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  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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  • i want to search in sql server with must have parameter in one colunm

    - by sherif4csharp
    hello i am usning c# and ms SQL server 2008 i have table like this id | propertyTypeId | FinishingQualityId | title | Description | features 1 1 2 prop1 propDEsc1 1,3,5,7 2 2 3 prop2 propDEsc2 1,3 3 6 5 prop3 propDEsc3 1 4 5 4 prop4 propDEsc4 3,5 5 4 6 prop5 propDEsc5 5,7 6 4 6 prop6 propDEsc6 and here is my stored code (search in the same table) create stored procdures propertySearch as @Id int = null, @pageSize float , @pageIndex int, @totalpageCount int output, @title nvarchar(150) =null , @propertyTypeid int = null , @finishingqualityid int = null , @features nvarchar(max) = null , -- this parameter send like 1,3 ( for example) begin select row_number () as TempId over( order by id) , id,title,description,propertyTypeId,propertyType.name,finishingQualityId,finishingQuality.Name,freatures into #TempTable from property join propertyType on propertyType.id= property.propertyTypeId join finishingQuality on finishingQuality.id = property.finishingQualityId where property.id = isnull(@id,property.id ) and proprty.PropertyTypeId= isnull(@propertyTypeid,property.propertyTypeId) select totalpageconunt = ((select count(*) from #TempTable )/@pageSize ) select * from #TempTable where tempid between (@pageindex-1)*@pagesize +1 and (@pageindex*@pageSize) end go i can't here filter the table by feature i sent. this table has to many rows i want to add to this stored code to filter data for example when i send 1,3 in features parameter i want to return row number one and two in the example table i write in this post (want to get the data from table must have the feature I send) many thanks for every one helped me and will help

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  • Toggle row visibility one at a time

    - by kuswantin
    I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

    - by Patrik Hägne
    When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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  • Copy vector of values to vector of pairs in one line

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    I have the following types: struct X { int x; X( int val ) : x(val) {} }; struct X2 { int x2; X2() : x2() {} }; typedef std::pair<X, X2> pair_t; typedef std::vector<pair_t> pairs_vec_t; typedef std::vector<X> X_vec_t; I need to initialize instance of pairs_vec_t with values from X_vec_t. I use the following code and it works as expected: int main() { pairs_vec_t ps; X_vec_t xs; // this is not empty in the production code ps.reserve( xs.size() ); { // I want to change this block to one line code. struct get_pair { pair_t operator()( const X& value ) { return std::make_pair( value, X2() ); } }; std::transform( xs.begin(), xs.end(), back_inserter(ps), get_pair() ); } return 0; } What I'm trying to do is to reduce my copying block to one line with using boost::bind. This code is not working: for_each( xs.begin(), xs.end(), boost::bind( &pairs_vec_t::push_back, ps, boost::bind( &std::make_pair, _1, X2() ) ) ); I know why it is not working, but I want to know how to make it working without declaring extra functions and structs?

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  • mysql: Average over multiple columns in one row, ignoring nulls

    - by Sai Emrys
    I have a large table (of sites) with several numeric columns - say a through f. (These are site rankings from different organizations, like alexa, google, quantcast, etc. Each has a different range and format; they're straight dumps from the outside DBs.) For many of the records, one or more of these columns is null, because the outside DB doesn't have data for it. They all cover different subsets of my DB. I want column t to be their weighted average (each of a..f have static weights which I assign), ignoring null values (which can occur in any of them), except being null if they're all null. I would prefer to do this with a simple SQL calculation, rather than doing it in app code or using some huge ugly nested if block to handle every permutation of nulls. (Given that I have an increasing number of columns to average over as I add in more outside DB sources, this would be exponentially more ugly and bug-prone.) I'd use AVG but that's only for group by, and this is w/in one record. The data is semantically nullable, and I don't want to average in some "average" value in place of the nulls; I want to only be counting the columns for which data is there. Is there a good way to do this? Ideally, what I want is something like UPDATE sites SET t = AVG(a*a_weight,b*b_weight,...) where any null values are just ignored and no grouping is happening.

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  • Mono WCF NetTcp service takes only one client at a time

    - by vene
    While trying to build a client-server WCF application in Mono we ran into some issues. Reducing it to just a bare example we found that the service only accepts one client at a time. If another client attempts to connect, it hangs until the first one disconnects. Simply changing to BasicHttpBinding fixes it but we need NetTcpBinding for duplex communication. Also the problem does not appear if compiled under MS .NET. EDIT: I doubt (and hope not) that Mono doesn't support what I'm trying to do. Mono code usually throws NotImplementedExceptions in such cases as far as I noticed. I am using Mono v2.6.4 This is how the service is opened in our basic scenario: public static void Main (string[] args) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding (); binding.Security.Mode = SecurityMode.None; var address = new Uri ("net.tcp://localhost:8080"); var host = new ServiceHost (typeof(Hello)); host.AddServiceEndpoint (typeof(IHello), binding, address); ServiceThrottlingBehavior behavior = new ServiceThrottlingBehavior () { MaxConcurrentCalls = 100, MaxConcurrentSessions = 100, MaxConcurrentInstances = 100 }; host.Description.Behaviors.Add (behavior); host.Open (); Console.ReadLine (); host.Close (); } The client channel is obtained like this: var binding = new NetTcpBinding (); binding.Security.Mode = SecurityMode.None; var address = new EndpointAddress ("net.tcp://localhost:8080/"); var client = new ChannelFactory<IHello> (binding, address).CreateChannel (); As far as I know this is a Simplex connection, isn't it? The contract is simply: [ServiceContract] public interface IHello { [OperationContract] string Greet (string name); } Service implementation has no ServiceModel tags or attributes. I'll update with details as required.

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  • flash creates more than one http request

    - by MilanAleksic
    We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

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  • iphone - moving from one view to another

    - by codemonkey
    Hi there, I am getting started with iphone development and am trying to move from one view to another. I have a main view (NearestPhotosViewController) which basically acts as a menu for my app. I then have a second view (DisplayNearestPhotos). I come from a web (html) background so what i'm trying to do here in web terms is click a button (link) on the NearestPhotosViewController view to then display the DisplayNearestPhotos view. I have been looking around for some code to do this (I don't think it's as simple as doing the equivelent in html). The following code is hooked up to a button on my menu view. -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { DisplayNearestPhotos *views = [[DisplayNearestPhotos alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:views animated:YES]; views.release; } The above code works (it displays the second view) but what i'd like to know is, is that the correct way to do it? If not, what is the correct way to move from one view to another? Thank you in advance

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  • Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

    - by hoodoos
    I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

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  • Common one-to-many table for multiple entities

    - by Ben V
    Suppose I have two tables, Customer and Vendor. I want to have a common address table for customer and vendor addresses. Customers and Vendors can both have one to many addresses. Option 1 Add columns for the AddressID to the Customer and Vendor tables. This just doesn't seem like a clean solution to me. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID AddressID1 AddressID1 Street AddressID2 AddressID2 City... Option 2 Move the foreign key to the Address table. For a Customer, Address.CustomerID will be populated. For a Vendor, Address.VendorID will be populated. I don't like this either - I shouldn't need to modify the address table every time I want to use it for another entity. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID CustomerID VendorID Option 3 I've also seen this - only 1 foreign key column on the Address table with another column to identify which foreign key table the address belongs to. I don't like this one because it requires all the foreign key tables to have the same type of ID. It also seems messy once you start coding against it. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID FKTable FKID So, am I just too picky, or is there something I haven't thought of?

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  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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  • iPhone SDK: Switching to one view then back to previous view errors

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a UITabBarConroller that I use to switch between 3 different views. This all works perfectly. On one of my tabs, I added a button at the to called "Add", I have added an outlet to this, as well as an IBAction method which looks like the following: // Method used to load up view where we can add a new ride - (IBAction)showAddNewRideView { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddNewRide" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end showAddNewRideView This currently works fine, and loads up my AddNewRide nib file. But, once that view loads, I have a cancel button, which, when clicked, I want to return to the previous view. So, I figured I would just do the reverse of the above, using the following method which would load back my previous nib: - (IBAction)cancelAddingNewRide { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainWindow" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end cancelAddingNewRide But, which trying to load the MainWindow nib, the program crashes, and I get the following error: 2010-05-05 20:24:37.211 Ride[6032:207] *** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450 2010-05-05 20:24:37.213 Ride[6032:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450' So, I am a little lost as to why it would work one way, but not the other.

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  • NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

    - by Owen
    I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

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  • How to call a javascript function from one frame to another in Chrome/Webkit

    - by bambax
    I have developped an application that has a list of items in one frame; when one clicks on an item it does something in another frame (loads an image). This used to work fine in all browsers, including Chrome 3; now it still works fine in FF but in recent versions of Chrome (I believe since 4) it throws this error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL (...) from frame with URL (...). Domains, protocols and ports must match. This is obviously a security "feature" but is it possible to get around it? Here is a simple test: index.html: <html> <frameset> <frame src="left.html" name="left"/> <frame src="right.html" name="right"/> </frameset> </html> left.html: <html> <body> <a href="javascript:parent.right.test('hello');">click me</a> </body> </html> right.html: <html> <body> <script> function test(msg) { alert(msg); } </script> </body> </html> The above works in FF 3.6 and Chrome 3 but in Chrome 5 it throws the above error...

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  • UITableView only pushes to one controller

    - by Mitochondria
    So I have my UITableView, with 2 sections and 1 cell in each, and if I click the first one, it works, then the second one, it goes to the first controller. RootViewController is a navigationController, trying to push to ViewControllers. Here's the code for the tableView: // Customize the number of sections in the table view. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 2; } // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { if(section == 0) return 1; else return 1; } - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section{ if(section == 0){ return @"Terminal/SSH Guides"; }else{ return @"Cydia Tutorials"; } } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... if(indexPath.section == 0){ cell.text = @"Changing Password for root"; } else { cell.text = @"Hiding Sections"; } return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id newController; switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: newController = [[rootpassword alloc] initWithNibName:@"rootpassword" bundle:nil]; break; case 1: newController = [[hidingsections alloc] initWithNibName:@"hidingsections" bundle:nil]; break; default: break; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:newController animated:TRUE]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; } I'm also having trouble adding more sections and rows/cells to sections. Thanks.

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  • Spring aop multiple pointcuts & advice but only the last one is working

    - by Jarle Hansen
    I have created two Spring AOP pointcuts that are completely separate and will be woven in for different parts of the system. The pointcuts are used in two different around advices, these around-advices will point to the same Java method. How the xml-file looks: <aop:config> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(......)" id="pointcutOne" /> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(.....)" id="pointcurTwo" /> <aop:aspect id="..." ref="springBean"> <aop:around pointcut-ref="pointcutOne" method="commonMethod" /> <aop:aroung pointcut-ref="pointcutTwo" method="commonMethod" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> The problem is that only the last pointcut works (if I change the order "pointcutOne" works because it is last). I have gotten it to work by creating one big pointcut, but I would like to have them separate. Any suggestions to why only one of the pointcuts works at a time?

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  • How to take name in one preg_match

    - by Julianto
    Hello guys, I am trying to extract just the names result from the hypothetical HTML file below. <ul class="cat"> <li>sport</li> <li>movie</li> </ul> <ul class="person-list"> <li>name 1</li> <li>name 2</li> <li>name 3</li> <li>name 4</li> <li>name 5</li> <li>name 6</li> </ul> Ideally, the result should come in an array format like the one below: Array( name 1 , name 2 , name 3 , .......... ) OK I can easily do this with 2 regex matches but I was wondering if I can do it with just one. Thanks in advance!

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  • Most efficient way to update attribute of one instance

    - by Begbie00
    Hi all - I'm creating an arbitrary number of instances (using for loops and ranges). At some event in the future, I need to change an attribute for only one of the instances. What's the best way to do this? Right now, I'm doing the following: 1) Manage the instances in a list. 2) Iterate through the list to find a key value. 3) Once I find the right object within the list (i.e. key value = value I'm looking for), change whatever attribute I need to change. for Instance within ListofInstances: if Instance.KeyValue == SearchValue: Instance.AttributeToChange = 10 This feels really inefficient: I'm basically iterating over the entire list of instances, even through I only need to change an attribute in one of them. Should I be storing the Instance references in a structure more suitable for random access (e.g. dictionary with KeyValue as the dictionary key?) Is a dictionary any more efficient in this case? Should I be using something else? Thanks, Mike

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  • Combine Search Bar and URL Bar into One (WebView)

    - by Jay Bush
    So I'm in the midst of updating my Web Browser app for iOS devices, from the ground up, and I'm trying to implement some more convenient features. One feature that seems to be really popular now, that I have been getting a lot of requests for, is the combination of a Google Search bar and a URL bar in one, like that of the Chrome application. Below is a screenshot of the Google Chrome app, and as you can see, they've made it so you can either enter in a search query like "apple ipad" and it will return a Google search page of 'Apple iPad', or you can enter in a URL "http://apple.com/ipad/" and it will load that URL. I have looked all over the internet, but all I could find were tutorials on how to Search Google with value of the UITextField. I have a feeling that the best way to do this is to probably make a 'check'. Like if the entered value contains 'http://' 'www.' '.com' or no spaces, then load it as a URL, if not then load it in a Google Search page, and then have the webview load up the Google Search page. If anybody could show me to the right direction, that would be great, or even supplying me with some code would be even greater. :) Thanks! If anyone needs part of the code, just ask.

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  • Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

    - by James Black
    I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • Code-Golf: one line PHP syntax

    - by Kendall Hopkins
    Explanation PHP has some holes in its' syntax and occasionally in development a programmer will step in them. This can lead to much frustration as these syntax holes seem to exist for no reason. For example, one can't easily create an array and access an arbitrary element of that array on the same line (func1()[100] is not valid PHP syntax). The workaround for this issue is to use a temporary variable and break the statement into two lines, but sometimes that can lead to very verbose, clunky code. Challenge I know of a few of these holes (I'm sure there are more). It is quite hard to even come up with a solution, let alone in a code-golf style. Winner is the person with in the least characters total for all four Syntax Holes. Rules Statement must be one line in this form: $output = ...;, where ... doesn't contain any ;'s. Only use standard library functions (no custom functions allowed) Statement works identically to the assumed functional of the non-working syntax (even in cases that it fails). Statement must run without syntax error of any kind with E_STRICT | E_ALL. Syntax Holes $output = func_return_array()[$key]; - accessing an arbitrary offset (string or integer) of the returned array of a function $output = new {$class_base.$class_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being used to create a new class $output = {$func_base.$func_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being called as function $output = func_return_closure()(); - call a closure being returned from another function

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  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

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  • C two functions in one with casts

    - by Favolas
    I have two functions that do the exact same thing but in two different types of struct and this two types of struct are very similar. Imagine I have this two structs. typedef struct nodeOne{ Date *date; struct nodeOne *next; struct nodeOne *prev; }NodeOne; typedef struct nodeTwo{ Date *date; struct nodeTwo *next; struct nodeTwo *prev; }NodeTwo; Since my function to destroy each of the list is almost the same (Just the type of the arguments are different) I would like to make just one function to make the two thins. I have this two functions void destroyListOne(NodeOne **head, NodeOne **tail){ NodeOne *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } and this one: void destroyListTwo(NodeTwo **head, NodeTwo **tail){ NodeTwo *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } Since they are very similar I thought making something like this: void destroyList(void **ini, void **end, int listType){ if (listType == 0) { NodeOne *aux; NodeOne head = (NodeOne) ini; NodeOne tail = (NodeOne) ed; } else { NodeTwo *aux; NodeTwo head = (NodeTwo) ini; NodeTwo tail = (NodeTwo) ed; } while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } As you may now this is not working but I want to know if this is possible to achieve. I must maintain both of the structs as they are.

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