (3), this fires a service(2). When service 2 creates an entity using service 1, Service 4 fires. Service 4 calls also uses service 1 to Create entities, and when these services are called (using the Service.Create() method) the handle count of the process increases. When the method/class/services finish the handle count remains the same, and so when the whole process occurs again the handle count will increased again.

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  • IE7 and 8 Hangs Randomly on CSS Images

    - by BJ Safdie
    We have an ASP.NET 3.5 application that has been in production for over a year. Our last release was a couple of months ago. We use CSS for styling and application of background images to divs and such. The server is Windows 2003 with IIS. Suddenly, this week, we have had reports from some users that the page seems to hang up while loading. The status bar was showing the name of a background image used in the page main area (assigned in CSS). At our office, some of us could recreate the problem, while others could not. IE6 and Firefox do not seem to be affected, only IE7/8. Running Fiddler on an affected machine and trying to see what was happening with the requests seemed to make the problem go away (while running through Fiddler, it returned when not). Hitting Refresh on a hung load often made the page load just fine. I checked the background image, and even replaced it with an archived copy. No joy. We re-deployed the app from our production source. No Joy. We restarted IIS and eventually rebooted the whole server. There are no unusual entries in the event logs, the app logs or the IIS logs. Finally, I removed the image entirely and re-styled the page not to use a background image. That solved the problem at least for now. However, we have reports of other images "hanging." The images are PNGs, but I have heard some rumors that sometimes a GIF hangs, but I have no screenshot to confirm. This just started happening "out of the blue." There have been no releases or updates applied to the server recently. We even checked updates on clients to see if a recent Windows Update might have caused this on the client, but there was nothing updated within the last couple of weeks. If you have any information about this problem, I would love to hear from you. I would also greatly appreciate any recommendations on additional diagnostics we can try.

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  • Marionette js itemview not defined: then on browser refresh it is defined and all works well - race condition?

    - by Robert
    Yeah it's just the initial browser load or two after a cache clear. Subsequent refreshes clear the problem up. I'm thinking the item views just aren't fully constructed in time to be used in the collection views on the first load. But then they are on a refresh? Don't know. There must be something about the code sequence or loading or the load time itself. Not sure. I'm loading via require.js. Have two collections - users and messages. Each renders in its own list view. Each works, just not the first time or two the browser loads. The first time you load after clearing browser cache the console reports, for instance: "Uncaught ReferenceError: MessageItemView is not defined" A simple browser refresh clears it up. Same goes for the user collection. It's collection view says it doesn't know anything about its item view. But a simple browser refresh and all is well. My views (item and collection) are in separate files. Is that the problem? For instance, here is my message collection view in its own file: messagelistview.js var MessageListView = Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: MessageItemView, el: $("#messages") }); And the message item view is in a separate file: messageview.js var MessageItemView = Marionette.ItemView.extend({ tagName: "div", template: Handlebars.compile( '<div>{{fromUserName}}:</div>' + '<div>{{message}}</div>' + ) }); Then in my main module file, which references each of those files, the collection view is constructed and displayed: main.js //Define a model MessageModel = Backbone.Model.extend(); //Make an instance of MessageItemView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js MessageView = new MessageItemView(); //Define a message collection var MessageCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: MessageModel }); //Make an instance of MessageCollection var collMessages = new MessageCollection(); //Make an instance of a MessageListView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js var messageListView = new MessageListView({ collection: collMessages }); App.messageListRegion.show(messageListView); Do I just have things sequenced wrong? I'm thinking it's some kind of race condition only because over 3G to an iPad the item views are always undefined. They never seem to get constructed in time. PC on a hard wired connection does see success after a browser refresh or two.

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  • Techniques for querying a set of object in-memory in a Java application

    - by Edd Grant
    Hi All, We have a system which performs a 'coarse search' by invoking an interface on another system which returns a set of Java objects. Once we have received the search results I need to be able to further filter the resulting Java objects based on certain criteria describing the state of the attributes (e.g. from the initial objects return all objects where x.y z && a.b == c). The criteria used to filter the set of objects each time is partially user configurable, by this I mean that users will be able to select the values and ranges to match on but the attributes they can pick from will be a fixed set. The data sets are likely to contain <= 10,000 objects for each search. The search will be executed manually by the application user base probably no more than 2000 times a day (approx). It's probably worth mentioning that all the objects in the result set are known domain object classes which have Hibernate and JPA annotations describing their structure and relationship. Off the top of my head I can think of 3 ways of doing this: For each search persist the initial result set objects in our database, then use Hibernate to re-query them using the finer grained criteria. Use an in-memory Database (such as hsqldb?) to query and refine the initial result set. Write some custom code which iterates the initial result set and pulls out the desired records. Option 1 seems to involve a lot of toing and froing across a network to a physical Database (Oracle 10g) which might result in a lot of network and disk activity. It would also require the results from each search to be isolated from other result sets to ensure that different searches don't interfere with each other. Option 2 seems like a good idea in principle as it would allow me to do the finer query in memory and would not require the persistence of result data which would only be discarded after the search was complete. Gut feeling is that this could be pretty performant too but might result in larger memory overheads (which is fine as we can be pretty flexible on the amount of memory our JVM gets). Option 3 could be very performant but is something I would like to avoid as any code we write would require such careful testing that the time taken to acheive something flexible and robust enough would probably be prohibitive. I don't have time to prototype all 3 ideas so I am looking for comments people may have on the 3 options above, plus any further ideas I have not considered, to help me decide which idea might be most suitable. I'm currently leaning toward option 2 (in memory database) so would be keen to hear from people with experience of querying POJOs in memory too. Hopefully I have described the situation in enough detail but don't hesitate to ask if any further information is required to better understand the scenario. Cheers, Edd

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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