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  • GlassFish cluster-targeted jdbc is not enabled

    - by Jin Kwon
    I have a GlassFish cluster. When I tried to add node and a instance, DAS saids a bunch of error messages telling Resource [ jdbc/xxxx ] of type [ jdbc ] is not enabled [#|2012-11-14T12:07:04.318+0900|SEVERE|glassfish3.1.2|javax.enterprise.system.core.com.sun.enterprise.v3.server|_ThreadID=2803;_ThreadName=Thread-2;|java.lang.StackOverflowError at java.io.FileOutputStream.writeBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileOutputStream.write(FileOutputStream.java:318) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.write(BufferedOutputStream.java:122) at java.io.PrintStream.write(PrintStream.java:480) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.writeBytes(StreamEncoder.java:221) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.implFlushBuffer(StreamEncoder.java:291) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.implFlush(StreamEncoder.java:295) at sun.nio.cs.StreamEncoder.flush(StreamEncoder.java:141) at java.io.OutputStreamWriter.flush(OutputStreamWriter.java:229) at java.util.logging.StreamHandler.flush(StreamHandler.java:242) at java.util.logging.ConsoleHandler.publish(ConsoleHandler.java:106) at java.util.logging.Logger.log(Logger.java:522) at com.sun.logging.LogDomains$1.log(LogDomains.java:372) at java.util.logging.Logger.doLog(Logger.java:543) at java.util.logging.Logger.log(Logger.java:607) at com.sun.enterprise.resource.deployer.JdbcResourceDeployer.deployResource(JdbcResourceDeployer.java:117) at org.glassfish.javaee.services.ResourceProxy.create(ResourceProxy.java:90) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:507) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:455) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:411) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:411) at com.sun.appserv.connectors.internal.api.ResourceNamingService.lookup(ResourceNamingService.java:221) the JDBC Resource is ok and targeted with the cluster. I've installed the JDBC driver on the new node. Can anybody help?

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  • OS X Client & Ubuntu Server - Best way for client to access files on server?

    - by Camsoft
    I've got a local development web server running Ubuntu. I also have an iMac running OS X 10.6 which I use a client and is my development machine. I'm currently have Samba server installed on my Ubuntu server. I have shares setup for all the website directories. I then use my Mac and Coda to edit the files via their shares. This generally works really well but I noticed that my Mac was writing loads of resource fork ._filename files everywhere. I found out the following about the files: These files are created on volumes that don't natively support full HFS file characteristics (e.g. ufs volumes, Windows fileshares, etc). When a Mac file is copied to such a volume, its data fork is stored under the file's regular name, and the additional HFS information (resource fork, type & creator codes, etc) is stored in a second file (in AppleDouble format), with a name that starts with "._". (These files are, of course, invisible as far as OS-X is concerned, but not to other OS's; this can sometimes be annoying...) Does anyone know of a way of sharing files between a Mac client and a Linux server that is most compantable between the two operation systems? Ideally it needs to support the HFS filesystem so that the resource forks are not created and it also needs to support the permissions between server and client.

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  • unable to destroy windows 2008 r2 failover cluster after SAN rebuild

    - by Zack
    I created a windows 2008 r2 failover cluster for a sql 2008 active/passive cluster. This two node cluster was using a SAN device for a quorum disk resource as well as MSDTC resource. Well....I decided to reconfigure the SAN device, but I didn't destroy the cluster first. Now that the quorum disk and mstdc disk are completely gone, the cluster is obviously not working. But, I can't even destroy the cluster and start again. I've tried from the Windows Clustering tool, as well as the command line. I was able to get the cluster service to start using the "/fixquorum" parameter. After doing this I was able to remove the passive node from the cluster, but it wouldn't let me destroy the cluster because the default resource group and msdtc are still attached as resources. I tried to delete these resources from both the GUI tool, as well as command line. It will either freeze for several minutes and crash the program, or once it even BSOD'd the server. Can someone advise on how to destroy this cluster so I can start over?

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  • Intermittent Trouble Entering Hibernate on WinXP

    - by kquinn
    My personal desktop, running 32-bit Windows XP SP2 (with 4GB RAM, 2.75GB addressable, swap disabled, hiberfil.sys existing and contiguous on C:\; SP3 is not installed because SP2 has been working fine and I do not want to re-qualify with SP3 just for sheer perversity) typically gets hibernated at night. For a long time this worked great, but recently the machine has had trouble entering hibernation. Sometimes when I press my power button (configured to hibernate), the box will start the procedure for hibernating (i.e., go to the blue "Windows XP" background logo and display a message about entering hibernation), but before displaying the usual blue-on-black hibernation progress bar it will drop back to the desktop. No error messages appear, on screen or in the system log. The only record of unsuccessful hibernation attempts in the system log, which proudly proclaims that "The Windows Image Acquisition (WIA) service entered the running state." once per failed hibernation attempt. The problem is almost certainly resource related: if I then close one or more applications which are running, and repeat the exact same process, the machine will hibernate perfectly. There does not appear to be a reliable high-water mark for virtual or physical memory use, below which the machine is guaranteed to hibernate; it's different every time (though typically, below about 1.1–1.4 GB memory usage seems to be where hibernate succeeds most often). Memory may not even be the relevant resource; as far as I know, it could also be handles or sockets. This behavior is relatively recent: it has only started in the last few months; before then, I could hibernate reliably no matter what the current resource use of the system. This machine claims to have hotfix Q909095 installed, but since the symptoms of my problem match KB909095 rather well, I'm suspicious if this fix is actually working as intended. Any ideas on how to fix this or where to start debugging?

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  • Calendar booking issue - Exchange 2003 and 2010

    - by NaOH
    In our organization we are running Exchange 2003 and 2010 simultaneously, with the hopes of migrating everyone to Exchange 2010 sometime within the next few months. Everyone is using Outlook 2010. Recently, we had an issue with transaction log storage on the Exchange 2003 server. This was resolved, but for some reason no meeting rooms on the Exchange 2003 server will automatically book meetings any longer. I have played around with this for a while, changing calendar permissions, turning resource scheduling off and back on, etc. No dice. My next step was to try migrating a resource to the Exchange 2010 server. After doing so, and setting it up as a Room, enabling Auto-Accept and removing the EnableDirectBooking registry entry on my PC, I can book a meeting with this room. If EnableDirectBooking is enabled, I get an error message stating: "Meeting Room" declined your meeting because it is recurring. You must book each meeting separately with this resource. This is despite the fact that the meeting I'm attempting to create has no recurrence. Now, I have also created a new test Room from scratch on the Exchange 2010 server, and I can book a meeting with this Room regardless of whether or not I have the EnableDirectBooking reg entry in place. All users here have this registry entry, and I'd rather not have to figure out how to push something out to remove it from every PC. Rather, I'd like to figure out what's different between the configurations of these two meeting rooms so that I could book a meeting room regardless of whether EnableDirectBooking is enabled or not. Any ideas, anyone? Thanks!

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  • What is causing sudden freezing during running real-time program?

    - by Trevor Boyd Smith
    So I run a high intensive (CPU/GPU) real-time program. During normal execution suddenly everything freezes for 1-4 seconds. I opened "Process Explorer" in the background to help gain insight and maybe identify something. Here is what the CPU/GPU graphs looks like when I align them in time: Notice the 4 distinct drops in both the CPU/GPU. You can see that it goes from some sort of positive CPU/GPU usage to almost zero. These drops in the graph align with when the real-time program suddenly freezes. How do I find what is causing these sudden drops? NOTE: When you put your mouse over the graph it tells you the time, accurate to the second, for where your cursor is. Maybe this mouse over feature could be helpful in some way (e.g. what if you had a log of all processes every 100ms). EDIT: The real-time program is a video game and so I can't watch some sort of instrumentation while the video game is running. I need a solution that let's you look back in time somehow to see what was happening when the slow down occurred. EDIT: RE - Recording Data vs using real-time monitor: So the windows performance recorder is for some reason not recording what I expect it to record. So I switched to using "perfmon" and then opening it's "resource monitor". RE - Setting it up so I can view real-time monitor: In the video game I set it to spectate and then put the video game in "windowed" mode so that I can view the real time display that Resource Monitor has. Now that I can get semi-real time (only once per second... how do you get more than once per second?) I started looking at the various real time data readouts. Getting to the cause: I noticed a strong correlation in high disk IO and low CPU usage (which is also seen by having in-game freezing). How do you use resource monitor to find out who is doing all this offending disk IO?

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  • arrays in puppet

    - by paweloque
    I'm wondering how to solve the following puppet problem: I want to create several files based on an array of strings. The complication is that I want to create multiple directories with the files: dir1/ fileA fileB dir2/ fileA fileB fileC The problem is that the file resource titles must be unique. So if I keep the file names in an array, I need to iterate over the array in a custom way to be able to postfix the file names with the directory name: $file_names = ['fileA', 'fileB'] $file_names_2 = [$file_names, 'fileC'] file {'dir1': ensure => directory } file {'dir2': ensure => directory } file { $file_names: path = 'dir1', ensure =>present, } file { $file_names_2: path = 'dir2', ensure =>present, } This wont work because the file resource titles clash. So I need to append e.g. the dir name to the file title, however, this will cause the array of files to be concatenated and not treated as multiple files... arghh.. file { "${file_names}-dir1": path = 'dir1', ensure =>present, } file { "${file_names_2}-dir2": path = 'dir1', ensure =>present, } How to solve this problem without the necessity of repeating the file resource itself. Thanks

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  • How to make project auto-estimate duration based on work?

    - by Bruno Brant
    This one has bothered me for a long while. I like to do estimates thinking on how much time a certain task will take (I'm in TI business), so, let's say, it takes 12 hours to build a program. Now, let's say I tell Project that my beginning date is today. If I allocate one resource to this task, it means that the task will last 1,5 days, implying that it will end tomorrow. But right now, that is not what it's doing. I say that the task will take 1 hour, and when I add a resource to it, it allocate the resource at [13%] basis, which means that the duration is still fixed... project is trying to make the task last for a day. I have, on many occasions, accomplished this. What I do is build a plan based on these rough estimates for effort, then I allocate tasks to resources. Times conflict, so I level resources and then Project magically tells me how long, in days, will it take. But every time I have to start estimating again, I end up having trouble on how to make project work like that.

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  • Stepmania + KDE4 = sound problem

    - by picca
    I cannot manage to get KDE4 + stepmania working. If I run StepMania I always get: StepMania 3.9 Log starting 2010-12-24 14:52:48 Loading window: gtk OS: Linux ver 020636 Crash backtrace component: x86 custom backtrace Crash lookup component: dladdr Crash demangle component: cxa_demangle Runtime library: glibc 2.11.2 Threads library: NPTL 2.11.2 TLS is available ALSA: Advanced Linux Sound Architecture Driver Version 1.0.23. ALSA Driver: 0: HDA ATI SB [SB], device 0: STAC92xx Analog [STAC92xx Analog], 0/1 subdevices avail ALSA Driver: 0: HDA ATI SB [SB], device 1: STAC92xx Digital [STAC92xx Digital], 1/1 subdevices avail Couldn't load driver ALSA: dsnd_pcm_open(hw:0): Device or resource busy Mixing 0.000000 ahead in 0 Mix() calls Couldn't load driver ALSA-sw: dsnd_pcm_open(hw:0): Device or resource busy Mixing 0.000000 ahead in 0 Mix() calls Couldn't load driver OSS: RageSound_OSS: Couldn't open /dev/dsp: Device or resource busy Language: english Theme: default Error: Couldn't find a sound driver that works I found that in StepMania/Data/StepMania.ini I should add following line: SoundDevice=default That enables me to run StepMania, but I don't have any sound. Which is pretty bad for an application like this one. I'm quite sure that the problem is in phonon that is blocking the audio device to which StepMania needs to access directly. I think that I can fix this if I run other (lighter) window-manager than KDE4. But that is not a solution occasional linux user. Do I have any chance to get StepMania under KDE4 completely working?

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  • Install Exchange 2013 with DSC

    - by Alain Laventure
    I tried to install Exchange 2013 with the resource windowsProcess in existing Exchange Configuration. All prerequisites are installed (the Exchange Organization still exists). This is my Resource section: WindowsProcess Exchange2013 { Credential=$credential Path= "C:\Sources\Cumulative Update 5 for Exchange Server 2013 (KB2936880)\Setup.exe" Arguments= "/mode:Install /role:Mailbox /IAcceptExchangeServerLicenseTerms /TargetDir:C:\EX2013" Ensure= "Present" } #End Filter } #End Node } # End configuration /* @TargetNode='TargetDSC02' @GeneratedBy=exadmin @GenerationDate=08/02/2014 08:16:03 @GenerationHost=SOURCEDSC02 */ instance of MSFT_Credential as $MSFT_Credential1ref { Password = "Password1"; UserName = "S05\\Exadmin"; }; Exadmin is a member of Orgaganization Management Group and it is also member of Domain Admin Group, to be able to install Exchange When I execute this resource , Exchange Installation Start but after 1 minute the installation stops with this error: Failed [Rule:GlobalServerInstall] [Message:You must be a member of the 'Organization Management' role group or a member of the 'Enterprise Admins' group to continue.] To be sure that the right is really the problem I create a special User with only Administrator right of the Exchange server and with no Exchange Permission I run manually on the new Exchange server .\Setup.exe /mode:Install /role:Mailbox /IAcceptExchangeServerLicenseTerms /Targetdir:C:\EX2013 And I got the Same error that with DSC. After I add my test user in the Organization Management Group and I run again manually .\Setup.exe /mode:Install /role:Mailbox /IAcceptExchangeServerLicenseTerms /Targetdir:C:\EX2013 And the Exchange 2013 installation finish without any error. That prove that the problem with DSC is Permission right.

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  • Can mod-rewrite be used to set environmental variables?

    - by VLostBoy
    Hi, I've got an existing simple rewrite rule like so: <Directory /path> RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / # if the requested resource does not exist RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # route the uri to a front controller RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </Directory> This works fine, but I want to do one of either two things. On the basis of detecting the clients accept-language header, I want to either (i) Set the detected language as an environmental variable that the script can use or (ii)Rewrite the request so that the url begins with the language code (e.g. www.example.com/en/some/resource) In terms of implementing (i), I defined this rule: <Directory /path> RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / # if the requested resource does not exist RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # if the users preferred language is supported... RewriteCond %{HTTP:Accept-Language} ^.*(de|es|fr|it|ja|ru|en).*$ [NC] # define an environmental variable PREFER_LANG RewriteRule ^(.*)$ - [env=PREFER_LANG:%1] # route the uri to a front controller RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </Directory> I've tried a few variations, but PREFER_LANG is not defined in $_SERVER nor retrievable by getenv. In terms of implementing (ii)... lets just say its messy. I'll post it if I can't get an answer to one. Can anyone advise me? Thanks!

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  • No access to Windows 2003 admin shares

    - by ARomo
    This is the environment: Several Win 2003 SP 2 servers and several Win XP SP2 & SP3 clients. All in the same LAN. Firewall is disabled everywhere. No recent Windows updates or configuration changes. This is the problem: Since last Thursday, I log on to any other server or workstation as any regular (non-admin) user and I fail to be able to open ADMIN SHARES ONLY (namely \\server1\c$, \\server1\e$ and \\server1\admin$). The error message is: "\server1\c$ is not accessible. You might not have permission to use this network resource. Contact the administrator of this server to find out if you have access permissions. Multiple connections to a server or shared resource by the same user, using more than one user name, are not allowed. Disconnect all previous connections to the server or shared resource and try again." I can, however, open the same shares if I use FQDN or IP address: \\server1.domain.local\c$ \\172.0.0.1\c$ Other shares do not have this issue and I can open them without any issue. Any ideas or suggestion would be truly appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • Missing Memory on Windows Server 2008

    - by Chris Lively
    I have a windows 2008 x64 server with 8GB of RAM installed. Task Manager and Resource Monitor both insist that 7.5GB of the RAM is in use. However, the memory list under Processes (Memory Private Bytes) doesn't add up. I do have Show Processes from all users checked and hand adding the numbers I come up with about 3.5GB of RAM. I also looked at the latest copy of SysInternals Process Explorer. And neither the Private Bytes or Working Set adds up to more than about 3.5GB of RAM in use. What's going on? ===== Update: I bounced the server to see what would happen with the memory utilization. After boot and regular operations began it sat at 3GB of RAM usage. 18 hours later, it's back up to 6.8GB of usage with no indication as to where the additional 3.5GB or so of RAM is being used. Here are links to screen shots of the resource monitor and task manager: Resource Monitor Task Manager Update 2: Well, I believe I located the problem. When I detached one of the larger databases from my sql server the amount of ram shown as "in use" dropped drastically. The Memory Private Bytes count barely moved. So I'm guessing that SQL server has some way of allocating memory where it doesn't really show up in any of the monitors. I went further and created a new database file, then transferred all of the data from the one I detached. Even though it has the same data, and the same transactions going through it, the memory in use has stayed low. Maybe there was some corruption in the DB? I'll leave it to the DB gods and go searching for another "problem" ;)

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  • vSphere education - What are the downsides of configuring virtual machines with *too* much RAM?

    - by ewwhite
    VMware memory management seems to be a tricky balancing act. With cluster RAM, Resource Pools, VMware's management techniques (TPS, ballooning, host swapping), in-guest RAM utilization, swapping, reservations, shares and limits, there are a lot of variables. I'm in a situation where clients are using dedicated vSphere cluster resources. However, they are configuring the virtual machines as though they were on physical hardware. In turn, this means a standard VM build may have 4 vCPUs and 16GB or more of RAM. I come from the school of starting small (1 vCPU, minimal RAM), checking real-world use and adjusting up as necessary. Some examples from a "problem" cluster. Resource pool summary - Looks almost 4:1 overcommitted. Note the high amount of ballooned RAM. Resource allocation - The Worst Case Allocation column shows that these VMs would have access to less than 50% of their configured RAM under constrained conditions. The real-time memory utilization graph of the top VM in the listing above. 4 vCPU and 64GB RAM allocated. It averages under 9GB use. Summary of the same VM What are the downsides of overcommitting and overconfiguring resources (specifically RAM) in vSphere environments? Assuming that the VMs can run in less RAM, is it fair to say that there's overhead to configuring virtual machines with more RAM than they need? What is the counter-argument to: "if a VM has 16GB of RAM allocated, but only uses 4GB, what's the problem??"? E.g. do customers need to be educated? What specific metric should be used to meter RAM usage. Tracking the peaks of "Active" versus time?

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  • cygwin fork error

    - by Techie Help
    I have set up a new PC and installed cygwin on it. Its windows 7 pro. Whenever I try to build our application on it, I get the following error: 0 [main] sh 3472 child_info_fork::abort: can't commit memory for stack 0x28A000(90112), Win32 error 487 /bin/sh: fork: retry: Resource temporarily unavailable 0 [main] sh 3220 child_info_fork::abort: can't commit memory for stack 0x28A000(90112), Win32 error 487 /bin/sh: fork: retry: Resource temporarily unavailable 0 [main] sh 4896 child_info_fork::abort: can't commit memory for stack 0x28A000(90112), Win32 error 487 /bin/sh: fork: retry: Resource temporarily unavailable 0 [main] sh 4884 child_info_fork::abort: can't commit memory for stack 0x28A000(90112), Win32 error 487 It prints this few times and then dies. I have already done a lot of research on this problem. I have already uninstalled and installed cygwin more than 5 times. Done rebaseall everytime I installed it. Checked for possible BLODA, I had notron antivirus, which I have removed. As an aside, I tried posting this question to cygwin mailing list after subscribing to it. But my mail does not appear on the list. I suppose they want address to be munged and I have no clue how to do it. supposedly, they are treating it as a spam. Any idea how I can post to the mailing list there.

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  • Lots of first chance Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinderExceptions thrown when dealing with dynamics

    - by Orion Edwards
    I've got a standard 'dynamic dictionary' type class in C# - class Bucket : DynamicObject { readonly Dictionary<string, object> m_dict = new Dictionary<string, object>(); public override bool TrySetMember(SetMemberBinder binder, object value) { m_dict[binder.Name] = value; return true; } public override bool TryGetMember(GetMemberBinder binder, out object result) { return m_dict.TryGetValue(binder.Name, out result); } } Now I call it, as follows: static void Main(string[] args) { dynamic d = new Bucket(); d.Name = "Orion"; // 2 RuntimeBinderExceptions Console.WriteLine(d.Name); // 2 RuntimeBinderExceptions } The app does what you'd expect it to, but the debug output looks like this: A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll 'ScratchConsoleApplication.vshost.exe' (Managed (v4.0.30319)): Loaded 'Anonymously Hosted DynamicMethods Assembly' A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll A first chance exception of type 'Microsoft.CSharp.RuntimeBinder.RuntimeBinderException' occurred in Microsoft.CSharp.dll Any attempt to access a dynamic member seems to output a RuntimeBinderException to the debug logs. While I'm aware that first-chance exceptions are not a problem in and of themselves, this does cause some problems for me: I often have the debugger set to "break on exceptions", as I'm writing WPF apps, and otherwise all exceptions end up getting converted to a DispatcherUnhandledException, and all the actual information you want is lost. WPF sucks like that. As soon as I hit any code that's using dynamic, the debug output log becomes fairly useless. All the useful trace lines that I care about get hidden amongst all the useless RuntimeBinderExceptions Is there any way I can turn this off, or is the RuntimeBinder unfortunately just built like that? Thanks, Orion

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  • Serializing object with no namespaces using DataContractSerializer

    - by Yurik
    How do I remove XML namespaces from an object's XML representation serialized using DataContractSerializer? That object needs to be serialized to a very simple output XML. Latest & greatest - using .Net 4 beta 2 The object will never need to be deserialized. XML should not have any xmlns:... namespace refs Any subtypes of Exception and ISubObject need to be supported. It will be very difficult to change the original object. Object: [Serializable] class MyObj { string str; Exception ex; ISubObject subobj; } Need to serialize into: <xml> <str>...</str> <ex i:nil="true" /> <subobj i:type="Abc"> <AbcProp1>...</AbcProp1> <AbcProp2>...</AbcProp2> </subobj> </xml> I used this code: private static string ObjectToXmlString(object obj) { if (obj == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); var serializer = new DataContractSerializer( obj.GetType(), null, Int32.MaxValue, false, false, null, new AllowAllContractResolver()); var sb = new StringBuilder(); using (var xw = XmlWriter.Create(sb, new XmlWriterSettings { OmitXmlDeclaration = true, NamespaceHandling = NamespaceHandling.OmitDuplicates, Indent = true })) { serializer.WriteObject(xw, obj); xw.Flush(); return sb.ToString(); } } From this article I adopted a DataContractResolver so that no subtypes have to be declared: public class AllowAllContractResolver : DataContractResolver { public override bool TryResolveType(Type dataContractType, Type declaredType, DataContractResolver knownTypeResolver, out XmlDictionaryString typeName, out XmlDictionaryString typeNamespace) { if (!knownTypeResolver.TryResolveType(dataContractType, declaredType, null, out typeName, out typeNamespace)) { var dictionary = new XmlDictionary(); typeName = dictionary.Add(dataContractType.FullName); typeNamespace = dictionary.Add(dataContractType.Assembly.FullName); } return true; } public override Type ResolveName(string typeName, string typeNamespace, Type declaredType, DataContractResolver knownTypeResolver) { return knownTypeResolver.ResolveName(typeName, typeNamespace, declaredType, null) ?? Type.GetType(typeName + ", " + typeNamespace); } }

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  • HTML Agility Pack - ReplaceNode doesn't change the InnerHTML of the Body

    - by morsanu
    Hi there, I have this The body: <body><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Praesent leo leo, ultrices eu venenatis et, rutrum fringilla dolor.</p></body> The code: HtmlNode body = doc.DocumentNode.SelectSingleNode("//body"); Dictionary<HtmlNode, HtmlNode> toReplace = new Dictionary<HtmlNode, HtmlNode>(); // I do some logic here adding nodes to the toReplace dictionary. foreach (HtmlNode replaceNode in toReplace.Keys) { replaceNode.ParentNod.ReplaceChild(toReplace[replaceNode], replaceNode); } After i do this, the InnerHtml of the body node remains the same as from beginning, although the OutterHtml or the InnerText are showing the good result. Is there something wrong with my code? The result: // body.InnerHtml <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Praesent leo leo, ultrices eu venenatis et, rutrum fringilla dolor.</p> // body.OutterHtml <body><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...</p></body>

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  • Conditionally add htmlAttributes to ASP.NET MVC Html.ActionLink

    - by macca1
    I'm wondering if it's possible to conditionally add a parameter in a call to a method. For example, I am rendering a bunch of links (six total) for navigation in my Site.Master: <%= Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Pages") %> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages") %> <%-- etc, etc. --%> I'd like to include a CSS class of "selected" for the link if it's on that page. So in my controller I'm returning this: ViewData.Add("CurrentPage", "About"); return View(); And then in the view I have an htmlAttributes dictionary: <% Dictionary<string,object> htmlAttributes = new Dictionary<string,object>(); htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> Now my only question is how do I include the htmlAttributes for the proper ActionLink. I could do it this way for each link: <% htmlAttributes.Clear(); if (ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") htmlAttributes.Add("class","selected");%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", htmlAttributes) %> But that seems a little repetitive. Is there some way to do something like this psuedo code: <%= Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Pages", if(ViewData["CurrentPage"] == "Contact") { htmlAttributes }) %> That's obviously not valid syntax, but is there a correct way to do that? I'm open to any totally different suggestions for rendering these links. I'd like to stay with something like ActionLink that takes advantage of using my routes though instead of hard coding the tag.

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  • Silverlight 4 Overriding the DataForm Autogenerate to insert Combo Boxes bound to Converters.

    - by kmacmahon
    I've been working towards a solution for some time and could use a little help. I know I've seen an example of this before, but tonight I cannot find anything close to what I need. I have a service that provides me all my DropDownLists, either from Cache or from the DomainService. They are presented as IEnumerable, and are requested from the a repository with GetLookup(LookupId). I have created a custom attribute that I have decorated my MetaDataClass that looks something like this: [Lookup(Lookup.Products)] public Guid ProductId I have created a custom Data Form that is set to AutoGenerateFields and I am intercepting the autogenerate fields. I am checking for my CustomAttribute and that works. Given this code in my CustomDataForm (standard comments removed for brevity), what is the next step to override the field generation and place a bound combobox in its place? public class CustomDataForm : DataForm { private Dictionary<string, DataField> fields = new Dictionary<string, DataField>(); public Dictionary<string, DataField> Fields { get { return this.fields; } } protected override void OnAutoGeneratingField(DataFormAutoGeneratingFieldEventArgs e) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = this.CurrentItem.GetType().GetProperty(e.PropertyName); foreach (Attribute attribute in propertyInfo.GetCustomAttributes(true)) { LookupFieldAttribute lookupFieldAttribute = attribute as LookupFieldAttribute; if (lookupFieldAttribute != null) { // Create a combo box. // Bind it to my Lookup IEnumerable // Set the selected item to my Field's Value // Set the binding two way } } this.fields[e.PropertyName] = e.Field; base.OnAutoGeneratingField(e); } } Any cited working examples for SL4/VS2010 would be appreciated. Thanks

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  • WPF derived ComboBox SelectedValuePath issue

    - by opedog
    In our application we have a very large set of data that acts as our data dictionary for ComboBox lists, etc. This data is staticly cached and keyed off of 2 variables, so I thought it wise to write a control that derived from ComboBox and exposed the 2 keys as DPs. When those 2 keys have proper values I set the ItemsSource of the ComboBox automatically from the data dictionary list it corresponds to. I also automatically set the SelectedValuePath and DisplayMemberPath to Code and Description, respectively. Here's how an example of how an item in the ItemsSource from the data dictionary list always looks: public class DataDictionaryItem { public string Code { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public string Code3 { get { return this.Get.Substring(0, 3); } } } The value of Code is always 4 bytes long, but sometimes I only need to bind 3 bytes of it. Hence, the Code3 property. Here's how the code looks inside my custom combobox to set the ItemsSource: private static void SetItemsSource(CustomComboBox combo) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(combo.Key1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(combo.Key2)) { combo.ItemsSource = null; return; } List<DataDictionaryItem> list = GetDataDictionaryList(combo.Key1, combo.Key2); combo.ItemsSource = list; } Now, my problem is, when I change the SelectedValuePath in the XAML to Code3, it doesn't work. What I bind to SelectedValue still gets the full 4 character Code from DataDictionaryItem. I even tried rerunning SetItemsSource when the SelectedValuePath was changed and no dice. Can anyone see what I need to do to get my custom combobox to wake up and use the SelectedValuePath provided if it's overridden in the XAML? Tweaking the value in the property setter in my SelectedValue bound business object is not an option.

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  • Replacing instructions in a method's MethodBody

    - by Alix
    Hi, (First of all, this is a very lengthy post, but don't worry: I've already implemented all of it, I'm just asking your opinion.) I'm having trouble implementing the following; I'd appreciate some help: I get a Type as parameter. I define a subclass using reflection. Notice that I don't intend to modify the original type, but create a new one. I create a property per field of the original class, like so: public class OriginalClass { private int x; } public class Subclass : OriginalClass { private int x; public int X { get { return x; } set { x = value; } } } For every method of the superclass, I create an analogous method in the subclass. The method's body must be the same except that I replace the instructions ldfld x with callvirt this.get_X, that is, instead of reading from the field directly I call the get accessor. I'm having trouble with step 4. I know you're not supposed to manipulate code like this, but I really need to. Here's what I've tried: Attempt #1: Use Mono.Cecil. This would allow me to parse the body of the method into human-readable Instructions, and easily replace instructions. However, the original type isn't in a .dll file, so I can't find a way to load it with Mono.Cecil. Writing the type to a .dll, then load it, then modify it and write the new type to disk (which I think is the way you create a type with Mono.Cecil), and then load it seems like a huge overhead. Attempt #2: Use Mono.Reflection. This would also allow me to parse the body into Instructions, but then I have no support for replacing instructions. I've implemented a very ugly and inefficient solution using Mono.Reflection, but it doesn't yet support methods that contain try-catch statements (although I guess I can implement this) and I'm concerned that there may be other scenarios in which it won't work, since I'm using the ILGenerator in a somewhat unusual way. Also, it's very ugly ;). Here's what I've done: private void TransformMethod(MethodInfo methodInfo) { // Create a method with the same signature. ParameterInfo[] paramList = methodInfo.GetParameters(); Type[] args = new Type[paramList.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = paramList[i].ParameterType; } MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod( methodInfo.Name, methodInfo.Attributes, methodInfo.ReturnType, args); ILGenerator ilGen = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); // Declare the same local variables as in the original method. IList<LocalVariableInfo> locals = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().LocalVariables; foreach (LocalVariableInfo local in locals) { ilGen.DeclareLocal(local.LocalType); } // Get readable instructions. IList<Instruction> instructions = methodInfo.GetInstructions(); // I first need to define labels for every instruction in case I // later find a jump to that instruction. Once the instruction has // been emitted I cannot label it, so I'll need to do it in advance. // Since I'm doing a first pass on the method's body anyway, I could // instead just create labels where they are truly needed, but for // now I'm using this quick fix. Dictionary<int, Label> labels = new Dictionary<int, Label>(); foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { labels[instr.Offset] = ilGen.DefineLabel(); } foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { // Mark this instruction with a label, in case there's a branch // instruction that jumps here. ilGen.MarkLabel(labels[instr.Offset]); // If this is the instruction that I want to replace (ldfld x)... if (instr.OpCode == OpCodes.Ldfld) { // ...get the get accessor for the accessed field (get_X()) // (I have the accessors in a dictionary; this isn't relevant), MethodInfo safeReadAccessor = dataMembersSafeAccessors[((FieldInfo) instr.Operand).Name][0]; // ...instead of emitting the original instruction (ldfld x), // emit a call to the get accessor, ilGen.Emit(OpCodes.Callvirt, safeReadAccessor); // Else (it's any other instruction), reemit the instruction, unaltered. } else { Reemit(instr, ilGen, labels); } } } And here comes the horrible, horrible Reemit method: private void Reemit(Instruction instr, ILGenerator ilGen, Dictionary<int, Label> labels) { // If the instruction doesn't have an operand, emit the opcode and return. if (instr.Operand == null) { ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode); return; } // Else (it has an operand)... // If it's a branch instruction, retrieve the corresponding label (to // which we want to jump), emit the instruction and return. if (instr.OpCode.FlowControl == FlowControl.Branch) { ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, labels[Int32.Parse(instr.Operand.ToString())]); return; } // Otherwise, simply emit the instruction. I need to use the right // Emit call, so I need to cast the operand to its type. Type operandType = instr.Operand.GetType(); if (typeof(byte).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (byte) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(double).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (double) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(float).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (float) instr.Operand); else if (typeof(int).IsAssignableFrom(operandType)) ilGen.Emit(instr.OpCode, (int) instr.Operand); ... // you get the idea. This is a pretty long method, all like this. } Branch instructions are a special case because instr.Operand is SByte, but Emit expects an operand of type Label. Hence the need for the Dictionary labels. As you can see, this is pretty horrible. What's more, it doesn't work in all cases, for instance with methods that contain try-catch statements, since I haven't emitted them using methods BeginExceptionBlock, BeginCatchBlock, etc, of ILGenerator. This is getting complicated. I guess I can do it: MethodBody has a list of ExceptionHandlingClause that should contain the necessary information to do this. But I don't like this solution anyway, so I'll save this as a last-resort solution. Attempt #3: Go bare-back and just copy the byte array returned by MethodBody.GetILAsByteArray(), since I only want to replace a single instruction for another single instruction of the same size that produces the exact same result: it loads the same type of object on the stack, etc. So there won't be any labels shifting and everything should work exactly the same. I've done this, replacing specific bytes of the array and then calling MethodBuilder.CreateMethodBody(byte[], int), but I still get the same error with exceptions, and I still need to declare the local variables or I'll get an error... even when I simply copy the method's body and don't change anything. So this is more efficient but I still have to take care of the exceptions, etc. Sigh. Here's the implementation of attempt #3, in case anyone is interested: private void TransformMethod(MethodInfo methodInfo, Dictionary<string, MethodInfo[]> dataMembersSafeAccessors, ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder) { ParameterInfo[] paramList = methodInfo.GetParameters(); Type[] args = new Type[paramList.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = paramList[i].ParameterType; } MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod( methodInfo.Name, methodInfo.Attributes, methodInfo.ReturnType, args); ILGenerator ilGen = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); IList<LocalVariableInfo> locals = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().LocalVariables; foreach (LocalVariableInfo local in locals) { ilGen.DeclareLocal(local.LocalType); } byte[] rawInstructions = methodInfo.GetMethodBody().GetILAsByteArray(); IList<Instruction> instructions = methodInfo.GetInstructions(); int k = 0; foreach (Instruction instr in instructions) { if (instr.OpCode == OpCodes.Ldfld) { MethodInfo safeReadAccessor = dataMembersSafeAccessors[((FieldInfo) instr.Operand).Name][0]; // Copy the opcode: Callvirt. byte[] bytes = toByteArray(OpCodes.Callvirt.Value); for (int m = 0; m < OpCodes.Callvirt.Size; m++) { rawInstructions[k++] = bytes[put.Length - 1 - m]; } // Copy the operand: the accessor's metadata token. bytes = toByteArray(moduleBuilder.GetMethodToken(safeReadAccessor).Token); for (int m = instr.Size - OpCodes.Ldfld.Size - 1; m >= 0; m--) { rawInstructions[k++] = bytes[m]; } // Skip this instruction (do not replace it). } else { k += instr.Size; } } methodBuilder.CreateMethodBody(rawInstructions, rawInstructions.Length); } private static byte[] toByteArray(int intValue) { byte[] intBytes = BitConverter.GetBytes(intValue); if (BitConverter.IsLittleEndian) Array.Reverse(intBytes); return intBytes; } private static byte[] toByteArray(short shortValue) { byte[] intBytes = BitConverter.GetBytes(shortValue); if (BitConverter.IsLittleEndian) Array.Reverse(intBytes); return intBytes; } (I know it isn't pretty. Sorry. I put it quickly together to see if it would work.) I don't have much hope, but can anyone suggest anything better than this? Sorry about the extremely lengthy post, and thanks.

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  • dumping the source code for an anonymous function

    - by intuited
    I'm working with a lot of anonymous functions, ie functions declared as part of a dictionary, aka "methods". It's getting pretty painful to debug, because I can't tell what function the errors are happening in. Vim's backtraces look like this: Error detected while processing function NamedFunction..2111..2105: line 1: E730: using List as a String This trace shows that the error occurred in the third level down the stack, on the first line of anonymous function #2105. IE NamedFunction called anonymous function #2111, which called anonymous function #2105. NamedFunction is one declared through the normal function NamedFunction() ... endfunction syntax; the others were declared using code like function dict.func() ... endfunction. So obviously I'd like to find out which function has number 2105. Assuming that it's still in scope, it's possible to find out what Dictionary entry references it by dumping all of the dictionary variables that might contain that reference. This is sort of awkward and it's difficult to be systematic about it, though I guess I could code up a function to search through all of the loaded dictionaries for a reference to that function, watching out for circular references. Although to be really thorough, it would have to search not only script-local and global dictionaries, but buffer-local dictionaries as well; is there a way to access another buffer's local variables? Anyway I'm wondering if it's possible to dump the source code for the anonymous function instead. This would be a lot easier and probably more reliable.

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  • Passing char * into fopen with C.

    - by Rhys
    Hey there, I'm writing a program that passes data from a file into an array, but I'm having trouble with fopen (). It seems to work fine when I hardcode the file path into the parameters (eg fopen ("data/1.dat", "r");) but when I pass it as a pointer, it returns NULL. Note that line 142 will print "data/1.dat" if entered from command line so parse_args () appears to be working. 132 int 133 main(int argc, char **argv) 134 { 135 FILE *in_file; 136 int *nextItem = (int *) malloc (sizeof (int)); 137 set_t *dictionary; 138 139 /* Parse Arguments */ 140 clo_t *iopts = parse_args(argc, argv); 141 142 printf ("INPUT FILE: %s.\n", iopts->input_file); /* This prints correct path */ 143 /* Initialise dictionary */ 144 dictionary = set_create (SET_INITAL_SIZE); 145 146 /* Use fscanf to read all data values into new set_t */ 147 if ((in_file = fopen (iopts->input_file, "r")) == NULL) 148 { 149 printf ("File not found...\n"); 150 return 0; 151 } Thanks! Rhys

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  • How to use Object.GetHashCode() on a type that overrides GetHashCode()

    - by Jimmy
    Hi, I have a class A that implements IEquatable<, using its fields (say, A.b and A.c) for implementing/overriding Equals() and overriding GetHashCode(), and everything works fine, 99% of the time. Class A is part of a hierarchy (class B, C) that all inherit from interface D; they can all be stored together in a dictionary Dictionary, thus it's convenient when they all carry their own default Equals()/GetHashCode(). However, while constructing A I sometime need to do some work to get the values for A.b and A.c; while that's happening, I want to store a reference to the instance that's being built. In that case, I don't want to use the default Equals()/GetHashCode() overrides provided by A. Thus, I was thinking of implementing a ReferenceEqualityComparer, that's meant to force the use of Object's Equals()/GetHashCode(): private class ReferenceEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return System.Object.ReferenceEquals(x, y); } public int GetHashCode(T obj) { // what goes here? I want to do something like System.Object.GetHashCode(obj); } #endregion } The question is, since A overrides Object.GetHashCode(), how can I (outside of A) call Object.GetHashCode() for an instance of A? One way of course would be for A to not implement IEquatable< and always supply an IEqualityComparer< to any dictionary that I create, but I'm hoping for a different answer. Thanks

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