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  • How to assign an user account to a client machine in Windows Small Business Server 2003

    - by videador
    How to assign an user account to a client machine in Windows Small Business Server 2003. I read here how to do that in 2011 (http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc527565.aspx) but I can't find the documentation in 2003. I've examine the properties in the client computer list in the admin server tools, and also in the users list, but I don't see any tab for machine or user assignation. Thank you.

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  • Replace DNS on Openvpn client without redirect-gateway

    - by Gabor Vincze
    I am trying to push DNS to the client with OpenVPN server with config: push "dhcp-option DNS 192.168.x.x" It is working well, but what I really need is that during the VPN connection I do not want to use my primary resolvers, clients should use only the DNS provided by the server. It can be done with push redirect-gateway, but I do not want to tunnel all connections from the client thru the VPN, only specific networks. Is it possible to do it somehow? Linux clients are OK with a script, on Windows I am not sure

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  • Provisioning desktop fails with App-v 4.5 client

    - by ToreTrygg
    Did anybode tried to provisioning a Windows desktop with App-v 4.5 client in the image? I've tried it with Windows XP and 7 but after creating the desktop pool, provisioning fails. In the View Manager I see a error: View Composer agent initialization state error (6): Unknown failure (waited 0 seconds). We are using View 4 and also checked Vmware KB: 1011653. The App-v 4.5 client is installed before the View Agent.

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  • Connecting a client to Windows Home Server across the internet

    - by Guy
    I have just added a Windows Home Server (WHS) to my home network and a few of my computers are now connected to it and, using the client software, back themselves up each evening. I want to connect a computer that's outside of my home network (in someone else's house) to do the WHS via the internet. How do I do this? (i.e. There must be a way to hack the client software and tell give it an IP/port that you can expose from the WHS.)

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  • IIS, SSL with client certs on web farm

    - by Jeremy
    We're building a web service that will be deployed on an IIS 7.5 farm, and secured through SSL, and also requiring client certs that will be mapped to Active Directory accounts. My understanding is that the server cert needs to be generated for a specific server. If that is the case then we will need a server cert for each server in the farm. Because the farm will be load balanced, how do we generate client certs that will work with any of the servers in the farm?

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  • Cross platform, gmail compatible email client for Emacs

    - by Zubair
    I spend alot of my time in Emacs, and move between Windows, Linux, and Mac OS at least once a day since these are the machines my company has available to use. I spend alot of time in gmail using gmail folders too, and would like to find a cross platform email client for emacs which can support gmail too. Note: I would like to find a client which is "stable", and has good support and documentation.

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  • Slow Transfer Speeds from KVM host to client

    - by indian maiden
    I am trying to isolate the root cause of slow transfer speeds from my host OS to a KVM client. Both are Linux. Rsync on the host 192.168.1.72 rsync -auv --progress rut3.img /tmp/ [54.09MB/s] Rsync to the client: rsync -auv --progress rut3.img 192.168.1.80:/tmp/ [25.52MB/s] I realize that there will be some TCP overhead on the transfer but over 50%? Can someone enlighten me on what could be slowing down the transfers so much?

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  • .NET 4 RTM MetadataType attribute ignored when using Validator

    - by bart
    I am using VS 2010 RTM and trying to perform some basic validation on a simple type using MetadataTypeAttribute. When I put the validation attribute on the main class, everything works. However, when I put it on the metadata class, it seems to be ignored. I must be missing something trivial, but I've been stuck on this for a while now. I had a look at the Enterprise Library validation block as a workaround, but it doesn't support validation of single properties out of the box. Any ideas? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Stuff t = new Stuff(); try { Validator.ValidateProperty(t.X, new ValidationContext(t, null, null) { MemberName = "X" }); Console.WriteLine("Failed!"); } catch (ValidationException) { Console.WriteLine("Succeeded!"); } } } [MetadataType(typeof(StuffMetadata))] public class Stuff { //[Required] //works here public string X { get; set; } } public class StuffMetadata { [Required] //no effect here public string X { get; set; } }

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  • Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

    - by GMK
    I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

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  • Making one of a group of similar form fields required in CakePHP

    - by Pickledegg
    I have a bunch of name/email fields in my form like this: data[Friend][0][name] data[Friend][1][name] data[Friend][2][name] etc. and data[Friend][0][email] data[Friend][1][email] data[Friend][2][email] etc. I have a custom validation rule on each one that checks to see if the corresponding field is filled in. Ie. if data[Friend][2][name] then data[Friend][2][email] MUST be filled in. FYI, heres what one of the two rules look like: My form validation rule: ( I have an email validation too but that's irrelevant here) 'name' => array( 'checkEmail' => array( 'rule' => 'hasEmail', 'message' => 'You must fill in the name field', 'last' => true ) ) My custom rule code: function hasEmail($data){ $name = array_values($data); $name = $name[0]; if(strlen($name) == 0){ return empty($this->data['Friend']['email']); } return true; } I need to make it so that one of the pairs should be filled in as a minimum. It can be any as long as the indexes correspond. I can't figure a way, as if I set the form rule to be required or allowEmpty false, it fails on ALL empty fields. How can I check for the existence of 1 pair and if present, carry on? Also, I need to strip out all of the remaining empty [Friend] fields, so my saveAll() doesn't save a load of empty rows, but I think I can handle that part using extract in my controller. The main problem is this validation. Thanks.

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  • C# ErrorProvider Want to know if any are Active

    - by RcK
    I want to know if any ErrorProvider are active in my form. being able to find this out might help reduce my code.. I did find this thing here Counting ErrorProvider but incase someone knows a better way... so here goes. Ok so basically I have a WinForm which has many TextBoxes Now when user enters values I use Validating to perform validation and if it does not match Regex I set the ErrorProvider ON for that Control.. similarly if the user changes the value to a acceptable one I switch ErrorProvider OFF for that Control.. but when SAVE is clicked i have to do another check anyways incase the user did not listen to me and change the thing like he was supposed to and still clicked SAVE.. I dont want the thing crashing.. soo mm is there like a thing where I could say if ErrorProviders is not active then proceed with save else message box saying change it. [ANOTHER QUESTION] Umm When Validating it only Validates when the Control loses Focus... I kinda of want it to do validation when user stops typing.. I hope you get what I mean Like Email Address(textbox) when user is typing his/her name in I [DON'T] want it to do validation yet, but when user has finished entering is waiting for ErrorProvider to disappear(But it doesn't coz it only does that when control loses focus) 2 odd seconds after typing can i make the validation take place?

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  • Client no longer getting data from Web Service after introducing targetNamespace in XSD

    - by Laurence
    Sorry if there is way too much info in this post – there’s a load of story before I get to the actual problem. I thought I‘d include everything that might be relevant as I don’t have much clue what is wrong. I had a working web service and client (both written with VS 2008 in C#) for passing product data to an e-commerce site. The XSD started like this: <xs:schema id="Ecommerce" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/Ecommerce.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="eur"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element ref="sec" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/> </xs:sequence> etc Here’s a sample document sent from client to service: <eur xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T17:16:34.523" version="1.1"> <sec guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </eur> Then, I had to give the service a targetNamespace. Actually I don’t know if I “had” to set it, but I added (to the same VS project) some code to act as a client to a completely unrelated service (which also had no namespace), and the project would not build until I gave my service a namespace. Now the XSD starts like this: <xs:schema id="Ecommerce" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/Ecommerce.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" xmlns:ecom="http://www. company.com/ecommerce"> <xs:element name="eur"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element ref="ecom:sec" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> etc As you can see above I also updated all the xs:element ref attributes to give them the “ecom” prefix. Now the project builds again. I found the client needed some modification after this. The client uses a SQL stored procedure to generate the XML. This is then de-serialised into an object of the correct type for the service’s “get_data” method. The object’s type used to be “eur” but after updating the web reference to the service, it became “get_dataEur”. And sure enough the parent element in the XML had to be changed to “get_dataEur” to be accepted. Then bizarrely I also had to put the xmlns attribute containing my namespace on the “sec” element (the immediate child of the parent element) rather than the parent element. Here’s a sample document now sent from client to service: <get_dataEur xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:23:20.653" version="1.1"> <sec xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </get_dataEur> If in the service’s get_data method I then serialize the incoming object I see this (the parent element is “eur” and the xmlns attribute is on the parent element): <eur xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:23:20.653" version="1.1"> <sec guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </eur> The service then prepares a reply to go back to the client. The XML looks like this (the important data being sent back is the date_stamp attribute in the last_sent element): <eur xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:22:57.530" version="1.1"> <sec version="1.1" xmlns=""> <data> <last_sent date_stamp="2010-02-25T15:15:10.193" /> </data> </sec> </eur> Now finally, here’s the problem!!! The client does not see any data – all it sees is the parent element with nothing inside it. If I serialize the reply object in the client code it looks like this: <get_dataResponseEur xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:22:57.53" version="1.1" /> So, my questions are: why isn’t my client seeing the contents of the reply document? how do I fix it? why do I have to put the xmlns attribute on a child element rather than the parent element in the outgoing document? Here’s a bit more possibly relevant info: The client code (pre-namespace) called the service method like this: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(eur)); XmlReader reader = xml.CreateReader(); eur eur = (eur)serializer.Deserialize(reader); service.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(login, pwd); service.Url = url; rc = service.get_data(ref eur); After the namespace was added I had to change it to this: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(get_dataEur)); XmlReader reader = xml.CreateReader(); get_dataEur eur = (get_dataEur)serializer.Deserialize(reader); get_dataResponseEur eur1 = new get_dataResponseEur(); service.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(login, pwd); service.Url = url; rc = service.get_data(eur, out eur1);

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  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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  • Is there any way to access codeigniter language and config properties from included javascript files

    - by ubermensch
    Good morning! I'm having great success so far with CodeIgniter. I'm new to PHP and web development in general, but I feel that CodeIgniter is giving me a leg up while I catch up on the basics. My question for today is this - I have been happily loading config and lang values from my views for a while now, and everything is working fine. But what about JavaScript files being linked into my views? Is there any way to make the $this-lang-line and $this-config-item function references available to me in my JavaScript files? I am implementing jQuery client-side validation, and would like to pull in my error messages from the server, both to support internationalisation and to make sure that validation gracefully degrades if JavaScript is not available, in that the error messages pushed back into the view from the server-side validation are identical to those displayed dynamically by the jQuery validation. I would not like to have to keep coming back to make sure that these strings are kept in sync. As for internationalisation, I'm fresh out of ideas on how to support that if it turns out that lang and config item strings are completely unavailable from my JS files. Any help you can provide would be greatly appreciated! :)

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  • javascript problems server side

    - by Ke
    Hi, I have a php script that uses some css/javascript tabs, they work on my local server but not when i upload to my online server. Just wondering if anyone knows why this might be the case? All the paths are correct, its basically an identical setup. I would be grateful to find out some reasons why the error appears on the server side, i thought javascript executed on the client side? Any help is much appreciated. Ke

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  • MySQL Collation or PHP side to display accented letters properly

    - by Wayne
    What is the best Collation for the column that can allow to store accented letters and parse them out perfectly without any encoding error, because whenever I add an accented letter such as é, å, it shows out with an encoding problem on the PHP side, but in the MySQL side it's fine... How do I get the accented letters display properly?

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  • Browser Client Side Storage aka a large Cookie

    - by Ian
    Hi, I need to store about 20-30k or data on the client side when using a website. I was using a cookie, but this is to small for my needs. Is there something else that I can use? I need to be able to do this via javascript. Server side storage is a last resort but not what I am looking for. I need it to work for Chrome, IE and firefox. Thanks Ian

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  • Can someone clarify what this Joel On Software quote means: (functional programs have no side effect

    - by Bob
    I was reading Joel On Software today and ran across this quote: Without understanding functional programming, you can't invent MapReduce, the algorithm that makes Google so massively scalable. The terms Map and Reduce come from Lisp and functional programming. MapReduce is, in retrospect, obvious to anyone who remembers from their 6.001-equivalent programming class that purely functional programs have no side effects and are thus trivially parallelizable. What does he mean when he says functional programs have no side effects? And how does this make parallelizing trivial?

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  • Worklight client-side API to overrideBackButton doesn't work

    - by user2503429
    I want to make something happen when back button is pressed so I put this code in Myhtml.js file : function wlCommonInit(){ /* * Application is started in offline mode as defined by a connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js file. * In order to begin communicating with Worklight Server you need to either: * * 1. Change connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js to true. * This will make Worklight framework automatically attempt to connect to Worklight Server as a part of application start-up. * Keep in mind - this may increase application start-up time. * * 2. Use WL.Client.connect() API once connectivity to a Worklight Server is required. * This API needs to be called only once, before any other WL.Client methods that communicate with the Worklight Server. * Don't forget to specify and implement onSuccess and onFailure callback functions for WL.Client.connect(), e.g: * * WL.Client.connect({ * onSuccess: onConnectSuccess, * onFailure: onConnectFailure * }); * */ // Common initialization code goes here } WL.App.overrideBackButton(backFunc); function backFunc(){ alert('You will back to previous page'); } but after build and deploy the app and I running it, nothing happened after I pressed back button, anybody have the solution ?

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  • client-server syncing methodology [theoretical]

    - by Kenneth Ballenegger
    I'm in the progress of building an web-app that syncs with an iOS client. I'm currently tackling trying to figure out how to go about about syncing. I've come up with following two directions: I've got a fairly simple server web-app with a list of items. They are ordered by date modified and as such syncing the order does not matter. One direction I'm considering is to let the client deal with syncing. I've already got an API that lets the client get the data, as well as do certain actions on it, such as update, add or remove single items. I was considering: 1) on each sync asking the server for all items modified since the last successful sync and updating the local records based on what's returned by the server, and 2) building a persistent queue of create / remove / update requests on the client, and keeping them until confirmation by the server. The risk with this approach is that I'm basically asking each side to send changes to the other side, hoping it works smoothly, but risking a diversion at some point. This would probably be more bandwidth-efficient, though. The other direction I was considering was a more traditional model. I would have a "sync" process in which the client would send its whole list to the server (or a subset since last modified sync), the server would update the data on the server (by fixing conflicts by keeping the last modified item, and keeping deleted items with a deleted = 1 field), and the server would return an updated list of items (since last successful sync) which the client would then replace its data with. Thoughts?

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  • revoked client certificate

    - by Michael
    Hi guys, I have little problem. I used certificate authority in windows server 2003 and revoked client certificate. The client certificate is in revoked certificate. I try verify this client certificate on revocation in winform app in windows server 2003. Code is here : private bool VefiryCert(X509Certificate2 cert) { X509Chain chain = new X509Chain(); chain.ChainPolicy.RevocationFlag = X509RevocationFlag.EntireChain; chain.ChainPolicy.RevocationMode = X509RevocationMode.Online; chain.ChainPolicy.UrlRetrievalTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 1000); chain.ChainPolicy.VerificationFlags = X509VerificationFlags.AllFlags; X509VerificationFlags.AllowUnknownCertificateAuthority; return chain.Build(cert); } But this client certificate is verify as true. I am confuse, where can be problem ? How can I check revocation list, which is loaded in winform application and used on verification this client certificate? So the problem is I verify client certificate, which is in revoked list (in certification authority) with method VefiryCert, an the certificate is verify as TRUE. Can somebody help me ?

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  • changing trigger event of MVC 2 client validation

    - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid
    Hi Everyone i m developing a website using .NET 3.5 with MVC 2.0. For server side validations i m using ComponentModel.DataAnnotations. these validations are reflected to client side by html helper's method Html.EnableClientValidation(). this scheme works fine for except that it triggers the validation on blur event of each form control whereas i want to have it triggered on form's submit event. any suggestions in this regard are highly appreciated regards

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