Search Results

Search found 2636 results on 106 pages for 'transaction isolation'.

Page 91/106 | < Previous Page | 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98  | Next Page >

  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Auto-Increment Setup

    - by dharga
    How do I define an entity for the following table. I've got something that isn't working and I just want to see what I'm supposed to do. USE [BAMPI_TP_dev] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO SET ANSI_PADDING ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MemberSelectedOptions]( [OptionId] [int] NOT NULL, [SeqNo] [smallint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OptionStatusCd] [char](1) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO SET ANSI_PADDING OFF This is what I have already that isn't working. @Entity @Table(schema="dbo", name="MemberSelectedOptions") public class MemberSelectedOption extends BampiEntity implements Serializable { @Embeddable public static class MSOPK implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Column(name="OptionId") int optionId; @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="SeqNo", unique=true, nullable=false) BigDecimal seqNo; //Getters and setters here... } private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @EmbeddedId MSOPK pk = new MSOPK(); @Column(name="OptionStatusCd") String optionStatusCd; //More Getters and setters here... } I get the following ST. [5/25/10 15:49:40:221 EDT] 0000003d JDBCException E org.slf4j.impl.JCLLoggerAdapter error Cannot insert explicit value for identity column in table 'MemberSelectedOptions' when IDENTITY_INSERT is set to OFF. [5/25/10 15:49:40:221 EDT] 0000003d AbstractFlush E org.slf4j.impl.JCLLoggerAdapter error Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not insert: [com.bob.proj.ws.model.MemberSelectedOption] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:90) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2285) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.insert(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2678) at org.hibernate.action.EntityInsertAction.execute(EntityInsertAction.java:79) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.execute(ActionQueue.java:279) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:263) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:167) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener.performExecutions(AbstractFlushingEventListener.java:321) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultFlushEventListener.onFlush(DefaultFlushEventListener.java:50) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.flush(SessionImpl.java:1028) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.managedFlush(SessionImpl.java:366) at org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransaction.commit(JDBCTransaction.java:137) at com.bcbst.bamp.ws.dao.MemberSelectedOptionDAOImpl.saveMemberSelectedOption(MemberSelectedOptionDAOImpl.java:143) at com.bcbst.bamp.ws.common.AlertReminder.saveMemberSelectedOptions(AlertReminder.java:76) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39)

    Read the article

  • How to design a RESTful collection resource?

    - by Suresh Kumar
    I am trying to design a "collection of items" resource. I need to support the following operations: Create the collection Remove the collection Add a single item to the collection Add multiple items to the collection Remove a single item from the collection Remove multiple items from the collection This is as far as I have gone: Create collection: ==> POST /service Host: www.myserver.com Content-Type: application/xml <collection name="items"> <item href="item1"/> <item href="item2"/> <item href="item3"/> </collection> <== 201 Created Location: http://myserver.com/service/items Content-Type: application/xml ... Remove collection: ==> DELETE /service/items <== 200 OK Removing a single item from the collection: ==> DELETE /service/items/item1 <== 200 OK However, I am finding supporting the other operations a bit tricky i.e. what methods can I use to: Add single or multiple items to the collection. (PUT doesn't seem to be right here as per HTTP 1.1 RFC Remove multiple items from the collection in one transaction. (DELETE doesn't seem to right here either)

    Read the article

  • Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Blocking Issue

    - by Robin Weston
    We currently have an issue that occurs roughly once a day on SQL 2005 database server, although the time it happens is not consistent. Basically, the database grinds to a halt, and starts refusing connections with the following error message. This includes logging into SSMS: A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the login process. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - The specified network name is no longer available.) Our CPU usage for SQL is usually around 15%, but when the DB is in it's broken state it's around 70%, so it's clearly doing something, even if no-one can connect. Even if I disable the web app that uses the database the CPU still doesn't go down. I am unable to restart the SQLSERVER process as it is unresponsive, so I have to end up killing the process manually, which then puts the DB into Suspect/Recovery mode (which I can fix but it's a pain). Below are some PerfMon stats I gathered when the DB was in it's broken state which might help. I have a bunch more if people want to request them: Active Transactions: 2 (Never Changes) Logical Connections: 34 (NC) Process Blocked: 16 (NC) User Connections: 30 (NC) Batch Request: 0 (NC) Active Jobs: 2 (NC) Log Truncations: 596 (NC) Log Shrinks: 24 (NC) Longest Running Transaction Time: 99 (NC) I guess they key is finding out what the DB is using it's CPU on, but as I can't even log into SSMS this isn't possible with the standard methods. Disturbingly, I can't even use the dedicated admin connection to get into SSMS. I get the same timout as with all other requests. Any advice, reccomendations, or even sympathy, is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • At what line in the following code should I be commiting my UnitOfWork ?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following code which is in a transaction. I'm not sure where/when i should be commiting my unit of work. If someone knows where, can they please explain WHY they have said, where? (i'm trying to understand the pattern through example(s), as opposed to just getting my code to work). Here's what i've got :- using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadUncommitted })) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #1 ? // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #2 ? } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #3 ? } _unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #4 ? transactionScope.Complete(); } Cheers :)

    Read the article

  • Error handling in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We're building a PHP app based on Good old MVC (codeigniter framework) and have run into trouble with a massive chained action that consists of multiple model calls, that together is a part of a big transaction to the database. We want to be able to do a list of actions and get a status report of each one back from the function, whatever the outcome is. Our first initial idea was to utilize the exceptions of PHP5, but since we want to also need status messages that doesnt break the execution of the script, this was our solution that we came up with. It goes a little something like this: $sku = $this->addSku( $name ); if ($sku === false) { $status[] = 'Something gone terrible wrong'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } $image= $this->addImage( $filename); if ($image=== false) { $error[] = 'Image could not be uploaded, check filesize'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } Our controller looks like this: $var = $this->products->addProductGroup($array); if (is_array($var)) { foreach ($var as $error) { echo $error . '<br />'; } } It appears to be a very fragile solution to do what we need, but it's neither scalable, neither effective when compared to pure PHP exceptions for instance. Is this really the way that this kind of stuff generally is handled in MVC based apps? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why do System.IO.Log SequenceNumbers have variable length?

    - by Doug McClean
    I'm trying to use the System.IO.Log features to build a recoverable transaction system. I understand it to be implemented on top of the Common Log File System. The usual ARIES approach to write-ahead logging involves persisting log record sequence numbers in places other than the log (for example, in the header of the database page modified by the logged action). Interestingly, the documentation for CLFS says that such sequence numbers are always 64-bit integers. Confusingly, however, the .Net wrapper around those SequenceNumbers can be constructed from a byte[] but not from a UInt64. It's value can also be read as a byte[], but not as a UInt64. Inspecting the implementation of SequenceNumber.GetBytes() reveals that it can in fact return arrays of either 8 or 16 bytes. This raises a few questions: Why do the .Net sequence numbers differ in size from the CLFS sequence numbers? Why are the .Net sequence numbers variable in length? Why would you need 128 bits to represent such a sequence number? It seems like you would truncate the log well before using up a 64-bit address space (16 exbibytes, or around 10^19 bytes, more if you address longer words)? If log sequence numbers are going to be represented as 128 bit integers, why not provide a way to serialize/deserialize them as pairs of UInt64s instead of rather-pointlessly incurring heap allocations for short-lived new byte[]s every time you need to write/read one? Alternatively, why bother making SequenceNumber a value type at all? It seems an odd tradeoff to double the storage overhead of log sequence numbers just so you can have an untruncated log longer than a million terabytes, so I feel like I'm missing something here, or maybe several things. I'd much appreciate it if someone in the know could set me straight.

    Read the article

  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

    Read the article

  • I find a problem with sending receiving parameter

    - by kawtousse
    how to get the xml translation to html dropdownlist with ajax. I send the parameter with GET method but the JSP FILE THAT GENERATES THE XML DONT RECEIVE IT. var url="responsexml.jsp"; url=url+"?projectCode="+prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); and then in responsexml.jsp I do like that: <% String projectcode= (String)request.getParameter("projectCode"); System.out.println("++++projectCode:=" +projectcode); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s = HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx = s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("SELECT from Wa wa where wa.ProjectCode='"+projectcode+"'"); response.setContentType("text/xml"); PrintWriter output = response.getWriter(); output.write( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>"); //response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); //constriure le xml if(projectcode!=null) { for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Wa object=(Wa)it.next(); //out.print( "<item id=\"" +object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("<wa>"); output.write( "<item id=\"" + object.getIdWA() + "\" name=\"" + object.getWAName() + "\" />"); output.write("</wa>"); } } } } catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } %> </body> </html> With this code I dont have my xml file. I got this error: The server did not understand the request, or the request was invalid. Erreur de traitement de la ressource http://www.w3.o... PLEASE HELP.

    Read the article

  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

    Read the article

  • .Net Entity objectcontext thread error

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an n-layered asp.net application which returns an object from my DAL to the BAL like so: public IEnumerable<SourceKey> Get(SourceKey sk) { var query = from SourceKey in _dataContext.SourceKeys select SourceKey; if (sk.sourceKey1 != null) { query = from SourceKey in query where SourceKey.sourceKey1 == sk.sourceKey1 select SourceKey; } return query.AsEnumerable(); } This result passes through my business layer and hits the UI layer to display to the end users. I do not lazy load to prevent query execution in other layers of my application. I created another function in my DAL to delete objects: public void Delete(SourceKey sk) { try { _dataContext.DeleteObject(sk); _dataContext.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message + " " + ex.StackTrace + " " + ex.InnerException); } } When I try to call "Delete" after calling the "Get" function, I receive this error: New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session This is an ASP.Net app. My DAL contains an entity data model. The class in which I have the above functions share the same _dataContext, which is instantiated in my constructor. My guess is that the reader is still open from the "Get" function and was not closed. How can I close it?

    Read the article

  • Query Level 2 Caching throwing ClassCastException

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Hi, I am using JPA and Hibernate for the database. I have configured (EHCacache) second level cache and query level cache, but just to make sure that caching is working I was trying to get the statistics which is throwing class cast exception.Any help will be highly appreciated. My main goal is to see all the objects which have been cached to make sure that the caching is working properly. Here is the code: public List<CodeValue> findByCodetype(String propertyName) { try { final String queryString = "select model from CodeValue model where model.codetype" + "= :propertyValue" + " order by model.code"; Query query = em.createQuery(queryString); query.setHint("org.hibernate.cacheable", true); query.setHint("org.hibernate.cacheRegion", "query.findByCodetype"); query.setParameter("propertyValue", propertyName); List resultList = query.getResultList(); org.hibernate.Session session = (Session) em.getDelegate(); SessionFactory sessionFactory = session.getSessionFactory(); Map cacheEntries = sessionFactory.getStatistics() .getSecondLevelCacheStatistics("query.findByCodetype") .getEntries(); logger.info("The statistics are: " + cacheEntries); return resultList; } catch (RuntimeException re) { logger.error("findByCodetype failed in trauma patient", re); throw re; } } The error is existing right when I am trying to print the statistics. Below is exception: [6/7/10 19:23:17:059 GMT] 00000034 SystemOut O java.lang.ClassCastException: org.hibernate.cache.QueryKey incompatible with org.hibernate.cache.CacheKey at org.hibernate.stat.SecondLevelCacheStatistics.getEntries(SecondLevelCacheStatistics.java:51) at com.idph.trauma.registry.service.TraumaPatientDAO.findByCodetype(TraumaPatientDAO.java:439) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:64) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:615) at org.springframework.aop.support.AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(AopUtils.java:307) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.invokeJoinpoint(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:182) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:149) at org.springframework.transaction.interceptor.TransactionInterceptor.invoke(TransactionInterceptor.java:106) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:171) at org.springframework.aop.framework.JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(JdkDynamicAopProxy.java:204) at $Proxy209.findByCodetype(Unknown Source) Do you know what's going on?

    Read the article

  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • PHP: Aggregate Model Classes or Uber Model Classes?

    - by sunwukung
    In many of the discussions regarding the M in MVC, (sidestepping ORM controversies for a moment), I commonly see Model classes described as object representations of table data (be that an Active Record, Table Gateway, Row Gateway or Domain Model/Mapper). Martin Fowler warns against the development of an anemic domain model, i.e. a class that is nothing more than a wrapper for CRUD functionality. I've been working on an MVC application for a couple of months now. The DBAL in the application I'm working on started out simple (on account of my understanding - oh the benefits of hindsight), and is organised so that Controllers invoke Business Logic classes, that in turn access the database via DAO/Transaction Scripts pertinent to the task at hand. There are a few "Entity" classes that aggregate these DAO objects to provide a convenient CRUD wrapper, but also embody some of the "behaviour" of that Domain concept (for example, a user - since it's easy to isolate). Taking a look at some of the code, and thinking along refactoring some of the code into a Rich Domain Model, it occurred to me that were I to try and wrap the CRUD routines and behaviour of say, a Company into a single "Model" class, that would be a sizeable class. So, my question is this: do Models represent domain objects, business logic, service layers, all of the above combined? How do you go about defining the responsibilities for these components?

    Read the article

  • How do i pass arbitary date format from C# to sql backend

    - by Jims
    I have a datetime field for the transaction date in the back end. So I am passing that date from front C#.net, in the below format: 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 to do this I have written: presentation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); PropertyClass prp=new PropertyClass(); Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); PropertyClass structure: Public class property { private DateTime transdate; public DateTime TransDate { get { return transdate; } set { transdate = value; } } } From DAL layer passing the TransactionDate like this: Cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@TranSactionDate”, SqlDbType.DateTime).value=propertyobj.TransDate; While debugging from presntation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); in this I am getting correct expected date format, but when debugs goes to this line Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); again date format changing to 1/1/2011. But my backend sql datefield wants the date paramter 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 in this format otherwise throwing exception invalid date format. Note: While passing date as string without converting to datetime getting exceptions like: System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM. at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime..ctor(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc)

    Read the article

  • When should I use indexed arrays of OpenGL vertices?

    - by Tartley
    I'm trying to get a clear idea of when I should be using indexed arrays of OpenGL vertices, drawn with gl[Multi]DrawElements and the like, versus when I should simply use contiguous arrays of vertices, drawn with gl[Multi]DrawArrays. (Update: The consensus in the replies I got is that one should always be using indexed vertices.) I have gone back and forth on this issue several times, so I'm going to outline my current understanding, in the hopes someone can either tell me I'm now finally more or less correct, or else point out where my remaining misunderstandings are. Specifically, I have three conclusions, in bold. Please correct them if they are wrong. One simple case is if my geometry consists of meshes to form curved surfaces. In this case, the vertices in the middle of the mesh will have identical attributes (position, normal, color, texture coord, etc) for every triangle which uses the vertex. This leads me to conclude that: 1. For geometry with few seams, indexed arrays are a big win. Follow rule 1 always, except: For geometry that is very 'blocky', in which every edge represents a seam, the benefit of indexed arrays is less obvious. To take a simple cube as an example, although each vertex is used in three different faces, we can't share vertices between them, because for a single vertex, the surface normals (and possible other things, like color and texture co-ord) will differ on each face. Hence we need to explicitly introduce redundant vertex positions into our array, so that the same position can be used several times with different normals, etc. This means that indexed arrays are of less use. e.g. When rendering a single face of a cube: 0 1 o---o |\ | | \ | | \| o---o 3 2 (this can be considered in isolation, because the seams between this face and all adjacent faces mean than none of these vertices can be shared between faces) if rendering using GL_TRIANGLE_FAN (or _STRIP), then each face of the cube can be rendered thus: verts = [v0, v1, v2, v3] colors = [c0, c0, c0, c0] normal = [n0, n0, n0, n0] Adding indices does not allow us to simplify this. From this I conclude that: 2. When rendering geometry which is all seams or mostly seams, when using GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP or _FAN, then I should never use indexed arrays, and should instead always use gl[Multi]DrawArrays. (Update: Replies indicate that this conclusion is wrong. Even though indices don't allow us to reduce the size of the arrays here, they should still be used because of other performance benefits, as discussed in the comments) The only exception to rule 2 is: When using GL_TRIANGLES (instead of strips or fans), then half of the vertices can still be re-used twice, with identical normals and colors, etc, because each cube face is rendered as two separate triangles. Again, for the same single cube face: 0 1 o---o |\ | | \ | | \| o---o 3 2 Without indices, using GL_TRIANGLES, the arrays would be something like: verts = [v0, v1, v2, v2, v3, v0] normals = [n0, n0, n0, n0, n0, n0] colors = [c0, c0, c0, c0, c0, c0] Since a vertex and a normal are often 3 floats each, and a color is often 3 bytes, that gives, for each cube face, about: verts = 6 * 3 floats = 18 floats normals = 6 * 3 floats = 18 floats colors = 6 * 3 bytes = 18 bytes = 36 floats and 18 bytes per cube face. (I understand the number of bytes might change if different types are used, the exact figures are just for illustration.) With indices, we can simplify this a little, giving: verts = [v0, v1, v2, v3] (4 * 3 = 12 floats) normals = [n0, n0, n0, n0] (4 * 3 = 12 floats) colors = [c0, c0, c0, c0] (4 * 3 = 12 bytes) indices = [0, 1, 2, 2, 3, 0] (6 shorts) = 24 floats + 12 bytes, and maybe 6 shorts, per cube face. See how in the latter case, vertices 0 and 2 are used twice, but only represented once in each of the verts, normals and colors arrays. This sounds like a small win for using indices, even in the extreme case of every single geometry edge being a seam. This leads me to conclude that: 3. When using GL_TRIANGLES, one should always use indexed arrays, even for geometry which is all seams. Please correct my conclusions in bold if they are wrong.

    Read the article

  • Turning a JSON list into a POJO

    - by Josh L
    I'm having trouble getting this bit of JSON into a POJO. I'm using Jackson configured like this: protected ThreadLocal<ObjectMapper> jparser = new ThreadLocal<ObjectMapper>(); public void receive(Object object) { try { if (object instanceof String && ((String)object).length() != 0) { ObjectDefinition t = null ; if (parserChoice==0) { if (jparser.get()==null) { jparser.set(new ObjectMapper()); } t = jparser.get().readValue((String)object, ObjectDefinition.class); } Object key = t.getKey(); if (key == null) return; transaction.put(key,t); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } Here's the JSON that needs to be turned into a POJO: { "id":"exampleID1", "entities":{ "tags":[ { "text":"textexample1", "indices":[ 2, 14 ] }, { "text":"textexample2", "indices":[ 31, 36 ] }, { "text":"textexample3", "indices":[ 37, 43 ] } ] } And lastly, here's what I currently have for the java class: protected Entities entities; @JsonIgnoreProperties(ignoreUnknown = true) protected class Entities { public Entities() {} protected Tags tags; @JsonIgnoreProperties(ignoreUnknown = true) protected class Tags { public Tags() {} protected String text; public String getText() { return text; } public void setText(String text) { this.text = text; } }; public Tags getTags() { return tags; } public void setTags(Tags tags) { this.tags = tags; } }; //Getters & Setters ... I've been able to translate the more simple objects into a POJO, but the list has me stumped. Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

    Read the article

  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

    Read the article

  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate slow mapping

    - by Rob A
    My question is what can I do to determine the cause of the slowness, or what can I do to speed it up without knowing the exact cause. I am running a simple query and it appears that the mapping back to the entities is taking taking forever. The result set is 350, which is not much data in my opinion. IRepository repo = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); var q = repo.Query<Order>(item => item.Ordereddate > DateTime.Now.AddDays(-40)); foreach (var order in q) { Console.WriteLine(order.TransactionNumber); } The profiler is telling me it is executing the query 7ms / 35257ms, I am assuming that the former is the actual response from the db and the latter is the time it takes NH to do it's magic. 35 seconds is too long. This is a simple mapping, one table, nested components, using fluent interface to do mappings. I just start up a simple console app and run the one query, the slowness is measured after the SessionFactory is initialized, there should only be one session, and I am not using a transaction. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to learn .NET?

    - by duffymo
    I've been developing Java EE for quite a while now. I've used WebLogic, Tomcat, Spring, and Hibernate extensively, so I have a mental model of what features are available and how things are developed and deployed. The problem that I have with .NET is that I don't have a clear mapping of its features onto Java EE. Here's what I know so far: Java EE - .NET Java - C# JAR - DLL WAR - ? (deployment in general) EAR - ? (deployment in general) Tomcat - IIS web server JSP - ASP? JDBC - ODBC JMS - MSMQ JTA - Microsoft Transaction Manager So much of the functionality that WebLogic handles appears to be dispersed throughout the Windows OS. My confusion kicks in when I see the waves of books at Borders - VB.NET, ASP.NET, C#, etc. If I'm not a VB programmer, would it be possible to stick with C# and write enterprise apps that are the equivalent of what I'm used to with Java EE? If there were a Top Three list of books to learn from, what would they be? The "Head First" series has certainly been successful for Java. http://www.amazon.com/Head-First-C-Brain-Friendly-Guides/dp/0596514824/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1224121193&sr=8-1 Equally well recommended for .NET learning? Thanks. - %

    Read the article

  • mysql and trigger usage question

    - by dhruvbird
    I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98  | Next Page >