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  • How to validate DataReader is actually closed using FxCop custom rule?

    - by tanmay
    I have written couple of custom rules in for FxCop 1.36. I have written code to find weather an opened DataReader is closed or not. But it does not check which DataReader object is calling the Close() method so I can't be sure if all opened DataReader objects are closed!! 2nd: If I am a DataReader in an 'if/else' like if 1=2 dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); else dr = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); end if In this case it will search for 2 DataReader objects to be closed. I am putting my code for more clarity. public override ProblemCollection Check(Member member) { Method method = member as Method; int countCatch =0; int countErrLog = 0; Instruction objInstr = null; if (method != null) { for (int i = 0; i < method.Instructions.Count; i++) { objInstr = method.Instructions[i]; if (objInstr.Value != null) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString() .Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader")) { countCatch += 1; } if (countCatch>0) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains( "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.Close")) { countErrLog += 1; } } } } } if (countErrLog!=countCatch) { Resolution resolu = GetResolution(new string[] { method.ToString() }); Problems.Add(new Problem(resolu)); } return Problems; }

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  • summing functions handles in matlab

    - by user552231
    Hi I am trying to sum two function handles, but it doesn't work. for example: y1=@(x)(x*x); y2=@(x)(x*x+3*x); y3=y1+y2 The error I receive is "??? Undefined function or method 'plus' for input arguments of type 'function_handle'." This is just a small example, in reality I actually need to iteratively sum about 500 functions that are dependent on each other. EDIT The solution by Clement J. indeed works but I couldn't manage to generalize this into a loop and ran into a problem. I have the function s=@(x,y,z)((1-exp(-x*y)-z)*exp(-x*y)); And I have a vector v that contains 536 data points and another vector w that also contains 536 data points. My goal is to sum up s(v(i),y,w(i)) for i=1...536 Thus getting one function in the variable y which is the sum of 536 functions. The syntax I tried in order to do this is: sum=@(y)(s(v(1),y,z2(1))); for i=2:536 sum=@(y)(sum+s(v(i),y,z2(i))) end

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

    - by OverClocked
    The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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  • How to store visited states in iterative deepening / depth limited search?

    - by colinfang
    Update: Search for the first solution. for a normal Depth First Search it is simple, just use a hashset bool DFS (currentState) = { if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState)) return true; } return false; } However, when it becomes depth limited, i cannot simply do this bool DFS (currentState, maxDepth) = { if (maxDepth = 0) return false; if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState, maxDepth - 1)) return true; } return false; } Because then it is not going to do a complete search (in a sense of always be able to find a solution if there is any) before maxdepth How should I fix it? Would it add more space complexity to the algorithm? Or it just doesn't require to memoize the state at all. Update: for example, a decision tree is the following: A - B - C - D - E - A | F - G (Goal) Starting from state A. and G is a goal state. Clearly there is a solution under depth 3. However, using my implementation under depth 4, if the direction of search happens to be A(0) -> B(1) -> C(2) -> D(3) -> E(4) -> F(5) exceeds depth, then it would do back track to A, however E is visited, it would ignore the check direction A - E - F - G

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  • Concurrency problem with arrays (Java)

    - by Johannes
    For an algorithm I'm working on I tried to develop a blacklisting mechanism that can blacklist arrays in a specific way: If "1, 2, 3" is blacklisted "1, 2, 3, 4, 5" is also considered blacklisted. I'm quite happy with the solution I've come up with so far. But there seem to be some serious problems when I access a blacklist from multiple threads. The method "contains" (see code below) sometimes returns true, even if an array is not blacklisted. This problem does not occur if I only use one thread, so it most likely is a concurrency problem. I've tried adding some synchronization, but it didn't change anything. I also tried some slightly different implementations using java.util.concurrent classes. Any ideas on how to fix this? public class Blacklist { private static final int ARRAY_GROWTH = 10; private final Node root = new Node(); private static class Node{ private volatile Node[] childNodes = new Node[ARRAY_GROWTH]; private volatile boolean blacklisted = false; public void blacklist(){ this.blacklisted = true; this.childNodes = null; } } public void add(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge) { currentNode.childNodes = Arrays.copyOf(currentNode.childNodes, edge + ARRAY_GROWTH); } if(currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) { currentNode.childNodes[edge] = new Node(); } currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } currentNode.blacklist(); } } public boolean contains(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return true; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge || currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) return false; currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } return currentNode.blacklisted; } } }

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  • parse.json of authenticated play request

    - by niklassaers
    I've set up authentication in my application like this, always allow when a username is supplied and the API-key is 123: object Auth { def IsAuthenticated(block: => String => Request[AnyContent] => Result) = { Security.Authenticated(RetrieveUser, HandleUnauthorized) { user => Action { request => block(user)(request) } } } def RetrieveUser(request: RequestHeader) = { val auth = new String(base64Decode(request.headers.get("AUTHORIZATION").get.replaceFirst("Basic", ""))) val split = auth.split(":") val user = split(0) val pass = split(1) Option(user) } def HandleUnauthorized(request: RequestHeader) = { Results.Forbidden } def APIKey(apiKey: String)(f: => String => Request[AnyContent] => Result) = IsAuthenticated { user => request => if(apiKey == "123") f(user)(request) else Results.Forbidden } } I want then to define a method in my controller (testOut in this case) that uses the request as application/json only. Now, before I added authentication, I'd say "def testOut = Action(parse.json) {...}", but now that I'm using authentication, how can I add parse.json in to the mix and make this work? def testOut = Auth.APIKey("123") { username => implicit request => var props:Map[String, JsValue] = Map[String, JsValue]() request.body match { case JsObject(fields) => { props = fields.toMap } case _ => {} // Ok("received something else: " + request.body + '\n') } if(!props.contains("UUID")) props.+("UUID" -> UniqueIdGenerator.uuid) if (!props.contains("entity")) props.+("entity" -> "unset") props.+("username" -> username) Ok(props.toString) } As a bonus question, why is only UUID added to the props map, not entity and username? Sorry about the noob factor, I'm trying to learn Scala and Play at the same time. :-) Cheers Nik

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  • Am I fundamentally misunderstanding how Silverlight runs? (debugging issues)

    - by SP
    I've got a vs2010 solution containing an ASP.Net 4 website, and a Silverlight 4 project. The website is linked to the Silverlight project ('Map') and the ClientBin folder contains a Map.xap file. The Map project is very simple. It contains the default App.xaml and App.xaml.cs files. The MainPage.xaml file looks like this <UserControl x:Class="Map.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="380" d:DesignWidth="800"> <Canvas x:Name="MainCanvas" Width="800" Height="380"> <Canvas.Background> <ImageBrush ImageSource="map.png" Stretch="None"/> </Canvas.Background> </Canvas> The code behind for that looks like this: public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); throw new Exception(); } } Inside one of the website pages I have the default object pointing to my Silverlight xap When I run the website, I see my background image on the Canvas in the Silverlight window, so I know it's working in that sense. However, I cannot break on any breakpoints set in the MainPage.xaml.cs file (in IE). I have checked the correct settings for Silverlight debugging. And see that Exception I'm throwing in the MainPage constructor? I'm not seeing that either. In fact, nothing I put in there seems to be run at all, but I know the xaml is rendering because I can see my canvas background. What am I not getting here?

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  • Is it possible to De-Serialize a new Derived class using Old Binary?

    - by Anand
    In my project I have a class which I Serialize in Binary format to the disk. Due to some new requirement I need to create a new class which is derived from the original class. eg [Serializable] public class Sample { String someString; int someInt; public Sample() { } public Sample(String _someString, int _someInt) { this.someInt = _someInt; this.someString = _someString; } public String SomeString { get { return someString; } } public int SomeInt { get { return someInt; } } } [Serializable] public class DerivedSample : Sample { String someMoreString; int someMoreInt; public DerivedSample () : base() { } public DerivedSample (String _someString, int _someInt, String _someMoreString, int _someMoreInt) : base(_someString, _someInt) { this.someMoreString = _someMoreString; this.someMoreInt = _someMoreInt; } public String SomeMoreString { get { return someMoreString; } } public int SomeMoreInt { get { return someMoreInt; } } } When I try to De serialize an old file which contains only object of Sample it works fine, in the current assembly. That means backward compatibility is there. But when I try to deserialize the file which contains object of DerivedSample using the previous version of the assembly application crashes. Which means forward compatibilty needs to be taken care off... It it possible to say read only the base class part of the object from new version of the file?

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  • How To Join Tables from Two Different Contexts with LINQ2SQL?

    - by RSolberg
    I have 2 data contexts in my application (different databases) and need to be able to query a table in context A with a right join on a table in context B. How do I go about doing this in LINQ2SQL? Why?: We are using a SaaS product for tracking our time, projects, etc. and would like to send new service requests to this product to prevent our team from duplicating data entry. Context A: This db stores service request information. It is a third party DB and we are not able to make changes to the structure of this DB as it could have unintended non-supportable consequences downstream. Context B: This data stores the "log" data of service requests that have been processed. My team and I have full control over this DB's structure, etc. Unprocessed service requests should find their way into this DB and another process will identify it as not being processed and send the record to the SaaS product. This is the query that I am looking to modify. I was able to do a !list.Contains(c.swHDCaseId) initially, but this cannot handle more than 2100 items. Is there a way to add a join to the other context? var query = (from c in contextA.Cases where monitoredInboxList.Contains(c.INBOXES.inboxName) select new { //setup fields here... });

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  • Eclipse BIRT - Unnecessary inline style with external CSS when rendering HTML

    - by Etienne
    Hello! I am designing a report using external CSS with BIRT 2.5. When BIRT renders the html report, it creates copies of each external style to inline styles (name style_x) in the resulting html. The report.design contains: <list-property name="cssStyleSheets"> <structure> <property name="fileName">… mycss.css</property> <property name="externalCssURI"> http://.../mycss.css </property> </structure> </list-property> The resulting html contains: <style type="text/css"> .style_0 {…} .style_1 {…} …. </style> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://.../mycss.css"></link> For each reference of my styles, the rendered html elements use both styles usually like this: <div class="style_x myclass" …. > …. </div> Is there any way to get rid of the useless inline styles when rendering html?

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  • XSLT: replace an integer by a string

    - by binogure
    I have a little problem. A node in my XML may contains and integer, and i have to replace this integer by a string. Each number match with a string. For example i have: Integer - String 1 - TODO 2 - IN PROGRESS 3 - DONE 4 - ERROR 5 - ABORTED Original XML: <root> <status>1</status> </root> Converted XML: <root> <status>TODO</status> </root> So i want replace 1 by "TODO", 2 by "IN PROGRESS" ... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/root/status"> <root> <status> <xsl:variable name="text" select="." /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, '1')"> <xsl:value-of select="'TODO'"/> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$text"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </status></root> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I'am asking if there is another way to do that.

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  • Navigation Controller not Pushing/Popping View Controllers

    - by senfo
    I'm working on a view-based iPhone app that has the following flow: search - (list | map) - details To accomplish the transitions between views, I have a UINavigationController, with the search view controller being the root. After a user performs a search, I transition to a view with a segmented control, which acts as a tab to switch between the list and map functionality (per a suggestion from a related question I had). This view contains a UIViewController, which allows me to switch between the list/map view when a user taps the segmented control. I'm fine up until this point. As you can see from the above mentioned flow, I would like to provide the ability to transition into a details view. Each row of my table in the list view contains a details disclosure button for allowing the user to drill down into a details view. The problem is, when I try to push the details view onto the navigation stack, nothing happens. Below is the delegate method (from my list view controller) to handle the details disclosure button being tapped. I've set up break points, so I know the code is running. The navigation controller simply doesn't want to push the detailsController onto the stack (my guess is that I don't have a pointer to the correct UINavigationController). - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView accessoryButtonTappedForRowWithIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (detailController == nil) { detailController = [[DetailsViewController alloc] init]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Assuming I was probably missing a pointer to the navigation controller, I exposed a UINavigation property on my list and map views (navigationController is readonly) and initialized them with a pointer to the navigation controller from my SwitchViewController (the view responsible for switching between list/map views when a user changes the value of the segmented control). Unfortunately, this did not solve the problem. Am I on the right track? If so, how do I see to it that my view has a pointer to the correct navigation controller? Should I add a delegate, which allows me to call a function in the SwitchViewController that transitions into the details view (this seems messy)?

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  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

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  • C++ Boolean problem (comparison between two arrays)

    - by Martin
    Hello! I have a problem to do. I already did some part of it, however I stuck and don't know exactly what to do next. The question: " You are given two arrays of ints, named A and B. One contains AMAXELEMENTS and the other contains BMAXELEMENTS. Write a Boolean-valued function that returns true if there is at least one point in A that is the same as a point in B, and false if there is no match between two arrays. " The two arrays are made up by me, I think if I know how to compare two arrays I will be fine, and I will be able to finish my problem. This is what I have so far (I changed AMAXELEMENTS to AMAX, and BMAXELEMENTS to BMAX): #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ const int AMAX=5, BMAX=6; int i; bool c1=true,c2=false; int A[AMAX]={2,4,1,5,9}; int B[BMAX]={9,12,32,43,23,11}; for(i=0;i<BMAX;i++) if (B[i]==A[i]) // <---- I think this part has to look different, but I can't figure it out. cout<<c1<<endl; else cout<< c2<<endl; return 0; }

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • jQuery remove SELECT options based on another SELECT selected on change and on load

    - by John Sieber
    I'm using the following jQuery code to remove options from a select and it is working well. But instead of it only executing when the theOption2 select is changed I would also like it to work when the page is loaded depending on the selected item that is selected. I tried using the a copy of the script and changing the .change to .load and also tried using (window).load without the desired results. Essentially, I need the script to execute on change of the Options1 and on the loading of the page. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //copy the second select, so we can easily reset it var selectClone = $('#theOptions2').clone(); $('#theOptions1').change(function() { var val = parseInt($(this).val()); //reset the second select on each change $('#theOptions2').html(selectClone.html()) switch(val) { //if 2 is selected remove C case 2 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(c)').remove();break; //if 3 is selected remove A case 3 : $('#theOptions2').find('option:contains(a)').remove();break; } }); }); </script> <select id="theOptions1"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> </select> <br /> <select id="theOptions2"> <option>a</option> <option>b</option> <option>c</option> </select>

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  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

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  • Login form validation using javascript and php

    - by ipl
    Hi, I have been trying to create a login form using javascript.My login form needs to do the fllowing using javascript validation 1.login field contains only letters with a minimum of 4 and a maximum of 6 letters 2.password is at least 5 characters long and not more than 7 characters and contains only letters and digits with at least 1 letter and at least 1 digit 3.if the data is incorrect, generate an alert window with an appropriate message and set the cursor to the incorrect input field and the form needs to be submitted to a php file which needs to validate against a text file I tried to use regular expression to check for the login fiels and password in the javascript and i have used a login .php but havent done anything in that till now.However my javascript/html file which i have pasted below doesnt seem to work.Can anyone tell me the issue with my file? Rgds ip function validateFormOnSubmit(theForm) { reason += validateUsername(theForm.username.value) reason += validatePassword (theForm.pwd.value) if (reason == "") return true else { alert(reason); return false } } function validateUsername(fld) { if (fld == "") return "No username entered" else if((fld.length 6) || (fld.length 7 ) { return "length shoild be b/w 4 and 7"; } else if (!/[a-z]/.test(fld) || !/[A-Z]/.test(fld) || !/[0-9]/.test(fld)){ return "passwords rewuire one of the letters or digitys"; } } SignupForm Your user name: Your Password:    

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  • Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

    - by Skylark
    I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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  • TreeView Control Problem

    - by ProgNet
    Hi all, I have a public folder on the server that contains recursively nested sub folders. In the various Leaf folders contains Images. I wanted to create a server side file browser that will display the Images to the user. I am using the ASP.NET TreeView Control. I create the tree nodes using PopulateOnDemand. If the user click on a leaf directory I want the images in that folder to be displayed in a DataList Control. The problem is that when I click on a sub tree node (after I expanded it parent node) All the expanded sub tree disappears and only the parent node is showed with no + sign next to it !! ( I have set the TreeView's PopulateNodesFromClient property to true ) Can someone tell me what is the problem ?? Thanks Here is the code : <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateDataBindings="False" onselectednodechanged="TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged" ontreenodepopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate"> </asp:TreeView> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { string path = Server.MapPath("."); PopulateTopNodes(path); } } private void PopulateTopNodes(string pathToRootFolder) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(pathToRootFolder); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name,dir.FullName); if (dir.GetDirectories().Length > 0) { folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } TreeView1.Nodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (IsCallback == true) { if (e.Node.ChildNodes.Count == 0) { LoadChildNode(e.Node); } } } private void LoadChildNode(TreeNode treeNode) { DirectoryInfo dirInfo = new DirectoryInfo(treeNode.Value); DirectoryInfo[] dirs = dirInfo.GetDirectories(); foreach (DirectoryInfo dir in dirs) { TreeNode folderNode = new TreeNode(dir.Name, dir.FullName); if(dir.GetDirectories().Length>0){ folderNode.PopulateOnDemand = true; folderNode.Collapse(); } treeNode.ChildNodes.Add(folderNode); } } protected void TreeView1_SelectedNodeChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Retrieve the images here }

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  • Anchors with overlapping divs

    - by tmdelane
    I am using a grid based layout, with two main sections. Graph and Timeline. Graph, contains graded vertical bars, HTML similar to: <div id="graph" class="container_160"> <div id="Jan-97" class="grid_1 major"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Feb-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Mar-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="Apr-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="May-97" class="grid_1 minor"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> etc... </div> Timeline, contains horizontal bars, HTML similar to: <div id="timeline" class="container_160"> <div id="bar1" class="grid_32 suffix_128"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="bar2" class="prefix_32 grid_24 suffix_104"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> <div id="bar3" class="prefix_58 grid_7 suffix_95"><a href="#">&nbsp;</a></div> </div> Timeline is relatively positioned to Graph so that it overlaps. My problem is that when these divs overlap, the anchors in Timeline stop working. I am open to both CSS and Jquery solutions. Thanks in advance. t.

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  • PHP/mysqli: Inserting IP address with mysqli_stmt_bind_param()

    - by invarbrass
    Hello! I have a database table which contains an unsigned integer field to store the visitor's IP address: `user_ip` INT(10) UNSIGNED DEFAULT NULL, Here's the snippet of PHP code which tries to store the IP address: $ipaddr = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; if ($stmt = mysqli_prepare($dbconn, 'INSERT INTO visitors(user_email, user_ip) VALUES (?,?)')) { $remote_ip = "INET_ATON('$ipaddr')"; mysqli_stmt_bind_param($stmt, 'ss', $email, $remote_ip); if (mysqli_stmt_execute($stmt) === FALSE) return FALSE; $rows_affected = mysqli_stmt_affected_rows($stmt); mysqli_stmt_close($stmt); } The INSERT operation succeeds, however the user_ip field contains a null value. I have also tried changing the parameter type in mysqli_stmt_bind_param() (which was set to string in the above example) to integer, i.e. mysqli_bind_param(... 'si',...) - but to no avail. I've also tried using the following bit of code instead of mysql's INET_ATON() SQL function: function IP_ATON($ipaddr) { $trio = intval(substr($ipaddr,0,3)); return ($trio>127) ? ((ip2long($ipaddr) & 0x7FFFFFFF) + 0x80000000) : ip2long($ipaddr); } It still doesn't work - the 'user_ip' field is still set to null. I've tried passing the $ip_addr variable as both integer & string in mysqli_bind_param() - to no avail. It seems the problem lies with the parameterized insert. The following "old-style" code works without any problem: mysqli_query(..., "INSERT INTO visitors(user_email, user_ip) VALUES ('$email',INET_ATON('$ipaddr'))"); What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to mock/stub a directory of files and their contents using RSpec?

    - by John Topley
    A while ago I asked "How to test obtaining a list of files within a directory using RSpec?" and although I got a couple of useful answers, I'm still stuck, hence a new question with some more detail about what I'm trying to do. I'm writing my first RubyGem. It has a module that contains a class method that returns an array containing a list of non-hidden files within a specified directory. Like this: files = Foo.bar :directory => './public' The array also contains an element that represents metadata about the files. This is actually a hash of hashes generated from the contents of the files, the idea being that changing even a single file changes the hash. I've written my pending RSpec examples, but I really have no idea how to implement them: it "should compute a hash of the files within the specified directory" it "shouldn't include hidden files or directories within the specified directory" it "should compute a different hash if the content of a file changes" I really don't want to have the tests dependent on real files acting as fixtures. How can I mock or stub the files and their contents? The gem implementation will use Find.find, but as one of the answers to my other question said, I don't need to test the library. I really have no idea how to write these specs, so any help much appreciated!

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  • Move SELECT to SQL Server side

    - by noober
    Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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