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  • Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

    - by Scott
    I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

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  • Getting Internal Name of a Share Point List Fields

    - by Gino Abraham
    Over the last 2 weeks i was developing a tool to migrate Lotus notes data base to Share point. The mapping between Lotus notes schema and share point list schema was done manually in an xml file for out tool. To map the columns we wanted internal names of each field. There are quite a few ways to achieve this, have explained few below. If you want internal names for one or 2 columns you can do so by navigating to the list setting and clicking on the column name. Once you are in column's details, you can check the query string of the page. The last item in the query string would be field's internal. Replace all "%5f" with '_' will give you the field internal name. In my case there were more than 80 columns. I used power shell to get the list of columns with details. Open windows Powershell and paste the following script after modifying the url and list name. [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.SharePoint") $site = new-object Microsoft.SharePoint.SPSite(http://yousitecolurl) $web = $site.OpenWeb() $list = $web.Lists["yourlist name"] $list.Fields | Format-Table Title, InternalName, TypeAsString I also found a tool in Codeplex.com which can generate a wrapper class for a list. The wrapper class will give you the guid and internal name for all fields in the list.  You can download the tool from http://imtech.codeplex.com/ Just enter the url in the text box and hit open. All the site content will be listed at the left hand side, expand the list, right click and select generate wrapper class.

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  • Hyper-V for Developers Part 1 Internal Networks

    Over the last year, weve been working with Microsoft to build training and demo content for the next version of Office Communications Server code-named Microsoft Communications Server 14.  This involved building multi-server demo environments in Hyper-V, getting them running on demo servers which we took to TechEd, PDC, and other training events, and sometimes connecting the demo servers to the show networks at those events.  ITPro stuff that should scare the hell out of a developer! It can get ugly when I occasionally have to venture into ITPro land.  Lets leave it at that. Having gone through this process about 10 to 15 times in the last year, I finally have it down.  This blog series is my attempt to put all that knowledge in one place if anything, so I can find it somewhere when I need it again.  Ill start with the most simple scenario and then build on top of it in future blog posts. If youre an ITPro, please resist the urge to laugh at how trivial this is. Internal Hyper-V Networks Lets start simple.  An internal network is one that intended only for the virtual machines that are going to be on that network it enables them to communicate with each other. Create an Internal Network On your host machine, fire up the Hyper-V Manager and click the Virtual Network Manager in the Actions panel. Select Internal and leave all the other default values. Give the virtual network a name, and leave all the other default values. After the virtual network is created, open the Network and Sharing Center and click Change Adapter Settings to see the list of network connections. The only thing I recommend that you do is to give this connection a friendly label, e.g. Hyper-V Internal.  When you have multiple networks and virtual networks on the host machines, this helps group the networks so you can easily differentiate them from each other.  Otherwise, dont touch it, only bad things can happen. Connect the Virtual Machines to the Internal Network Im assuming that you have more than 1 virtual machine already configured in Hyper-V, for example a Domain Controller, and Exchange Server, and a SharePoint Server. What you need to do is basically plug in the network to the virtual machine.  In order to do this, the machine needs to have a virtual network adapter.  If the VM doesnt have a network adapter, open the VMs Settings and click Add Hardware in the left pane.  Choose the virtual network to which to bind the adapter to. If you already have a virtual network adapter on the VM, simply connect it to the virtual network. Assign IP Addresses to the Virtual Machines on the Internal Network Open the Network and Sharing Center on your VM, there should only be 1 network at this time.  Open the Properties of the connection, select Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) and hit Properties. In this environment, Im assigning IP addresses as 192.168.0.xxx.  This particular VM has an IP address of 192.168.0.40 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, and a DNS Server of 192.168.0.18.  DNS is running on the Domain Controller VM which has an IP address of 192.168.0.18. Repeat this process on every VM in your environment, obviously assigning a unique IP address to each.  In an environment with a domain controller, you should now be able to ping the machines from each other. What Next? After completing this process, heres what you still cannot do: Access the internet from any of the VMs Remote desktop to a VM from the host Remote desktop to a VM over the network In the next post, well take a look configuring an External network adapter on the virtual machines.  Well then build on top of that so that you can RDP into the VMs from the host machine and over the network.Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • Gathering IP address and workstation information; does it belong in a state class?

    - by p.campbell
    I'm writing an enterprisey utility that collects exception information and writes to the Windows Event Log, sends an email, etc. This utility class will be used by all applications in the corporation: web, BizTalk, Windows Services, etc. Currently this class: holds state given to it via public properties calls out to .NET Framework methods to gather information about runtime details. Included are call to various properties and methods from System.Environment, Reflection details, etc. This implementation has the benefit of allowing all those callers not to have to make these same calls themselves. This means less code for the caller to forget, screw up, etc. Should this state class (please what's the phrase I'm looking for [like DTO]?) know how to resolve/determine runtime details (like the IP address and machine name that it's running on)? It seems to me on second thought that it's meant to be a class that should hold state, and not know how to call out to the .NET Framework to find information. var myEx = new AppProblem{MachineName="Riker"}; //Will get "Riker 10.0.0.1" from property MachineLongDesc Console.WriteLine("full machine details: " + myEx.MachineLongDesc); public class AppProblem { public string MachineName{get;set;} public string MachineLongDesc{ get{ if(string.IsNullOrEmpty(this.MachineName) { this.MachineName = Environment.MachineName; } return this.MachineName + " " + GetCurrentIP(); } } private string GetCurrentIP() { return System.Net.Dns.GetHostEntry(this.MachineName) .AddressList.First().ToString(); } } This code was written by hand from memory, and presented for simplicity, trying to illustrate the concept.

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  • Substitute Items on Internal Sales Orders

    - by ChristineS-Oracle
    Oracle Order Management now enables you to substitute items on internal sales order lines to manage item availability.  Oracle Order Management enables you to substitute items on internal sales order lines to manage item availability. Source organizations can decide to ship a substitute item in case the original item is not available to be shipped. The application supports manual (using Related Items window) and automatic (using ATP functionality) substitutions.To substitute an item on ISO, you must ensure that the value of the Item Substitution on Internal Order system parameter is set to a value other than None. In addition, you must ensure to define substitute item relationships and automatic item substitution setup in the system. The application provides the option to not send the notifications when any change happens on the ISO related to quantity, schedule arrival date, or item. You can control these notifications using the OM: Send Notifications of Internal Order Change profile option. For additional information refer to the Oracle Order Management Release Notes for Release 12.2.4 (Doc ID 1906521.1).

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  • class __init__ (not instance __init__)

    - by wallacoloo
    Here's a very simple example of what I'm trying to get around: class Test(object): some_dict = {Test: True} The problem is that I cannot refer to Test while it's still being defined Normally, I'd just do this: class Test(object): def __init__(self): self.__class__.some_dict = {Test: True} But I never create an instance of this class. It's really just a container to hold a group of related functions and data (I have several of these classes, and I pass around references to them, so it is necessary for Test to be it's own class) So my question is, how could I refer to Test while it's being defined, or is there something similar to __init__ that get's called as soon as the class is defined? If possible, I want self.some_dict = {Test: True} to remain inside the class definition. This is the only way I know how to do this so far: class Test(object): @classmethod def class_init(cls): cls.some_dict = {Test: True} Test.class_init()

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  • Derive abstract class from non-abstract class

    - by Jehof
    Is it OK to derive an abstract class from a non-abstract class or is there something wrong with this approach? Here´s a little example: public class Task { // Some Members } public abstract class PeriodicalTask : Task { // Represents a base class for task that has to be done periodicaly. // Some additional Members } public class DailyTask : PeriodicalTask { // Represents a Task that has to be done daily. // Some additional Members } public class WeeklyTask : PeriodicalTask { // Represents a Task that has to be done weekly. // Some additional Members } In the example above i do not want to make the class Task abstract, because i want to instantiate it directly. PeriodicalTask should inherit the functionality from Task and add some additional members but i do not want to instantiate it directly. Only derived class of PeriodicalTask should be instantiated.

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  • Java - abstract class, equals(), and two subclasses

    - by msr
    Hello, I have an abstract class named Xpto and two subclasses that extend it named Person and Car. I have also a class named Test with main() and a method foo() that verifies if two persons or cars (or any object of a class that extends Xpto) are equals. Thus, I redefined equals() in both Person and Car classes. Two persons are equal when they have the same name and two cars are equal when they have the same registration. However, when I call foo() in the Test class I always get "false". I understand why: the equals() is not redefined in Xpto abstract class. So... how can I compare two persons or cars (or any object of a class that extends Xpto) in that foo() method? In summary, this is the code I have: public abstract class Xpto { } public class Person extends Xpto{ protected String name; public Person(String name){ this.name = name; } public boolean equals(Person p){ System.out.println("Person equals()?"); return this.name.compareTo(p.name) == 0 ? true : false; } } public class Car extends Xpto{ protected String registration; public Car(String registration){ this.registration = registration; } public boolean equals(Car car){ System.out.println("Car equals()?"); return this.registration.compareTo(car.registration) == 0 ? true : false; } } public class Teste { public static void foo(Xpto xpto1, Xpto xpto2){ if(xpto1.equals(xpto2)) System.out.println("xpto1.equals(xpto2) -> true"); else System.out.println("xpto1.equals(xpto2) -> false"); } public static void main(String argv[]){ Car c1 = new Car("ABC"); Car c2 = new Car("DEF"); Person p1 = new Person("Manel"); Person p2 = new Person("Manel"); foo(p1,p2); } }

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  • VIrtual class problem

    - by ugur
    What i think about virtual class is, if a derived class has a public base, let's say, class base, then a pointer to derived can be assigned to a variable of type pointer to base without use of any explicit type conversion. But what if, we are inside of base class then how can we call derived class's functions. I will give an example: class Graph{ public: Graph(string); virtual bool addEdge(string,string); } class Direct:public Graph{ public: Direct(string); bool addEdge(string,string); } Direct::Direct(string filename):Graph(filename){}; When i call constructor of Direct class then it calls Graph. Now lets think Graph function calls addedge. Graph(string str){ addedge(str,str); } When it calls addedge, even if the function is virtual, it calls Graph::edge. What i want is, to call Direct::addedge. How can it be done?

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  • Virtual class problem

    - by ugur
    What i think about virtual class is, if a derived class has a public base, let's say, class base, then a pointer to derived can be assigned to a variable of type pointer to base without use of any explicit type conversion. But what if, we are inside of base class then how can we call derived class's functions. I will give an example: class Graph{ public: Graph(string); virtual bool addEdge(string,string); } class Direct:public Graph{ public: Direct(string); bool addEdge(string,string); } Direct::Direct(string filename):Graph(filename){}; When i call constructor of Direct class then it calls Graph. Now lets think Graph function calls addedge. Graph(string str){ addedge(str,str); } When it calls addedge, even if the function is virtual, it calls Graph::edge. What i want is, to call Direct::addedge. How can it be done?

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  • Flash AS3 - Dispatching Events from Parent Class to Child Class

    - by John Russell
    I think this is a pretty simply problem but I do not seem to be able to pull it off. Basically I have a parent class A, and a child class B. Class A instantiates class B with addChild. There is a shared object which is being updated from a java server (red5) that has an event listener attached to it in class A. I have a function in class A which will pass certain, specific updates from this shared object to class B. The problem occurs is that when class B is instantiated, the event listener from class A doesn't work anymore. I have not removed the event listener from A. Any thoughts?

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  • Python overriding class (not instance) special methods

    - by André
    How do I override a class special method? I want to be able to call the __str__() method of the class without creating an instance. Example: class Foo: def __str__(self): return 'Bar' class StaticFoo: @staticmethod def __str__(): return 'StaticBar' class ClassFoo: @classmethod def __str__(cls): return 'ClassBar' if __name__ == '__main__': print(Foo) print(Foo()) print(StaticFoo) print(StaticFoo()) print(ClassFoo) print(ClassFoo()) produces: <class '__main__.Foo'> Bar <class '__main__.StaticFoo'> StaticBar <class '__main__.ClassFoo'> ClassBar should be: Bar Bar StaticBar StaticBar ClassBar ClassBar Even if I use the @staticmethod or @classmethod the __str__ is still using the built in python definition for __str__. It's only working when it's Foo().__str__() instead of Foo.__str__().

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  • Override bits of a CSS class while inline?

    - by larryq
    I have an html img that is being styled by a CSS class. I would like to override the width and height values used in that class under some circumstances. I'm building this img tag using something called a TagBuilder class, provided by Microsoft for the .Net system, which allows developers to assign attributes to an html element. In this case a CSS class has been assigned to the img tag, and I can assign width and height attributes individually, but they're not taking precedence over the values set in the CSS class. My tag looks like this currently: <img alt="my link" class="static" height="240" id="StaticImage" src="http://imageserver.com/myImage.jpg" width="240"> The static CSS class has width and height values of 300 each, and as you can see I'm trying to override them with 240. It's not working in this instance but can I do it without a second CSS class?

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  • python class attribute

    - by chnet
    Hi, i have a question about class attribute in python. class base : def __init__ (self): pass derived_val = 1 t1 = base() t2 = base () t2.derived_val +=1 t2.__class__.derived_val +=2 print t2.derived_val # its value is 2 print t2.__class__.derived_val # its value is 3 The results are different. I also use id() function to find t2.derived_val and t2.class.derived_val have different memory address. My problem is derived_val is class attribute. Why it is different in above example? Is it because the instance of class copy its own derived_val beside the class attribute?

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  • Python Class inherit from all submodules

    - by Dhruv Govil
    I'm currently writing a wrapper in python for a lot of custom company tools. I'm basically going to break each tool into its own py file with a class containing the call to the tool as a method. These will all be contained in a package. Then there'll be a master class that will import all from the package, then inherit from each and every class, so as to appear as one cohesive class. masterClass.py pyPackage - __ init__.py - module1.py --class Module1 ---method tool1 - module2.py --class Module2 ---method tool2 etc Right now, I'm autogenerating the master class file to inherit from the packages modules, but I was wondering if there was a more elegant way to do it? ie from package import * class MasterClass(package.all): pass

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  • cast operator to base class within a thin wrapper derived class

    - by miked
    I have a derived class that's a very thin wrapper around a base class. Basically, I have a class that has two ways that it can be compared depending on how you interpret it so I created a new class that derives from the base class and only has new constructors (that just delegate to the base class) and a new operator==. What I'd like to do is overload the operator Base&() in the Derived class so in cases where I need to interpret it as the Base. For example: class Base { Base(stuff); Base(const Base& that); bool operator==(Base& rhs); //typical equality test }; class Derived : public Base { Derived(stuff) : Base(stuff) {}; Derived(const Base& that) : Base(that) {}; Derived(const Derived& that) : Base(that) {}; bool operator==(Derived& rhs); //special case equality test operator Base&() { return (Base&)*this; //Is this OK? It seems wrong to me. } }; If you want a simple example of what I'm trying to do, pretend I had a String class and String==String is the typical character by character comparison. But I created a new class CaseInsensitiveString that did a case insensitive compare on CaseInsensitiveString==CaseInsensitiveString but in all other cases just behaved like a String. it doesn't even have any new data members, just an overloaded operator==. (Please, don't tell me to use std::string, this is just an example!) Am I going about this right? Something seems fishy, but I can't put my finger on it.

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  • Getting the name of a child class in the parent class (static context)

    - by Benoit Myard
    Hi everybody, I'm building an ORM library with reuse and simplicity in mind; everything goes fine except that I got stuck by a stupid inheritance limitation. Please consider the code below: class BaseModel { /* * Return an instance of a Model from the database. */ static public function get (/* varargs */) { // 1. Notice we want an instance of User $class = get_class(parent); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(self); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(); // value: string(9) "BaseModel" $class = __CLASS__; // value: string(9) "BaseModel" // 2. Query the database with id $row = get_row_from_db_as_array(func_get_args()); // 3. Return the filled instance $obj = new $class(); $obj->data = $row; return $obj; } } class User extends BaseModel { protected $table = 'users'; protected $fields = array('id', 'name'); protected $primary_keys = array('id'); } class Section extends BaseModel { // [...] } $my_user = User::get(3); $my_user->name = 'Jean'; $other_user = User::get(24); $other_user->name = 'Paul'; $my_user->save(); $other_user->save(); $my_section = Section::get('apropos'); $my_section->delete(); Obviously, this is not the behavior I was expecting (although the actual behavior also makes sense).. So my question is if you guys know of a mean to get, in the parent class, the name of child class.

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Share the same subnet between Internal network and VPN Clients

    - by Pascal
    I would like to set up a configuration where VPN clients connecting to my Forefront TMG can access all the resources of my Internal network without having the to use the option "Use default gateway on remote network" on the VPN's TCP/IP Ipv4 Advanced Settings. This is important to me, since they can use their own internet while accessing my network through VPN (the security implications of this are acceptable on my cenario) My Internal network runs on 10.50.75.x, and I set up Forefront TMG to relay the DHCP of my Internal network to the VPN clients, so they get IPs from the same range as the Internal network. This setup initially works, and the VPN clients use their own internet, and can access anything that is on the internal network. However, after a while, HTTP Proxy Traffic from the Internal network starts getting routed to the IP of the RRAS Dial In Interface, instead of the IP of the Internal's network gateway. When this happens, the HTTP Proxy starts getting denied for obvious reasons. My first question is: does this happen because Forefront TMG wasn't designed to handle a cenario that I described above, and it "loses itself"? My second question is: Is there any way to solve this problem, either through configuration or firewall policies? My third question is: If there's no way that it can work with the cenario above, is there another cenario that will solve my problem, and do what I'd like it to do properly? Below are my network routes: 1 => Local Host Access => Route => Local Host => All Networks 2 => VPN Clients to Internal Network => Route => VPN Clients => Internal 3 => Internet Access => NAT => Internal, Perimeter, VPN Clients => External 4 => Internal to Perimeter => Route => Internal, VPN Clients => Perimeter Tks!

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  • Breaking through the class sealing

    - by Jason Crease
    Do you understand 'sealing' in C#?  Somewhat?  Anyway, here's the lowdown. I've done this article from a C# perspective, but I've occasionally referenced .NET when appropriate. What is sealing a class? By sealing a class in C#, you ensure that you ensure that no class can be derived from that class.  You do this by simply adding the word 'sealed' to a class definition: public sealed class Dog {} Now writing something like " public sealed class Hamster: Dog {} " you'll get a compile error like this: 'Hamster: cannot derive from sealed type 'Dog' If you look in an IL disassembler, you'll see a definition like this: .class public auto ansi sealed beforefieldinit Dog extends [mscorlib]System.Object Note the addition of the word 'sealed'. What about sealing methods? You can also seal overriding methods.  By adding the word 'sealed', you ensure that the method cannot be overridden in a derived class.  Consider the following code: public class Dog : Mammal { public sealed override void Go() { } } public class Mammal { public virtual void Go() { } } In this code, the method 'Go' in Dog is sealed.  It cannot be overridden in a subclass.  Writing this would cause a compile error: public class Dachshund : Dog { public override void Go() { } } However, we can 'new' a method with the same name.  This is essentially a new method; distinct from the 'Go' in the subclass: public class Terrier : Dog { public new void Go() { } } Sealing properties? You can also seal seal properties.  You add 'sealed' to the property definition, like so: public sealed override string Name {     get { return m_Name; }     set { m_Name = value; } } In C#, you can only seal a property, not the underlying setters/getters.  This is because C# offers no override syntax for setters or getters.  However, in underlying IL you seal the setter and getter methods individually - a property is just metadata. Why bother sealing? There are a few traditional reasons to seal: Invariance. Other people may want to derive from your class, even though your implementation may make successful derivation near-impossible.  There may be twisted, hacky logic that could never be second-guessed by another developer.  By sealing your class, you're protecting them from wasting their time.  The CLR team has sealed most of the framework classes, and I assume they did this for this reason. Security.  By deriving from your type, an attacker may gain access to functionality that enables him to hack your system.  I consider this a very weak security precaution. Speed.  If a class is sealed, then .NET doesn't need to consult the virtual-function-call table to find the actual type, since it knows that no derived type can exist.  Therefore, it could emit a 'call' instead of 'callvirt' or at least optimise the machine code, thus producing a performance benefit.  But I've done trials, and have been unable to demonstrate this If you have an example, please share! All in all, I'm not convinced that sealing is interesting or important.  Anyway, moving-on... What is automatically sealed? Value types and structs.  If they were not always sealed, all sorts of things would go wrong.  For instance, structs are laid-out inline within a class.  But what if you assigned a substruct to a struct field of that class?  There may be too many fields to fit. Static classes.  Static classes exist in C# but not .NET.  The C# compiler compiles a static class into an 'abstract sealed' class.  So static classes are already sealed in C#. Enumerations.  The CLR does not track the types of enumerations - it treats them as simple value types.  Hence, polymorphism would not work. What cannot be sealed? Interfaces.  Interfaces exist to be implemented, so sealing to prevent implementation is dumb.  But what if you could prevent interfaces from being extended (i.e. ban declarations like "public interface IMyInterface : ISealedInterface")?  There is no good reason to seal an interface like this.  Sealing finalizes behaviour, but interfaces have no intrinsic behaviour to finalize Abstract classes.  In IL you can create an abstract sealed class.  But C# syntax for this already exists - declaring a class as a 'static', so it forces you to declare it as such. Non-override methods.  If a method isn't declared as override it cannot be overridden, so sealing would make no difference.  Note this is stated from a C# perspective - the words are opposite in IL.  In IL, you have four choices in total: no declaration (which actually seals the method), 'virtual' (called 'override' in C#), 'sealed virtual' ('sealed override' in C#) and 'newslot virtual' ('new virtual' or 'virtual' in C#, depending on whether the method already exists in a base class). Methods that implement interface methods.  Methods that implement an interface method must be virtual, so cannot be sealed. Fields.  A field cannot be overridden, only hidden (using the 'new' keyword in C#), so sealing would make no sense.

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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  • Generic Class Vb.net

    - by KoolKabin
    hi guys, I am stuck with a problem about generic classes. I am confused how I call the constructor with parameters. My interface: Public Interface IDBObject Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As DataRow) Property UIN() As Integer End Interface My Child Class: Public Class User Implements IDBObject Public Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As System.Data.DataRow) Implements IDBObject.Get End Sub Public Property UIN() As Integer Implements IDBObject.UIN Get End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) End Set End Property End Class My Next Class: Public Class Users Inherits DBLayer(Of User) #Region " Standard Methods " #End Region End Class My DBObject Class: Public Class DBLayer(Of DBObject As {New, IDBObject}) Public Shared Function GetData() As List(Of DBObject) Dim QueryString As String = "SELECT * ***;" Dim Dataset As DataSet = New DataSet() Dim DataList As List(Of DBObject) = New List(Of DBObject) Try Dataset = Query(QueryString) For Each DataRow As DataRow In Dataset.Tables(0).Rows **DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow))** Next Catch ex As Exception DataList = Nothing End Try Return DataList End Function End Class I get error in the starred area of the DBLayer Object. What might be the possible reason? what can I do to fix it? I even want to add New(byval someval as datatype) in IDBObject interface for overloading construction. but it also gives an error? how can i do it? Adding Sub New(ByVal DataRow As DataRow) in IDBObject producess following error 'Sub New' cannot be declared in an interface. Error Produced in DBLayer Object line: DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow)) Msg: Arguments cannot be passed to a 'New' used on a type parameter.

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  • Python: Inheritance of a class attribute (list)

    - by Sano98
    Hi everyone, inheriting a class attribute from a super class and later changing the value for the subclass works fine: class Unit(object): value = 10 class Archer(Unit): pass print Unit.value print Archer.value Archer.value = 5 print Unit.value print Archer.value leads to the output: 10 10 10 5 which is just fine: Archer inherits the value from Unit, but when I change Archer's value, Unit's value remains untouched. Now, if the inherited value is a list, the shallow copy effect strikes and the value of the superclass is also affected: class Unit(object): listvalue = [10] class Archer(Unit): pass print Unit.listvalue print Archer.listvalue Archer.listvalue[0] = 5 print Unit.listvalue print Archer.listvalue Output: 10 10 5 5 Is there a way to "deep copy" a list when inheriting it from the super class? Many thanks Sano

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  • gcc returns error with nested class

    - by Nate
    Howdy, I am attempting to use the fully qualified name of my nested class as below, but the compiler is balking! template <class T> class Apple { //constructors, members, whatevers, etc... public: class Banana { public: Banana() { //etc... } //other constructors, members, etc... }; }; template <class K> class Carrot{ public: //etc... void problemFunction() { Apple<int>::Banana freshBanana = someVar.returnsABanana(); //line 85 giveMonkey(freshBanana); //line 86 } }; My issue is, the compiler says: Carrot.h:85: error: expected ';' before 'freshBanana' Carrot.h:86: error: 'freshBanana' was not declared in this scope I had thought that using the fully qualified name permitted me to access this nested class? It's probably going to smack me in the face, but what on earth am I not seeing here??

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