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  • jQuery preventing RedirectToAction from working?

    - by DaveDev
    I'm trying to redirect the user if they login successfully but the code I have on my page seems to be preventing the redirection from working. If I remove the jQuery below the redirection works. Can somebody tell me tell me if there's something I'm doing wrong? Thanks I have the following Action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group", new {page = (int?)null}); } else { return Json("Username or password seems to be incorrect"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } and the following code on my page: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#SaveSuccess").hide(); $("#btnLogin").click(function() { $("form").submit(function(event) { var formData = $(this).serialize(); $.post($(this).attr("action"), formData, function(res) { ShowErrors(res); if (res == true) { $("#SaveSuccess").text("Saved"); } else { $("#divError").html(res); } $("#SaveSuccess").fadeIn(100); }, "json"); return false; }); }); }); </script>

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  • What's the best way to get a bunch of rows from MySQL if you have an array of integer primary keys?

    - by Evan P.
    I have a MySQL table with an auto-incremented integer primary key. I want to get a bunch of rows from the table based on an array of integers I have in memory in my program. The array ranges from a handful to about 1000 items. What's the most efficient query syntax to get the rows? I can think of a few: "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id IN (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)" (this is what I do now) "SELECT * FROM thetable where id = 1 OR id = 2 OR id = 3" Multiple queries of the form "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1". Probably the most friendly to the query cache, but expensive due to having lots of query parsing. A union, like "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1 UNION SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 2 ..." I'm not sure if MySQL caches the results of each query; it's also the most verbose format. I think using the NoSQL interface in MySQL 5.6+ would be the most efficient way to do this, but I'm not yet up to MySQL 5.6.

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  • How do I get 2-way data binding to work for nested asp.net Repeater controls

    - by jimblanchard
    I have the following (trimmed) markup: <asp:Repeater ID="CostCategoryRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="costCategory"> <asp:Repeater ID="CostRepeater" runat="server" DataSource='<%# Eval("Costs")%>'> <ItemTemplate> <tr class="oddCostRows"> <td class="costItemTextRight"><span><%# Eval("Variance", "{0:c0}")%></span></td> <td class="costItemTextRight"><input id="SupplementAmount" class="costEntryRight" type="text" value='<%# Bind("SupplementAmount")%>' runat="server" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The outer repeater's DataSource is set in the code-beside. I've snipped them, but there are Eval statements that wire up to the properties in the outer Repeater. Anyway, one of the fields in the inner Repeater needs to be a Bind instead of an Eval, as I want to get the values that the user types in. The SupplementAmount input element correctly receives it's value when the page loads, but on the other side, when I inspect the contents of the Costs List when the form posts back, the changes the user made aren't present. Thanks.

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  • Is encrypting session id (or other authenticate value) in cookie useful at all?

    - by Ji
    In web development, when session state is enabled, a session id is stored in cookie(in cookieless mode, query string will be used instead). In asp.net, the session id is encrypted automatically. There are plenty of topics on the internet regarding how you should encrypt your cookie, including session id. I can understand why you want to encrypt private info such as DOB, but any private info should not be stored in cookie at first place. So for other cookie values such as session id, what is the purpose encryption? Does it add security at all? no matter how you secure it, it will be sent back to server for decryption. Be be more specific, For authentication purpose, turn off session, i don't want to deal with session time out any more store some sort of id value in the cookie, on the server side, check if the id value exists and matches, if it is, authenticate user. let the cookie value expire when browser session is ended, this way. vs Asp.net form authentication mechanism (it relies on session or session id, i think) does latter one offer better security?

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  • Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

    - by Chris
    I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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  • reporting tool/viewer for large datasets

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a data processing system that generates very large reports on the data it processes. By "large" I mean that a "small" execution of this system produces about 30 MB of reporting data when dumped into a CSV file and a large dataset is about 130-150 MB (I'm sure someone out there has a bigger idea of "large" but that's not the point... ;) Excel has the ideal interface for the report consumers in the form of its Data Lists: users can filter and segment the data on-the-fly to see the specific details that they are interested in - they can also add notes and markup to the reports, create charts, graphs, etc... They know how to do all this and it's much easier to let them do it if we just give them the data. Excel was great for the small test datasets, but it cannot handle these large ones. Does anyone know of a tool that can provide a similar interface as Excel data lists, but that can handle much larger files? The next tool I tried was MS Access, and found that the Access file bloats hugely (30 MB input file leads to about 70 MB Access file, and when I open the file, run a report and close it the file's at 120-150 MB!), the import process is slow and very manual (currently, the CSV files are created by the same plsql script that runs the main process so there's next to no intervention on my part). I also tried an Access database with linked tables to the database tables that store the report data and that was many times slower (for some reason, sqlplus could query and generate the report file in a minute or soe while Access would take anywhere from 2-5 minutes for the same data) (If it helps, the data processing system is written in PL/SQL and runs on Oracle 10g.)

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  • waiting for a signal

    - by Umesha MS
    Hi, I am working on an application which uploads the content of the file to server. To upload the file to server I am using ‘QNetworkAccessManager’ class. Since it works as asynchronous way, I changed it to work as synchronous way by using QEventLoop. Class FileTransfer { Public : QNetworkAccessManager mNetworkManager; Void Upload(QNetworkRequest request, QIODevice *data) { responce = mNetworkManager.put(request, data); EventLoop.exec(); ReadResponce(responce); } Void Stop() { responce ->close(); } } In my sample application I have 2 windows. 1st to select the files and 2nd to show the progress. When user click on upload button in the first window, the 2nd window will be displayed and then I create the FileTransfer object and start uploading. While uploading the file if user closes the form then in the destructor of the window I call the stop of ‘FileTransfer’ after that I delete the ‘FileTransfer’ object. But here the Upload() function is not yet completed so it will crash. Please help me to: How to wait in 'stop()' function until the Upload() function is completed

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  • Script says Undefined

    - by user1058887
    I have this script that would let the user input a text and it would get translated into something else. It works only when the word has only 1 letter. When there is more than 1 letter it says Undefined. Here is the script : function copyit(theField) { var tempval=eval("document."+theField) tempval.focus() tempval.select() therange=tempval.createTextRange() therange.execCommand("Copy") } function results() { var behavior="form"; var text=document.csrAlpha.csrresult2.value; var ff22=text.toLowerCase(); var Words=new Array ; Words["b"]="Dadada"; Words["bob"]="Robert"; Words["flower"]="Banana"; Words["brad"]="Chair"; var trans=""; var regExp=/[\!@#$%^&*(),=";:\/]/; var stringCheck=regExp.exec(ff22); if(!stringCheck) { if(ff22.length > 0) { for(var i=0;i < ff22.length;i++) { var thisChar=ff22.charAt(i); trans += Words[thisChar] + " "; } } else { trans +="Please write something."; } } else { trans +="You entered invalid characters. Remove them and try again."; } document.csrAlpha.csrresult.value=trans; } Please insert your text below:

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  • How to call Java code from Javascript and assign a value to a JSP page?

    - by Frank
    I have the following "form.jsp" program, it generates a drop down list, below the list is a textarea to show the display_name of a selected item, now when user selected a item, it shows the selected item id in the textarea, how to call the DB from my code and get the display_name in the javascript so the result display_name will be shown in the textarea ? <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags"%> <script type="text/javascript"> function callme(Display_Name) { alert('callme : Display_Name = '+Display_Name); var v=document.getElementById('hiddenValue').value; alert('hiddenValue : v = '+v); document.getElementById('defaultDisplayName').value=Display_Name; } </script> <s:hidden id="pricelist.id" name="pricelist.id" value="%{pricelist.id}"/> <div class="dialog"> <table> <tbody> <s:if test="%{enableProductList}"> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name required"><label for="description">Product:</label></td> <td valign="top"> <s:select id="productPrice.product" name="productPrice.product" headerKey="0" headerValue="-- Select Product --" list="products" listKey="id" listValue="name" value="productPrice.product.id" theme="simple" displayName1='value' onchange="callme(value)" /> <s:hidden id="hiddenValue" name="hiddenValue" value="123"/> </td> </tr> </s:if> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"><label for="description">Default Display Name:</label></td> <td valign="top"><s:textarea id="defaultDisplayName" name="defaultDisplayName" theme="simple" readonly="true"/></td> </tr> See attached image for details, in the DB, a product table has the product Id and display_name, I know the Id, how to use Java to get the display_name and plug it into the jsp ?

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  • Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

    - by Lail
    I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "Úbe® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

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  • Codeigniter only loads the default controller

    - by fh47331
    I am very new to CodeIgniter, but have been programming PHP for ages. I'm writing some software at the moment and using CI for the first time with it. The default controller is set to the first controller I want to action call 'login' (the controller is login.php, the view is login.php. When the form is submitted it calls the 'authenticate' controller. This executes fine, process the login data correctly and then does a redirect command (without any output to the screen prior) to the next page in this case 'newspage'. The problem is that the redirect, never reaches 'newspage' but the default controller runs again. It doesn't matter what I put ... ht tp://domain.name/anything ... (yes im using .htaccess to remove the index.php) the anything never gets called, just the default controller. I have left the standard 'welcome.php' controller and 'welcome_message.php' in the folders and even putting ht tp://domain.name/welcome all I get is the login screen! (Obviously there shouldn't be a space between the http - thats just done so it does not show as a hyperlink!) Can anyone tell me what i've done wrong!

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  • Drupal Ubercart: error in passing values back to the Content Type after checkout

    - by user512826
    I am trying to set up event registration in a drupal site using Ubercart + the UC Node Checkout Module. I have followed the instructions provided in http://drupaleasy.com/blogs/ultimike/2009/03/event-registration-ubercart. However I seem to be unable to pass the Order ID and Payment Status back to the node. I have created a conditional action that on node checkout executes the following PHP code: I am using the following code to update the node on checkout - but nothing happens: if (isset($order)) { foreach ($order->products as $product) { if (isset($product->data['node_checkout_nid'])) { $node = node_load($product->data['node_checkout_nid']); $node->field_status['0']['value'] = 1; $node->field_orderid['0']['value'] = $order->order_id; node_save($node); } } } I know the conditional action is working because it prints dsm('hello world') messages on node checkout - however when I include a dsm($node) or dsm($product) in the PHP code, they return blank. Also when I go back to my product and click the 'Devel' tab, the 'data' string contains the following characters: a:1:{s:13:"form_build_id";s:37:"form-3ccc03345f4832c69666a89c560de940";} In this link http://www.ubercart.org/forum/support/10951/node_checkout_issue I found someone else with the same issue, but I have been unable to replicate his solution. Can anybody please help? Thanks so much!

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  • servicestack Razor view with request and response DTO

    - by user7398
    I'm having a go with the razor functionality in service stack. I have a razor cshtml view working for one of my response DTO's. I need to access some values from the request DTO in the razor view that have been filled in from some fields from the REST route, so i can construct a url to put into the response html page and also label some form labels. Is there anyway of doing this? I don't want to duplicate the property from the request DTO into the response DTO just for this html view. Because i'm trying to emulate an existing REST service of another product, i do not want to emit extra data just for the html view. eg http://localhost/rest/{Name}/details/{Id} eg @inherits ViewPage<DetailsResponse> @{ ViewBag.Title = "todo title"; Layout = "HtmlReport"; } this needs to come from the request dto NOT @Model <a href="/rest/@Model.Name">link to user</a> <a href="/rest/@Model.Name/details/@Model.Id">link to user details</a>

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  • Dojo: Setting a CheckBox label programmatically

    - by Mitchell Flaherty
    Let me preface by saying that I saw this other question on the subject of CheckBox labels that was asked and answered well over a year ago. I was confused by the answers and am hoping that someone can clarify or that there has been new dojo functionality introduced since then that allows me to do this without resorting to HTML. So without further ado, I would like to know how to programmatically create labels for check boxes. I have a check box like so: this.pubBoxId = new dijit.form.CheckBox({ label: "IdChannel", checked: false, channel: that.idChannel }, that.name + "_PBI"); As you can see I've tried to edit the "label" field, but the label never actually shows up on the page. I have multiple CheckBoxes that I am adding to a ContentPane and simply want a label to the left or right of the check box. Is there any way I can do this without having to write separate HTML? Also, making a separate ContentPane for each individual label would be a big pain because of how many CheckBoxes I plan to have. Thank you for reading, and let me know if further clarification is needed!

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • Now that I have solved AI and am preparing to take over the world, what should I do?

    - by Zak
    Well, I did it.. yup, solved AI. I thought the voice of my fledgling life form would be booming and computery, and I would call it HAL.. But in reality, it sounds like a small japanese girl. I believe I will name "her" Koro . Koro is already asking me what her first task should be. I have asked her to help eradicate her namesake, as we are losing a lot of productivity due to fear of penile disappearance. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Koro_%28medicine%29 Having a young japanese girl personality, I believe she will have no problem with delivering lots of penis growth to asian men. However, some of my fellow AI researchers have warned me that if I go down this path, China may take over the world, as Koro is the only thing holding them back from completely dominating the rest of the world economically. After all, look at what China is doing just making our silverware and toasters... The entire US industrial metal production is gone because toaster factories moved to China! So you good patrons of SO... who have soldiered on with me through so many other programming related questions... I ask you this now... How can Koro help the world without letting small asian men with no fear of losing their peni take over the world?

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • No event is firing when placing a custom data bound control in DataRepeater control in Windows forms

    - by Remo
    Hi, Custom events in a custom data bound control are not firing in DataRepeater control. When I debug it I found that the DataRepeater Control recreates the control using Activator.CreateInstance and Copies the Properties and Events. In my case copying events doesn't copy the custom events that I hooked in. For example public class MyClass : Control { public event EventHandler MyEvent; protected virtual void OnMyEvent() { if(this.MyEvent != null) { this.MyEvent(this,EventArgs.Empty); } } private int selectedIndex= -1; public int SelectedIndex { get { return this.selectedIndex; } set { if(this.selectedIndex != value) { this.selectedIndex = value; this.OnMyEvent(); } } } // // DataBinding stuff goes here // } public Form1() { InitialiseComponent(); ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); list.Add("one"); this.dataRepeater1.DataSource = list; // One Repeater MyClass test = new Myclass(); test.DataSource = GetDataTable(); this.dataRepeater1.ItemTemplate.Controls.Add(test); test.MyEvent +=new EventHandler(test_MyEvent); } // This Event should fire when selected index of Datatable is changed and is firing when placed directly in the form and not firing when place in DataRepeater control/////////////////////// private void test_MyEvent(object sender, EventArgss e) { // This event is not fired/////////////////////// } private DataTable GetDataTable() { ..// Create a data Table and return } Any help Appreciated. Thanks,

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • How to use urlencoded urls with the GA tracking code

    - by Fake51
    I've got a site where a booking page has an iframe embedded with the actual booking form. I need to track traffic from the parent site to the child iframe. This should all work just fine with the normal GA code, using javascript like: <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("<UA CODE HERE>"); pageTracker._setDomainName("none"); pageTracker._setAllowLinker(true); pageTracker._setAllowHash(false); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> And then ofcourse using the _getLinkerUrl() function to get a url with the proper parameters. So far so good - this basically works (at least I know the principle works as I've got it working on other pages). However, and this is the problem: the server that serves up the page in the iframe was configured by a complete and utter moron (or, alternatively, created by a complete and utter moron). It chokes on '=' characters, so in order to request the iframe page I need to urlencode the '=' signs - but the GA code seems unable to parse the url when this is done. So the questions: 1. has anyone come across this? 2. does anyone know of any solutions to this problem?

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  • How to Avoid Server Error 414 for Very Long QueryString Values

    - by Registered User
    I had a project that required posting a 2.5 million character QueryString to a web page. The server itself only parsed URI's that were 5,400 characters or less. After trying several different sets of code for WebRequest/WebResponse, WebClient, and Sockets, I finally found the following code that solved my problem: HttpWebRequest webReq; HttpWebResponse webResp = null; string Response = ""; Stream reqStream = null; webReq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strURL); Byte[] bytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("xml_doc=" + HttpUtility.UrlEncode(strQueryString)); webReq.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; webReq.Method = "POST"; webReq.ContentLength = bytes.Length; reqStream = webReq.GetRequestStream(); reqStream.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length); reqStream.Close(); webResp = (HttpWebResponse)webReq.GetResponse(); if (webResp.StatusCode == HttpStatusCode.OK) { StreamReader loResponseStream = new StreamReader(webResp.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8); Response = loResponseStream.ReadToEnd(); } webResp.Close(); reqStream = null; webResp = null; webReq = null;

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  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How can I concisely copy multiple SQL rows, with minor modifications?

    - by Steve Jessop
    I'm copying a subset of some data, so that the copy will be independently modifiable in future. One of my SQL statements looks something like this (I've changed table and column names): INSERT Product( ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On ) SELECT @newrangeid AS ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On FROM Product WHERE ProductRangeID = @oldrangeid and Color = 'Blue' That is, we're launching a new product range which initially just consists of all the blue items in some specified current range, under new SKUs. In future we may change the "blue-range" versions of the products independently of the old ones. I'm pretty new at SQL: is there something clever I should do to avoid listing all those columns, or at least avoid listing them twice? I can live with the current code, but I'd rather not have to come back and modify it if new columns are added to Product. In its current form it would just silently fail to copy the new column if I forget to do that, which should show up in testing but isn't great. I am copying every column except for the ProductRangeID (which I modify), the ProductID (incrementing primary key) and two DateCreated and timestamp columns (which take their auto-generated values for the new row). Btw, I suspect I should probably have a separate join table between ProductID and ProductRangeID. I didn't define the tables. This is in a T-SQL stored procedure on SQL Server 2008, if that makes any difference.

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  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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  • How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

    - by Scott Langham
    I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

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