Search Results

Search found 12775 results on 511 pages for 'remote validation'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 90/511 | < Previous Page | 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97  | Next Page >

  • Configure X connections over TCP without using an X connection

    - by Darren Cook
    I want to run a GUI application on a remote machine I only have ssh access to. I don't need to, or want to, see the GUI window. (I know I could use something like ssh -C -X remote_server if I wanted the GUI to be on my client.) I know X is running on the remote machine, as ps shows this: root ... /usr/bin/Xorg :0 -br -audit 0 -auth /var/gdm/:0.Xauth -nolisten tcp vt7 I set DISPLAY=:0.0 but I then get "Xlib: connection to ":0.0" refused by server" when I try to use it. At Get remote x display working in linux without ssh tunneling and Xserver doesn't work unless DISPLAY=0.0 I see the advice to use gdmsetup to allow X to listen on TCP. But, gdmsetup is a GUI application! And trying to run it over ssh -X did not work ("X11 connection rejected because of wrong authentication"). So, is there a text file I can edit to remove -nolisten? And, after editing it, how do I safely restart X, remotely? (There is other stuff running on this machine, so requesting a reboot is possible, but undesirable.) If not, should gdmsetup be able to run over ssh and I should persevere in that direction? UPDATE: I had to do the ssh -X session as root (ssh as a normal user, then sudo or su, does not work.) So, I did the edit with gdmsetup. I then restarted X with gdm-restart. I've also done xhost + from that ssh -X session. The ps line no longer shows the -nolisten tcp part. But still no luck connecting to it, with either DISPLAY=:0 or DISPLAY=localhost:0

    Read the article

  • SelfValidation in DataAnnotations?

    - by DotnetDude
    With Validation Application block, there's the following functionality: Creating Custom attributes Creating SelfValidation on the type Ability to read from external config file I plan to use the DataAnnotations to replace the Validation application block. Are the above possible with DataAnnotations? If so, how'd I implement them?

    Read the article

  • How to do wpf datavalidation with Ado.net

    - by biju
    How can i use data validation mechanisms with ado.net datatable or datasets. I have an input form which i am binding to a datatable.Now i want to do input validation how can i do that.I have tried using validationRules but i cant bind parameters to it.I tried using idataerrorinfo but cant get a clue.can someone provide some input..?

    Read the article

  • validating data in .net

    - by Chen Kinnrot
    i'm looking for recommended validation frameworks, or patterns for an n-tier client application, i wanna write the validation once and ind it to wpf gui, and also for server side and client side related bussiness logic

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc 2 validating text inputs on modal windows

    - by nick
    hi guys, i am tasked with the job of creating client-side validation on a form in an asp.net MVC 2 application, which has a modal window (the modal exists as part of the wrapping form, it is not a form unto itself). how would i go about providing validation for these text field inputs while the modal is visible, but do not validate while the modal is not displayed (as to not cause problems in the rest of the form if the modal window is never required) What is the best approach to achieve this functionality? thanks, Nick

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2 - How to have a non-required field?

    - by user314963
    Hi there All my fields seem to be required by default as I am getting a server-validation message "enter title" in my validation summary box. How do I make this field not required? I havent declared anything explicitly in the ViewModel & the front-side code is simply Html.DropDownListFor Any help would be really appreciated~!

    Read the article

  • Validating international Zipcode Format

    - by Gobi
    Hello again, is anyone find validation for zipcode for all countries around the world. i found mostly US,Canada and UK validation scripts in Javascript. any gimme any suggestion how to validate the international zipcodes either in php or js.

    Read the article

  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

    Read the article

  • Email SMTP validator

    - by Hrvoje
    I need to send hundreds of newsletters, but would like to check first if email exists on server. It's called smtp validation, at least i think so, based on my research on net. There's several libraries that can do that, and also a page with open-source code in asp (http://www.coveryourasp.com/ValidateEmail.asp#Result3), but I have hard time reading classic asp, and it seams that it uses some third-party library... Does someone have code for smtp validation in c#, and/or general explanation of how it works?

    Read the article

  • Validating Internationalized URLs

    - by VirtuosiMedia
    After reading about the new Arabic URLs, and with more languages to come, how should URL validation be done for internationalized applications? Does the validation change at all and will existing solutions break? Is regex still a good approach? If so, what would that regex look like? If not, what's a good strategy? What are some good resources to read more on the topic?

    Read the article

  • How can I retrieve the instance of an attribute's associated object?

    - by Brandon Linton
    I'm writing a PropertiesMustMatch validation attribute that can take a string property name as a parameter. I'd like it to find the corresponding property by name on that object and do a basic equality comparison. What's the best way to access this through reflection? Also, I checked out the Validation application block in the Enterprise Library and decided its PropertyComparisonValidator was way too intense for what we need.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't web browsers have built in validators?

    - by August Karlstrom
    As far as I know there is no web browser with built in validators for HTML, CSS and Javascript. Developing web pages without validation is like using a compiler that doesn't do syntax analysis. Even Firefox with its excellent plugins aimed at developers like Firebug lacks plugins for CSS and Javascript validation. Wouldn't it be useful to have these plugins? Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Why don't web browsers have built in validators?

    - by August Karlstrom
    As far as I know there is no web browser with built in validators for HTML, CSS and JavaScript. Developing web pages without validation is like using a compiler that doesn't do syntax analysis. Even Firefox with its excellent plugins aimed at developers like Firebug lacks plugins for CSS and JavaScript validation. Wouldn't it be useful to have these plugins? Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • RequestValidation Changes in ASP.NET 4.0

    - by Rick Strahl
    There’s been a change in the way the ValidateRequest attribute on WebForms works in ASP.NET 4.0. I noticed this today while updating a post on my WebLog all of which contain raw HTML and so all pretty much trigger request validation. I recently upgraded this app from ASP.NET 2.0 to 4.0 and it’s now failing to update posts. At first this was difficult to track down because of custom error handling in my app – the custom error handler traps the exception and logs it with only basic error information so the full detail of the error was initially hidden. After some more experimentation in development mode the error that occurs is the typical ASP.NET validate request error (‘A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detetected…’) which looks like this in ASP.NET 4.0: At first when I got this I was real perplexed as I didn’t read the entire error message and because my page does have: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewEntry.aspx.cs" Inherits="Westwind.WebLog.NewEntry" MasterPageFile="~/App_Templates/Standard/AdminMaster.master" ValidateRequest="false" EnableEventValidation="false" EnableViewState="false" %> WTF? ValidateRequest would seem like it should be enough, but alas in ASP.NET 4.0 apparently that setting alone is no longer enough. Reading the fine print in the error explains that you need to explicitly set the requestValidationMode for the application back to V2.0 in web.config: <httpRuntime executionTimeout="300" requestValidationMode="2.0" /> Kudos for the ASP.NET team for putting up a nice error message that tells me how to fix this problem, but excuse me why the heck would you change this behavior to require an explicit override to an optional and by default disabled page level switch? You’ve just made a relatively simple fix to a solution a nasty morass of hard to discover configuration settings??? The original way this worked was perfectly discoverable via attributes in the page. Now you can set this setting in the page and get completely unexpected behavior and you are required to set what effectively amounts to a backwards compatibility flag in the configuration file. It turns out the real reason for the .config flag is that the request validation behavior has moved from WebForms pipeline down into the entire ASP.NET/IIS request pipeline and is now applied against all requests. Here’s what the breaking changes page from Microsoft says about it: The request validation feature in ASP.NET provides a certain level of default protection against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. In previous versions of ASP.NET, request validation was enabled by default. However, it applied only to ASP.NET pages (.aspx files and their class files) and only when those pages were executing. In ASP.NET 4, by default, request validation is enabled for all requests, because it is enabled before the BeginRequest phase of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation applies to requests for all ASP.NET resources, not just .aspx page requests. This includes requests such as Web service calls and custom HTTP handlers. Request validation is also active when custom HTTP modules are reading the contents of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation errors might now occur for requests that previously did not trigger errors. To revert to the behavior of the ASP.NET 2.0 request validation feature, add the following setting in the Web.config file: <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> However, we recommend that you analyze any request validation errors to determine whether existing handlers, modules, or other custom code accesses potentially unsafe HTTP inputs that could be XSS attack vectors. Ok, so ValidateRequest of the form still works as it always has but it’s actually the ASP.NET Event Pipeline, not WebForms that’s throwing the above exception as request validation is applied to every request that hits the pipeline. Creating the runtime override removes the HttpRuntime checking and restores the WebForms only behavior. That fixes my immediate problem but still leaves me wondering especially given the vague wording of the above explanation. One thing that’s missing in the description is above is one important detail: The request validation is applied only to application/x-www-form-urlencoded POST content not to all inbound POST data. When I first read this this freaked me out because it sounds like literally ANY request hitting the pipeline is affected. To make sure this is not really so I created a quick handler: public class Handler1 : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("Hello World <hr>" + context.Request.Form.ToString()); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } and called it with Fiddler by posting some XML to the handler using a default form-urlencoded POST content type: and sure enough – hitting the handler also causes the request validation error and 500 server response. Changing the content type to text/xml effectively fixes the problem however, bypassing the request validation filter so Web Services/AJAX handlers and custom modules/handlers that implement custom protocols aren’t affected as long as they work with special input content types. It also looks that multipart encoding does not trigger event validation of the runtime either so this request also works fine: POST http://rasnote/weblog/handler1.ashx HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=------7cf2a327f01ae User-Agent: West Wind Internet Protocols 5.53 Host: rasnote Content-Length: 40 Pragma: no-cache <xml>asdasd</xml>--------7cf2a327f01ae *That* probably should trigger event validation – since it is a potential HTML form submission, but it doesn’t. New Runtime Feature, Global Scope Only? Ok, so request validation is now a runtime feature but sadly it’s a feature that’s scoped to the ASP.NET Runtime – effective scope to the entire running application/app domain. You can still manually force validation using Request.ValidateInput() which gives you the option to do this in code, but that realistically will only work with the requestValidationMode set to V2.0 as well since the 4.0 mode auto-fires before code ever gets a chance to intercept the call. Given all that, the new setting in ASP.NET 4.0 seems to limit options and makes things more difficult and less flexible. Of course Microsoft gets to say ASP.NET is more secure by default because of it but what good is that if you have to turn off this flag the very first time you need to allow one single request that bypasses request validation??? This is really shortsighted design… <sigh>© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in ASP.NET  

    Read the article

  • Fortigate Remote VPN : no matching gateway for new request

    - by Kedare
    I am trying to configure a Fortigate 60C to act as an IPSec endpoint for remote VPN. I configured it like this : SCR-F0-FGT100C-1 # diagnose vpn ike config vd: root/0 name: SCR-REMOTEVPN serial: 7 version: 1 type: dynamic mode: aggressive dpd: enable retry-count 3 interval 5000ms auth: psk dhgrp: 2 xauth: server-auto xauth-group: VPN-group interface: wan1 distance: 1 priority: 0 phase2s: SCR-REMOTEVPN-PH2 proto 0 src 0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0:0 dst 0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0:0 dhgrp 5 replay keep-alive dhcp policies: none Here is the configuration: config vpn ipsec phase1-interface edit "SCR-REMOTEVPN" set type dynamic set interface "wan1" set dhgrp 2 set xauthtype auto set mode aggressive set proposal aes256-sha1 aes256-md5 set authusrgrp "VPN-group" set psksecret ENC xxx next config vpn ipsec phase2-interface edit "SCR-REMOTEVPN-PH2" set keepalive enable set phase1name "SCR-REMOTEVPN" set proposal aes256-sha1 aes256-md5 set dhcp-ipsec enable next end But when I try to connect from a remote device (I tested with an Android Phone), the phone fail to connect and the fortinet return this error : 2012-07-20 13:08:51 log_id=0101037124 type=event subtype=ipsec pri=error vd="root" msg="IPsec phase 1 error" action="negotiate" rem_ip=xxx loc_ip=xxx rem_port=1049 loc_port=500 out_intf="wan1" cookies="xxx" user="N/A" group="N/A" xauth_user="N/A" xauth_group="N/A" vpn_tunnel="N/A" status=negotiate_error error_reason=no matching gateway for new request peer_notif=INITIAL-CONTACT I tried searching on the web, but i did not find anything revelant to this. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem ? I tried many combinaisons of settings on the fortigate without success..

    Read the article

  • Remote SQL server connection failure

    - by Sevki
    I am trying to connect to my MSSQL server 2008 web instance and im failing horribly... i get the error 26 and before you jump on me i have done these Check the spelling of the SQL Server instance name that is specified in the connection string. Use the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration tool to enable SQL Server to accept remote connections over the TCP or named pipes protocols. For more information about the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration Tool, see Surface Area Configuration for Services and Connections. Make sure that you have configured the firewall on the server instance of SQL Server to open ports for SQL Server and the SQL Server Browser port (UDP 1434). Make sure that the SQL Server Browser service is started on the server. in addition to theese i have disabled the firewall completely and tried other ports nothing works the same credentials work on the server but not on the client. this is the exact error message A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) Can anybody help?

    Read the article

  • iPhone Remote with iTunes Library via VPN

    - by sudo work
    Alright, so I'm currently behind a network router (not under my control). The router performs NAT and somehow prevents a computer from scanning other nodes. At least, you're unable, in this instance, to locate an iTunes library. You can, however, communicate with a node's open ports if the local IP address is known, as well as the port. I haven't actually tried port scanning a specific IP using nmap or another tool yet. So I've tried one solution to remove the contribution of the router entirely (to verify that it works without the influence of the routers). I set up an access point using my iPhone and tethered my computer (with the library) to it. From here, I was able to pair my library and the iPhone Remote application. Control of the library was normal as well. This solution is not ideal, however, because I am actively using bandwidth with my computer and cannot afford to be tethered to my 3G connection. A viable solution for me is to use a common VPN connection, which I have set up on a Ubuntu (Intrepid) server that is remote. Both my computer and iPhone are able to access the VPN via PPTP. The server is setup with PPTPD as the VPN-server; I'm using IPTables to perform IP masquerading and forwarding traffic. I however, still cannot connect the library to the phone. I can however, see both devices on the VPN subnet (192.168.0.0/24). SSH'ing and such works fine. What settings on the VPN server must I change to get this to work? Also, how can I assign static IP addresses to various PPTP clients based on MAC addresses?

    Read the article

  • How to monitor process hogging CPU on a remote server

    - by sergeb
    I have a remotely hosted (virtual, VMware) dedicated server (Windows 2008 Server Web edition w/ SP1) that I can only connect to over Remote Desktop. Lately, a process hogs CPU for ~40 minutes most every day (at a random hour) and brings all web sites on the server down. While this is going on I also cannot connect using Remote Desktop to investigate on what is that process... Promptly after 40 min I can RD and the first thing I see on the Perf Monitor is that there was something topping the CPU at 100% and stops just before I'm able to RD... I'm aware of the beginning and end of this for I have monitors setup that email me up/down status of the web sites but I'm locked out while this is happening - can't RD to the server until it's over (and too late to see the Task Manager/Process Explorer picture). What is the best way/tool to setup on the server to continuously monitor all processes so when this happens I login and "replay" it to find the process causing this trouble? (I have no control over the virtual/VMware setup for it is hosted by a 3rd-party but I have most full control over my dedicated machine) Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • cygwin sshd times out for remote login

    - by reve_etrange
    I have configured SSHD using Cygwin on Windows 7. I have checked and double-checked all of the following points: Port forwarding is correctly configured Windows Firewall is configured to pass port 22 Local login attempts (using Cygwin SSH) succeed sshd_config has UseDNS No Using nmap from remote machine confirms port 22 is accessible /etc/passwd and /etc/group are correctly populated However, remote login attempts time out. This includes from the local network. user@host:~$ ssh -vvv [email protected] OpenSSH_5.5p1 Debian-4ubuntu6, OpenSSL 0.9.8o 01 Jun 2010 debug1: Reading configuration data /home/user/.ssh/config debug1: Applying options for * debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug2: ssh_connect: needpriv 0 debug1: Connecting to the.ip.add.ress [the.ip.add.ress] port 22. debug1: connect to address the.ip.add.ress port 22: Connection timed out ssh: connect to the.ip.add.ress port 22: Connection timed out No messages are logged to /var/log/sshd.log. I suspect that there is a permissions issue with a particular file somewhere, however I have checked the permissions of all my Cygwin binaries, DLLs and the particular files important to Cygwin sshd, including all of: /etc/passwd /etc/group /var /var/log/sshd.log /var/empty Others who have reported this or similar errors appear to have missed one of the points enumerated above. Can anyone point me to a possible solution?

    Read the article

  • running automated fsck on remote server

    - by GriffinHeart
    I had another question about df, and now i came to conclusion i need to run fsck my partition, i've been reading about it and would like some advice, if possible. The situation is like this, no physical access to the server and i want to run fsck. from what i read i just need to touch /forcefsck and when i reboot it will run fsck. My question is, at its basis, with what arguments will the fsck run? Will it need user input to correct errors, etc? and after running will it save a log of what happened? if this was how it ran it would be perfect, anyway of enforcing that on reboot? fsck -v -p /machine/disk/p1 2>&1 > fscklog.txt Also here they describe this: it's also a good idea on debian and debian-derivatives like ubuntu to edit /etc/default/rcS on remote servers and set "FSCKFIX=yes" that adds "-y" to the boot time fsck, so it doesn't risk the remote server being stuck waiting for someone to login at the console and run fsck. But on Centos that doesn't seem to exist I only have ssh access at the moment so that is why i'm being so picky with it. here's some info about disks and mounted volumes on the server: http://pastebin.centos.org/33314 Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Printing to a remote printer through the internet

    - by Lock
    I have a remote network (A) that is connected to a head office (B) through a private network. Network A only has 1 PC that requires the connection, and this is into a terminal server at network B. We want to save money by getting rid of the private network as only 1 PC now access it and it seems silly to pay ~$400 per month for something that is accessed by 1 PC. A VPN tunnel is out of the question as the provider wants to charge $600 a month for a VPN tunnel (more than a private network? I might get them to check these numbers). I was thinking of 2 options: 1) VPN client on the PC. This wouldn't cost a thing as we already have VPN users available. 2) Open up a port on the firewall of network B, forwarding to the terminal server. Now the problem is this: On the terminal server, the program that is accessed is for printing labels to the printer that is at network A. The program is setup to send all print jobs to a printer that is setup locally on the terminal server, which has its port mapped to the IP address of the printer that is at network A. If we got rid of the VPN tunnel and used clients/open up firewall port, the printer would no longer be able to find network A, and hence printing would not work. Any ideas to combat this issue? Can the printers at the remote network be setup as internet printers? I've never had any experience with internet printers. Can you open up ports and map to a public static IP address?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97  | Next Page >