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  • Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

    - by Kelly Ellis
    I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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  • EntityManagerFactory error on Websphere

    - by neverland
    I have a very weird problem. Have an application using Hibernate and spring.I have an entitymanger defined which uses a JNDI lookup .It looks something like this <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="ConfigAPPPersist" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="false" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle9Dialect" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.WebSphereDataSourceAdapter"> <property name="targetDataSource"> <bean class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/pmp" /> </bean> </property> </bean> This application runs fine in DEV. But when we move to higher envs the team that deploys this application does it successfully initially but after a few restarts of the application the entitymanager starts giving this problem Caused by: javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: ConfigAPPPersist] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createContainerEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:132) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.createNativeEntityManagerFactory(LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:224) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.afterPropertiesSet(AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.invokeInitMethods(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1368) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1334) ... 32 more Caused by: org.hibernate.MappingException: **property mapping has wrong number of columns**: com.***.***.jpa.marketing.entity.MarketBrands.$performasure_j2eeInfo type: object Now you would say this is pretty obvious the entity MarketBrands is incorrect. But its not it maps to the table just fine. And the same code works on DEV. Also the jndi cannot be incorrect since it deploys and works fine initially but throws uo this error after a restart. This is weird and not very logical. But if someone has faced this or has any idea on what might be causing this Please!! help The persistence.xml for the persitence unit has very little <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="ConfigAPPPersist"> <!-- commented code --> </persistence-unit> </persistence>

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  • Help with Linq Expression - INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, I'm reading the source code from the latest Prism 4 drop and am interested in solving this problem. There is a base class for the ViewModels that implements INotifyPropertyChanged and INotifyDataErrorInfo and provides some refactoring friendly change notification. protected void RaisePropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { var propertyName = ExtractPropertyName(propertyExpresssion); this.RaisePropertyChanged(propertyName); } private string ExtractPropertyName<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { if (propertyExpresssion == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("propertyExpression"); } var memberExpression = propertyExpresssion.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The expression is not a member access expression.", "propertyExpression"); } var property = memberExpression.Member as PropertyInfo; if (property == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The member access expression does not access property.","propertyExpression"); } if (!property.DeclaringType.IsAssignableFrom(this.GetType())) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property belongs to a different type.", "propertyExpression"); } var getMethod = property.GetGetMethod(true); if (getMethod == null) { // this shouldn't happen - the expression would reject the property before reaching this far throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property does not have a get method.", "propertyExpression"); } if (getMethod.IsStatic) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property is a static property.", "propertyExpression"); } return memberExpression.Member.Name; } and as an example of it's usage private void RetrieveNewQuestionnaire() { this.Questions.Clear(); var template = this.questionnaireService.GetQuestionnaireTemplate(); this.questionnaire = new Questionnaire(template); foreach (var question in this.questionnaire.Questions) { this.Questions.Add(this.CreateQuestionViewModel(question)); } this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.Name); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.UnansweredQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.TotalQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.CanSubmit); } My question is this. What would it take to pass an array of the property names to an overloaded method (RaisePropertyChanged) and condense this last bit of code from 4 lines to 1? Thank you, Stephen

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  • How can I include additional markup within a 'Content' inner property of an ASP.Net WebControl?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I've searched the site and I cannot find a solution for my problem, so apologies if it's already been answered (I'm sure someone must have asked this before). I have written a jQuery Popup window that I've packaged up as a WebControl and IScriptControl. The last step is to be able to write the markup within the tags of my control. I've used the InnerProperty attribute a few times, but only for including lists of strongly typed classes. Here's my property on the WebControl: [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public something??? Content { get { if (_content == null) { _content = new something???(); } return _content; } } private something??? _content; Here's the HTML Markup of what I'm after: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_Test" Hidden="false" Width="100px" Height="100px" Modal="true" WindowCaption="Test Window" CssClass="window"> <Content> <div style="display:none;"> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </div> <%--Etc--%> <%--Etc--%> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> Unfortunately I don't know what type my Content property should be. I basically need to replicate the UpdatePanel's ContentTemplate. EDIT: So the following allows a Template container to be automatically created, but no controls show up, what's wrong with what I'm doing? [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public ITemplate Content { get { return _content; } set { _content = value; } } private ITemplate _content; EDIT2: Overriding the CreateChildControls allows the controls within the ITemplate to be rendered: protected override void CreateChildControls() { if (this.Content != null) { this.Controls.Clear(); this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } base.CreateChildControls(); } Unfortunately I cannot now access the controls within the ITemplate from the codebehind file on the file. I.e. if I put a button within my mark as so: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_StatusFilter"> <Content> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btn_Test" Text="Cannot access this from code behind?" /> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> I then cannot access btn_Test from the code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { btn_Test.Text = "btn_Test is not present in Intellisense and is not accessible to the page. It does, however, render correctly."; }

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  • Visual Studio 2010, using VB.NET. Intellisense does not recognize new property until I recompile

    - by Velika
    I have an ASP.NET VB.NET web project that references a VB.NET class library. I add a new property to a class in the class library, then, from the web app, I expect to be able to use it immediately w/o errors and with full intellisense. It used to work in 2008. When I compile the class library, it becomes available but not until. Was this nice feature taken away, perhaps in the interest of speed?

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  • Reading Metadata property of GifBitmapDecoder...why is it null?

    - by David
    How can I read the delay, left and top offset data for each frame of a gif? I've gotten this far. Load the Gif var myGif = new GifBitmapDecoder(uri, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); Get a frame var frame = myGif.Frames[i]; From MSDN: Native Image Format Metadata Queries read (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/grctlext/Delay"), (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/imgdesc/Left"), (ushort)Metadata.GetQuery("/imgdesc/Top") But two things don't work. First the Metadata property of both the gif and the frame are always null, even if I try different animated gif files. Second, the Metadata property of the frame doesn't seem to have a GetQuery method. How do I run these queries, what did I miss? Edit: Here is sample code that gives me null metadata. Using a fresh install of VS2010 Premium, on a fresh WPF application. The image file is the one in the comments. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Navigation; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); var uri = new Uri(@"c:\b-414328-animated_gif_.gif"); var myGif = new GifBitmapDecoder(uri, BitmapCreateOptions.PreservePixelFormat, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); var frame = myGif.Frames[0]; Title = ""; Title += "Global Metadata is null: " + (myGif.Metadata == null).ToString(); Title += "; Frame Metadata is null: " + (frame.Metadata == null).ToString(); // Crash due to null metadata //var frameData = (BitmapMetadata)frame.Metadata; //var rate = (ushort)frameData.GetQuery("/grctlext/Delay"); } } }

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  • CSS3's border-radius property and border-collapse:collapse don't mix. How can I use border-radius to

    - by vamin
    Edit - Original Title: Is there an alternative way to achieve border-collapse:collapse in CSS (in order to have a collapsed, rounded corner table)? Since it turns out that simply getting the table's borders to collapse does not solve the root problem, I have updated the title to better reflect the discussion. I am trying to make a table with rounded corners using the CSS3 border-radius property. The table styles I'm using look something like this: table { -moz-border-radius:10px; -webkit-border-radius:10px; border-radius:10px} Here's the problem. I also want to set the border-collapse:collapse property, and when that is set border-radius no longer works (at least in Firefox)(edit- I thought this might just be a difference in mozilla's implementation, but it turns out this is the way it's supposed to work according to the w3c). Is there a CSS-based way I can get the same effect as border-collapse:collapse without actually using it? Edits: I've made a simple page to demonstrate the problem here (Firefox/Safari only). It seems that a large part of the problem is that setting the table to have rounded corners does not affect the corners of the corner td elements. If the table was all one color, this wouldn't be a problem since I could just make the top and bottom td corners rounded for the first and last row respectively. However, I am using different background colors for the table to differentiate the headings and for striping, so the inner td elements would show their rounded corners as well. Summary of proposed solutions: Surrounding the table with another element with round corners doesn't work because the table's square corners "bleed through." Specifying border width to 0 doesn't collapse the table. Bottom td corners still square after setting cellspacing to zero. Using javascript instead- works by avoiding the problem. Possible solutions: The tables are generated in php, so I could just apply a different class to each of the outer th/tds and style each corner separately. I'd rather not do this, since it's not very elegant and a bit of a pain to apply to multiple tables, so please keep suggestions coming. Possible solution 2 is to use javascript (jQuery, specifically) to style the corners. This solution also works, but still not quite what I'm looking for (I know I'm picky). I have two reservations: 1) this is a very lightweight site, and I'd like to keep javascript to the barest minimum 2) part of the appeal that using border-radius has for me is graceful degradation and progressive enhancement. By using border-radius for all rounded corners, I hope to have a consistently rounded site in CSS3-capable browsers and a consistently square site in others (I'm looking at you, IE). I know that trying to do this with CSS3 today may seem needless, but I have my reasons. I would also like to point out that this problem is a result of the w3c speficication, not poor CSS3 support, so any solution will still be relevant and useful when CSS3 has more widespread support.

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  • VB .Net LINQ query to determine whether more than one element has the same value for a property?

    - by Alex Hope O'Connor
    I am trying to write a LINQ query which will return true if there are multiple objects which have a property with the same value. Here is what I have come up with so far: Formatters.Where(Function(f As DataModel.Formatter) _ Formatters.Select(Function(f2 As DataModel.Formatter) f2.Name.ToLower()).Contains(f.Name.ToLower())).Count > 1 However the above always returns true as long as their are more then 1 elements in the list, can someone please give me a hand with this? Thanks, Alex.

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  • Are there any drawbacks to class-based Javascript injection?

    - by jonathanconway
    A phenomena I'm seeing more and more of is Javascript code that is tied to a particular element on a particular page, rather than being tied to kinds of elements or UI patterns. For example, say we had a couple of animated menus on a page: <ul id="top-navigation"> ... </ul> <!-- ... --> <ul id="product-list"> ... </ul> These two menus might exist on the same page or on different pages, and some pages mightn't have any menus. I'll often see Javascript code like this (for these examples, I'm using jQuery): $(document).ready(function() { $('ul#top-navigation').dropdownMenu(); $('ul#product-selector').dropdownMenu(); }); Notice the problem? The Javascript is tightly coupled to particular instances of a UI pattern rather than the UI pattern itself. Now wouldn't it be so much simpler (and cleaner) to do this instead? - $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.dropdown-menu').dropdownMenu(); }); Then we can put the 'dropdown-menu' class on our lists like so: <ul id="top-navigation" class="dropdown-menu"> ... </ul> <!-- ... --> <ul id="product-list" class="dropdown-menu"> ... </ul> This way of doing things would have the following benefits: Simpler Javascript - we only need to attach once to the class. We avoid looking for specific instances that mightn't exist on a given page. If we remove an element, we don't need to hunt through the Javascript to find the attach code for that element. I believe techniques similar to this were pioneered by certain articles on alistapart.com. I'm amazed these simple techniques still haven't gained widespread adoption, and I still see 'best-practice' code-samples and Javascript frameworks referring directly to UI instances rather than UI patterns. Is there any reason for this? Is there some big disadvantage to the technique I just described that I'm unaware of?

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  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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  • Does Hibernate create tables in the database automatically.

    - by theJava
    http://www.vaannila.com/spring/spring-hibernate-integration-1.html Upon reading this tutorial, they have not mentioned anything over creating tables in the DB. Does the Hibernate handle it automatically by creating tables and fields once i specify them. Here is my beans configuration. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans.xsd"> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/jsp/" p:suffix=".jsp" /> <bean id="myDataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/spring"/> <property name="username" value="monwwty"/> <property name="password" value="www"/> </bean> <bean id="mySessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> <property name="annotatedClasses"> <list> <value>uk.co.vinoth.spring.domain.User</value> </list> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">create</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="myUserDAO" class="uk.co.vinoth.spring.dao.UserDAOImpl"> <property name="sessionFactory" ref="mySessionFactory"/> </bean> <bean name="/user/*.htm" class="uk.co.vinoth.spring.web.UserController" > <property name="userDAO" ref="myUserDAO" /> </bean> </beans>

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  • How can I load a property lazily in JDO (on Google App Engine)?

    - by luciano
    I have this code in one of my @PersistenceCapable classes: @Persistent private Blob data; The Blob can be quite big, so I'd like to load it lazily since most of the times I don't need it. How can I annotate that property to avoid immediate loading? I could create another class that contains the Blob alone and then use a lazy one-to-one, but I'd like to solve this with annotations.

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • jQuery, Animate opacity to 1 then remove the opacity property to make it better looking on IE

    - by Emily
    Hi everyone, I tried the jQuery fadeIn animation in all browsers and it work good, but not that much on IE. the Alpha png images are so creepy after appending the CSS opacity, but i have an idea and i don't know how to implement it using jQuery. The idea is to fadeIn the element and when the animation is finished it will automatically remove the opacity property in order to make the picture quality better. How to do that? Note: i'm using Animate and not FadeIn. Thanks

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