Search Results

Search found 22880 results on 916 pages for 'session cookie domain'.

Page 90/916 | < Previous Page | 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97  | Next Page >

  • How to get session variables from php server with Ajax function? (PHP HTML JS Ajax)

    - by Ole Jak
    so in my php I have something like this $_SESSION['opened'] = true; But It will not be set to true until user will perform some actions with some other html\php pages So I need on some Ajax function to be able get this session variable. And some PHP sample of function to get variable in form ready for Ajax to get it. so I need something to AJAX requesting to an action (to some simple php code) which will return a value from $_SESSION. How to do such thing?

    Read the article

  • Potential issue when using memcache session save handler in PHP

    - by Sean
    I have two load balanced web servers, and I'm using the memcache session save handler with the save path pointing to two memcache servers. It's configured with session redundancy set to two (the number of memcache servers). So PHP is writing session data to both memcache servers, and when I take one of the servers down, everything seems to work fine since the session data has been written to both memcache servers. The problem seems to happen when I use the app for a while with only the one memcache server up, and then bring the other one back up. My theory is that the memcache server comes back up, and PHP then starts asking it for session data which isn't there since it was written to the other server while this one was down. Is there any merit to this theory? Should PHP be asking both servers for the session data and maybe there's some other problem?

    Read the article

  • How to merge or copy anonymous session data into user data when user logs in?

    - by benhoyt
    This is a general question, or perhaps a request for pointers to other open source projects to look at: I'm wondering how people merge an anonymous user's session data into the authenticated user data when a user logs in. For example, someone is browsing around your websites saving various items as favourites. He's not logged in, so they're saved to an anonymous user's data. Then he logs in, and we need to merge all that data into their (possibly existing) user data. Is this done different ways in an ad-hoc fashion for different applications? Or are there some best practices or other projects people can direct me to?

    Read the article

  • How to Synchronize Session / Security between ASP.NET and Tomcat?

    - by Jay Stevens
    I have an Asp.NET 3.5 application with security/authentication. I have a second application (built using GWT and running on Windows Tomcat) running on a different machine. I need to make the second application available to the user via a link generated from the .NET application. This part is easy, I have constructed the link in the asp.net page and the user can click on it to start working in the GWT/Tomcat session. My question is this... How do I set it up so that the Tomcat/GWT application is Only Accessible via the link in my asp.NET application? I don't want the user to be able to copy the link from my asp.net page and then share that with someone else who is not authenticated within my asp.net application.

    Read the article

  • Passing Session[] and Request[] to Methods in C#

    - by NYARROW
    In C#, How do you pass the Session[] and Request[] objects to a method? I would like to use a method to parse out Session and Request paramaters for a .aspx page to reduce the size of my Page_Load method. I am passing quite a few variables, and need to support both POSTand GET methods. For most calls, not all variables are present, so I have to test every variable multiple ways, and the code gets long... This is what I am trying to do, but I can't seem to properly identify the Session and Request paramaters (this code will not compile, because the arrays are indexed by number) static string getParam( System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState[] Session, System.Web.HttpRequest[] Request, string id) { string rslt = ""; try { rslt = Session[id].ToString(); } catch { try { rslt = Request[id].ToString(); } catch { } } return rslt; } From Page_Load, I want to call this method as follows to retrieve the "MODE" paramater: string rslt; rslt = getParam(Session, Request, "MODE"); Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Modular Database Structures

    - by John D
    I have been examining the code base we use in work and I am worried about the size the packages have grown to. The actual code is modular, procedures have been broken down into small functional (and testable) parts. The issue I see is that we have 100 procedures in a single package - almost an entire domain model. I had thought of breaking these packages down - to create sub domains that are centered around the procedure relationships to other objects. Group a bunch of procedures that have 80% of their relationships to three tables etc. The end result would be a lot more packages, but the packages would be smaller and I feel the entire code base would be more readable - when procedures cross between two domain models it is less of a struggle to figure which package it belongs to. The problem I now have is what the actual benefit of all this would really be. I looked at the general advantages of modularity: 1. Re-usability 2. Asynchronous Development 3. Maintainability Yet when I consider our latest development, the procedures within the packages are already reusable. At this advanced stage we rarely require asynchronous development - and when it is required we simply ladder the stories across iterations. So I guess my question is if people know of reasons why you would break down classes rather than just the methods inside of classes? Right now I do believe there is an issue with these mega packages forming but the only benefit I can really pin down to break them down is readability - something that experience gained from working with them would solve.

    Read the article

  • Are DDD Aggregates really a good idea in a Web Application?

    - by Mystere Man
    I'm diving in to Domain Driven Design and some of the concepts i'm coming across make a lot of sense on the surface, but when I think about them more I have to wonder if that's really a good idea. The concept of Aggregates, for instance makes sense. You create small domains of ownership so that you don't have to deal with the entire domain model. However, when I think about this in the context of a web app, we're frequently hitting the database to pull back small subsets of data. For instance, a page may only list the number of orders, with links to click on to open the order and see its order id's. If i'm understanding Aggregates right, I would typically use the repository pattern to return an OrderAggregate that would contain the members GetAll, GetByID, Delete, and Save. Ok, that sounds good. But... If I call GetAll to list all my order's, it would seem to me that this pattern would require the entire list of aggregate information to be returned, complete orders, order lines, etc... When I only need a small subset of that information (just header information). Am I missing something? Or is there some level of optimization you would use here? I can't imagine that anyone would advocate returning entire aggregates of information when you don't need it. Certainly, one could create methods on your repository like GetOrderHeaders, but that seems to defeat the purpose of using a pattern like repository in the first place. Can anyone clarify this for me?

    Read the article

  • How to deal with data on the model specific to the technology being used?

    - by user1620696
    There are some cases where some of the data on a class of the domain model of an application seems to be dependent on the technology being used. One example of this is the following: suppose we are building one application in .NET such that there's the need of an Employee class. Suppose further that we are going to implement relational database, then the Employee has a primary key right? So that the classe would be something like public class Employee { public int EmployeeID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } ... } Now, that EmployeeID is dependent on the technology right? That's something that has to do with the way we've choose to persist our data. Should we write down a class independent of such things? If we do it this way, how should we work? I think I would need to map all the time between domain model and persistence specific types, but I'm not sure.

    Read the article

  • How to create a WHM/cPanel account, without creating a new sub-domain?

    - by Cyclops
    I have a basic VPS (full root access), with WHM/cPanel, and am learning the ropes. I'm trying to create a new account for an existing domain (mysite.com), and so far WHM won't let me - it either wants a sub-domain or fake domain, but won't allow two accounts for one domain. In the beginning, there was only the root account, and it wouldn't let me login to cPanel - a quick chat with tech support, and I am informed that I need to create a second account, which I did. So now I have an account, call it ns1me, for domain mysite.com. Now I want to create a django account. I go through the same process, but WHM won't allow me to use mysite.com as the domain for django. The docs recommend a sub-domain, so I fill the box in with django.mysite.com. I then realize that has actually created a sub-domain - going to django.mysite.com shows me its home directory, along with helpful information about what version of Apache, Python, and other mods its running (thanks, Apache). I really don't want a sub-domain, so that's out. Another chat with tech support, and they recommend a fake domain name, as it won't create anything. Sure enough, using a domain of djangomysite.com works, and WHM allows me to create a django account. But of course, I can't send email to [email protected] (where I could to [email protected]). What I want, is to be able to create a second account, associated with mysite.com (so I can run cPanel logged in as django, send email to [email protected], etc) - without creating a whole new sub-domain, or fake domain.

    Read the article

  • Cross domain javascript to access localhost. Possible?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, for one reason or another I need for javascript to access a webserver on the localhost. This localhost webserver is under our control so we can have whatever software running in it. How would you do this? I've seen things like YQL but this accesses another domain from the internet. This kind of access causes a lot of problems with firewalls and such. So I want to access the same computer that the browser is running on. How would you do this with javascript and whatever software running on the localhost server? Also, the javascript is being run from an internet site. And the localhost server will not be running on the same port are the internet website is. Is this possible to do? I know about the cross-domain restrictions but I've also seen there are ways around them such as YQL. How does something like YQL work? How would you reimplement it?

    Read the article

  • DNS add www.domain.dyndns.org record

    - by Darxis
    My config is a DNS Server on Windows Server 2008 R2. My domain is on dyndns.org dynamic IP service. This server is a DNS server and a WebServer with IIS. When someone from outside network enter the site "http://domain.dyndns.org" within a webbrowser it is ok, but when someone try to enter "http://www.domain.dyndns.org" it doesn't find any website. So I would like to add a "www." record to my DNS. I did this: Added a A-Type record pointing to my server's local IP. Added a CNAME-Type record named "www" pointing to "domain.dyndns.org." Now I can enter the "www.domain.dyndns.org" from internal network, and it works, but when I enter this address from outside it doesn't work.

    Read the article

  • Running jira at jira.[my domain].com

    - by Ivan Zamylin
    I have jira installed on my server. It was running at http://[my ip address]:8100. I could manage to change it to http://jira.[my domain].com. Now after I access it at http://jira.[my domain].com, a browser path changes to http://jira.[my domain].com:8100/secure/Dashboard.jspa. Why does the port show up? Is there any way to remove 8100 port from this redirect. I'd like it to be http://jira.[my domain].com/secure/Dashboard.jspa Also my jira now responds both to jira.[my domain].com and [my ip address]:8100. The latter one is corrupted. Is it possible to stop user accessing it? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Creating an OS X Mountain Lion 10.8 OpenDIrectory database with a specific domain in mind

    - by whardier
    Mountain Lion Server has been one of the most infuriating things ever recently. Above and beyond tons of crashing I've been completely unable to do the following in a way that makes sense to both me and Apple. Name your server srv01.myoffice.domain.com Create an OpenDirectory database as a Master from scratch as dc=domain,dc=com I can rename my server temporarily (taking down vital services in the process due to the automagicliciousness) and create a new profile, however when I switch back to the original domain name the default search base for server related authentication magic is now dc=srv01,dc=myoffice,dc=domain,dc=com. I've tried everything I can think of including using slapconfig backupdb/restoredb and slaving the server off of another then promoting it. This seems rather silly and Apple shows no response to many requests to resolve this. Does anybody out there have the magic to have OpenDirectory work as it should.. being able to give it any domain you want and then having all vital services operate correctly.

    Read the article

  • windows 2003 domain and windows xp

    - by ryju
    I had to move a computer account from one OU to another OU for the settings to be same as with other computers in the OU. After the computer account was moved to other domain, i reset the computer account. Now there is no domain access to this computer even using domain admin acccount. The error message is that windows cannot connect to domain because your computer account was not found.I reset the computer account again and that didnt make any difference. Local admin access was possilbe and i tried to change the computer to workgroup to join back to domain, but workgroup changing option is greyed out. Is there any way I can solve this issue. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • shutdown -i all computers in active directory domain

    - by Sihan Zheng
    I'm not sure if this is possible, but this is my goal: At the end of the day, I want to be able to turn off all the computers in the domain from a client. My account has sufficient privileges to shutdown any single computer remotely using shutdown -I, and I can RDP into any computer in the domain. However, is there an automated technique that does this? the computers in the domain are predictably named (computer1, computer2, etc), but than manipulating a list of 2000 computers in shutdown -I is pretty clumsy. Is there a way to shutdown every single computer in the domain from a single client? The domain server is windows 2003, and the clients all run windows xp thanks

    Read the article

  • Adding and using a Domain Admin during OSD, in MDT

    - by user195296
    So during my Windows 7 OSD. Going by Company Politics I'm suppose to A: Disabled the standardlized Administrator (Done, can do that in task sequence) B: Create a new Administrator called 'ITadmin' and set a fixed password C: Join a Domain (Done that aswell in the Task Sequence) D: Use a Domain Admin to install programs that would otherwise give problems if attempted to install through Local Admin, like Dynamics AX As written I join the computer to the Domain During the OSD, and as Result have the correct Domain Admins added as Administrators through GPO, but I don't know how to use them. I'm looking at CustomSettings.ini in the MDT pack and thinking its gotta be possible to do it from here? or from the unattend.xml in pseudo here is what I wanna Add: AddLocalAdmin: ITadmin Password: 1234 UseThisAccountToInstallOSD: Domain\Install_User Password: 1234 Any help appreciated, can't seem to google my way out of this one.

    Read the article

  • How to lock Firefox tab to domain or URL pattern

    - by f3lix
    I know Firefox extensions that allow protecting (cannot be closed) and locking (cannot change URL) tabs. What I need is an extension that locks a tab to a certain domain or URL pattern. For example, I want to lock a tab to the domain example.com. As long as I follow links that are within this domain the tab should show normal (unlocked) behavior, but if I follow a link to another domain the link should be opened in new tab -- leaving the locked tab open with a URL within the locked domain. Even better would be the functionality to lock a tab to a URL pattern. If a URL matches the pattern it is opened in the current tab, otherwise it is opened in a new tab. Do you know something (preferably an extension for FF 8.0) that provides this kind of functionality.

    Read the article

  • prevent search engines indexing depending on domain

    - by Javier
    We have a dedicated server with a hosting company with a couple of dozens of webs in it. It happens that the nameservers (EG: ns1.domain.com, ns2.domain.com) ip's are coincident with some client webs, let's say webclient1.com and webclient2.com Problem is that for a certain searches in google, some results are showing up like ns1.domain.com/result instead of webclient1.com/result which is pretty wrong and annoying for our clients. Actually if you type in the browser ns1.domain.com or ns2.domain.com it will load some pageclients instead. Is there any way to prevent google to track those results only in case the robots are coming to check ns domains? It may be not correct to ask this as well, but why is it happening? is it a result of a bad server configuration? I'm pretty new on these matters, so thank you in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • SBS 2011 on different subnet than domain computers

    - by Ravi
    The setup is as follows: SBS 2011 in datacentre on subnet A Domain PCs at another location on subnet B There is a site-to-site VPN. The domain PCs have joined the domain and have the SBS as their primary DNS server. The domain PCs can ping the DC but the problem is that the DC cannot ping any of the remote subnet (subnet B) SBS --Switch -- Router A ------------------- Router B -- Switch -- Domain PCs What is strange is that router A can ping any host on the subnet B. Another host on Subnet A can also ping any host on subnet B. It's only the DC which cannot ping anything to that specific remote subnet B. I did a tracert from the SBS to router B. The packet reaches Router A from the SBS but then it fails. Am I missing some specific settings that needs to be done when SBS is on a different subnet than its member pcs ?

    Read the article

  • Cannont add service account to domain group during sql cluster install

    - by Sam
    I'm installing a 2008 instance on a 2003 machine which is already running 2005. I need to set up domain groups for the security setup step: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms179530.aspx On Windows Server 2003, specify domain groups for SQL Server services. All resource permissions are controlled by domain-level groups that include SQL Server service accounts as group members. Much more info on this here: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/910708 I've had problems with being able to add the windows service accounts to the groups at install time. The security admins had to make my account a domain admin - which they were hesitant to do. The account under which SQL Server Setup is running must have permissions to add accounts to the domain groups. Is there a specific security setting which would allow my account to add accounts to a group?

    Read the article

  • Cannot schedule task to run under domain user account other than current user

    - by Filburt
    On our Win 2008 machines I can't schedule tasks for domain users because the domain name does not resolve to network name but the AD dc name. The "network name" looks like ABCDEFGE-HIJKLM and the "dc" / "name" would look like ABCDEFGE-HIJKLMN. When selecting the domain user account the account qualifier will look like ABCDEFGE-HIJKLMN\task.user. This results in an "invalid account" error. When however keeping the currently logged in user it will display ABCDEFGE-HIJKLM\current.user. Does this behaviour result from the presumable "illegal" domain name? Is there a workaround for this? update I could of course log in as the desired domain account and create the task but since this account is a account used for running services I want to avoid creating a user profile on the machine.

    Read the article

  • Set origin for forwarder based on virtual domain in Postfix

    - by Andrew Koester
    I currently have a machine set up to operate with two domains. The main name uses the standard Unix-user delivery, and the second domain is entirely virtual (using virtual_alias_domains and virtual_alias_maps), with the second domain only forwarding mail. However, when mail is forwarded, it still appears to be delivered by the host of the primary domain (presumably set by myorigin.) Is it possible to get it so when mail is forwarded to the virtual domain, it appears to be delivered by it as well? That domain is on another IP and I'd like to use it so the mail stays consistent. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Does changing web hosts (changing a domain's nameservers) affect the private nameservers / glue records created under that domain?

    - by Kris
    We currently have a virtual dedicated server with GoDaddy and have 4 domains under it. I ended up creating private nameservers under, say mydomain_a.com, and have ns1.mydomain_a.com and ns2.mydomain_a.com as the nameservers for the other 3 domains. Now, we're thinking of switching web hosts (not domain registrar just the host) which means I have to change mydomain_a.com's nameservers to the new host. Will that affect or mess with the other 3 domains still pointing to ns1.mydomain_a.com and ns2.mydomain_a.com? Will that affect the private nameservers / glue records in anyway? Currently: domain: mydomain_a.com nameservers (GoDaddy): ns1.mydomain_a.com ns2.mydomain_a.com domain: mydomain_b.com nameservers (GoDaddy): ns1.mydomain_a.com ns2.mydomain_a.com After the Change: domain: mydomain_a.com nameservers (Other Host): ns1.some_other_host_ns.com ns2.some_other_host_ns.com This is my Question, Would this be affected? domain: mydomain_b.com nameservers (GoDaddy): ns1.mydomain_a.com ns2.mydomain_a.com

    Read the article

  • How to whitelist a domain while blocking forgeries using that domain?

    - by QuantumMechanic
    How do you deal with the case of: wanting to whitelist a domain so that emails from it won't get eaten, but not having emails forged to appear to be from that domain get bogusly whitelisted whitelist_from_recvd looks promising, but then you have to know at least the TLD of every host that could send you mail from that domain. Often RandomBigCompany.com will outsource email to one or more sending companies (like Constant Contact and the like) in addition to using servers that reverse-resolve to something in its own domain. But it looks like whitelist_from_recvd can only map to one sending server pattern so that would be problematic. Is there a way to say something like "if email is from domain X, subtract N points from the spam score"? The idea would be that if the mail is legit, that -N will all but guarantee it isn't considered spam. But if it is spam, hopefully all the other failed tests will render it spam even with the -N being included.

    Read the article

  • Postfix appears to ignore domain's MX records

    - by DisgruntledGoat
    On my dedicated server, I have Postfix installed for sending email through the websites. One of my clients hosts their email with a third party so we have MX records set up on the domain. However, when sending any Postfix emails from the server, they do not get the emails. I think since the domain is pointing at the server itself, it tries to send mail to itself, but there is nothing on the server to handle the email for that domain. (There are mail accounts for other domain which are working fine.) How do I get Postfix to use the domain's MX records to send email? Server is Ubuntu 8.10 with standard LAMP stack. I have Webmin installed, and a control panel called "Matrix" provided by the host.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97  | Next Page >