Search Results

Search found 2572 results on 103 pages for 'pick'.

Page 92/103 | < Previous Page | 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99  | Next Page >

• JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

  - by Himanshu

  I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

  Read the article

• Another IKImageView Question: copying a region

  - by Brian Postow

  I'm trying to use the select and copy feature of the IKImageView. If all you want to do is have an app with an image, select a portion and copy it to the clipboard, it's easy. You set the copy menu pick to the first responder's copy:(id) method and magically everything works. However, if you want something more complicated, like you want to copy as part of some other operation, I can't seem to find the method to do this. IKImageView doesn't seem to have a copy method, it doesn't seem to have a method that will even tell you the selected rectangle! I have gone through Hillegass' book, so I understand how the clipboard works, just not how to get the portion of the image out of the view... Now, I'm starting to think that I made a mistake in basing my project on IKImageView, but it's what Preview is built on (or so I've read), so I figured it had to be stable... and anyway, now it's too late, I'm too deep in this to start over... So, other than not using IKImageView, any suggestions on how to copy the select region to the clipboard manually? EDIT actually, I have found the copy(id) method, but when I call it, I get <Error>: CGBitmapContextCreate: unsupported parameter combination: 8 integer bits/component; 16 bits/pixel; 1-component color space; kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast; 2624 bytes/row. Which obviously doesn't happen when I do a normal copy through the first-responder... I understand the error message, but I'm not sure where it's getting those parameters from... Is there any way to trace through this and see how this is happening? A debugger won't help for obvious reasons, as well as the fact that I'm doing this in Mozilla, so a debugger isn't an option anyway... EDIT 2 It occurs to me that the copy:(id) method I found may be copying the VIEW rather than copying a chunk of the image to the clipboard, which is what I need. The reason I thought it was the clipboard copy is that in another project, where I'm copying from an IKImageView to the clipboard straight from the edit menu, it just sends a copy:(id) to the firstResponder, but I'm not actually sure what the firstresponder does with it...

  Read the article

• XSD sequence shows as abiguous!

  - by Tim C

  I have an XSD which was transformed from a RELAX NG schema with a few errors I am trying to fix. The big issue I have it with the following <xs:element name="list"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:choice> <xs:group maxOccurs="unbounded" ref="block-selectionListItem"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:attributeGroup ref="attlist-selectionList"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> As you can see the xs:choice block allows you to pick between two xs:sequence blocks. Seems to make sense except that Visual Studio gives the following warning on the second <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title/> element which is throwing everything off: Multiple definition of element 'title' causes the content model to become ambiguous. A content model must be formed such that during validation of an element information item sequence, the particle contained directly, indirectly or implicitly therein with which to attempt to validate each item in the sequence in turn can be uniquely determined without examining the content or attributes of that item, and without any information about the items in the remainder of the sequence. Because you can only choose one I do not see how this is ambiguous. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Edit: To be a bit more concise here are the possible outputs of the XML that would validate with this schema: <list> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> <title>My Title</title> </list> or: <list> <title>My Title</title> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> </list> As you can see it can be either one way or the other but not both. Also you could just have a title or a preamble and not both.

  Read the article

• Help choosing authentication method

  - by Dima

  I need to choose an authentication method for an application installed and integrated in customers environment. There are two types of environments - windows and linux/unix. Application is user based, no web stuff, pure Java. The requirement is to authenticate users which will use my application against customer provided user base. Meaning, customer installs my app, but uses his own users to grant or deny access to my app. Typical, right? I have three options to consider and I need to pick up the one which would be a) the most flexible to cover most common modern environments and b) would take least effort while stay robust and standard. Option (1) - Authenticate locally managing user credentials in some local storage, e.g. file. Customer would then add his users to my application and it will then check the passwords. Simple, clumsy but would work. Customers would have to punch every user they want to grant access to my app using some UI we will have to provide. Lots of work for me, headache to the customer. Option (2) - Use LDAP authentication. Customers would tell my app where to look for users and I will walk their directory resolving names into user names and trying to bind with found password. This is better approach IMO, but more fragile because I will have to walk an unknown directory structure and who knows if this will be permitted everywhere. Would be harder to test since there are many LDAP implementation out there, last thing I want is drowning in this voodoo. Option(3) - Use plain Kerberos authentication. Customers would tell my app what realm (domain) and which KDC (key distribution center) to use. In ideal world these two parameters would be all I need to set while customers could use their own administration tools to configure domain and kdc. My application would simply delegate user credentials to this third party (using JAAS or Spring security) and consider success when third party is happy with them. I personally prefer #3, but not sure what surprises I might face. Would this cover windows and *nix systems entirely? Is there another option to consider?

  Read the article

• How do I get git whatchanged to show a combined list of files that have changed?

  - by Chirag Patel

  I ran the following comand git whatchanged 7c8358e.. --oneline and got the below output. Is there a way to generate a single combined list of files that changed across all commits? In other words, I don't want files to show up more than once in the below list. Thanks! 4545ed7 refs #2911. error on 'caregivers_sorted_by_position' resolved in this update. it came up randomly in cucumber :100644 100644 d750be7... 11a0bd0... M app/controllers/reporting_controller.rb :100644 100644 7334d4d... e43d9e6... M app/models/user.rb e9b2748 refs #2911. group dropdown filters the list to only the users that belong to the selected group :100644 100644 fc81b9a... d750be7... M app/controllers/reporting_controller.rb :100644 100644 aaf2398... f19038e... M app/models/group.rb :100644 100644 3cc3635... 7a6b2b1... M app/views/reporting/users.html.erb 48149c9 refs #2888 cherry pick 2888 from master into prod-temp :100644 100644 3663ecc... f672b62... M app/controllers/user_admin_controller.rb :100644 100644 aaf2398... 056ea36... M app/models/group.rb :100644 100644 32363ef... bc9a1f2... M app/models/role.rb :100644 100644 91283fa... 7334d4d... M app/models/user.rb :100644 100644 d6393a0... bae1bd6... M app/views/user_admin/roles.html.erb 994550d refs #2890. all requirements included. cucumber has 1 exception in bundle_job for count of data rows. everything else green :100644 100644 145122d... 869a005... M app/controllers/profiles_controller.rb :100644 100644 f1bfa77... 2ed0850... M app/views/alerts/message.html.erb :100644 100644 e9f8a34... f358a74... M app/views/call_list/_item.html.erb :100644 000000 fda1297... 0000000... D app/views/call_list/_load_caregivers.erb :000000 100644 0000000... fda1297... A app/views/call_list/_load_caregivers.html.erb :100644 100644 168de9e... 43594f4... M app/views/call_list/show.html.erb :100644 100644 e178d7f... 0fe77e1... M app/views/profiles/edit_caregiver_profile.html.erb 7396ff6 refs #2890. fixed --we're sorry-- error :100644 100644 d55d46d... fc81b9a... M app/controllers/reporting_controller.rb 7c8358e refs #2897 link on online store back to http://www.halomonitoring.com :100644 100644 d6f94f4... 8bc9c52... M app/views/orders/new.html.erb

  Read the article

• When does IE7 recompute styles? Doesn't work reliably when a class is added to the body.

  - by Kid A

  I have an interesting problem here. I'm using a class on the element as a switch to drive a fair amount of layout behavior on my site. If the class is applied, certain things happen, and if the class isn't applied, they don't happen. The relevant CSS is roughly like this: .rightSide { display:none; } .showCommentsRight .rightSide { display:block; width:50%; } .showCommentsRight .leftSide { display:block; width:50%; } And the HTML: <body class="showCommentsRight"> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> <div class="container"></div> <div class="leftSide"></div> <div class="rightSide"></div> </div> </body> I've simplified things but this is essentially the method. The whole page changes layout (hiding the right side in three different areas) when the flag is set on the body. This works in Firefox and IE8. It does not work in IE8 in compatibility mode. What is fascinating is that if you sit there and refresh the page, the results can vary. It will pick a different section's right side to show. Sometimes it will show only the top section's right side, sometimes it will show the middle. I have tried a validator (to look for malformed html), double css formatting, and making sure my IE7 hack sheet wasn't having an effect. So my question is: * Is there a way that this behavior can be made reliable? * When does IE7 decide to re-do styling? Thanks everyone.

  Read the article

• Stumbleupon type query...

  - by Chris Denman

  Wow, makes your head spin! I am about to start a project, and although my mySql is OK, I can't get my head around what required for this: I have a table of web addresses. id,url 1,http://www.url1.com 2,http://www.url2.com 3,http://www.url3.com 4,http://www.url4.com I have a table of users. id,name 1,fred bloggs 2,john bloggs 3,amy bloggs I have a table of categories. id,name 1,science 2,tech 3,adult 4,stackoverflow I have a table of categories the user likes as numerical ref relating to the category unique ref. For example: user,category 1,4 1,6 1,7 1,10 2,3 2,4 3,5 . . . I have a table of scores relating to each website address. When a user visits one of these sites and says they like it, it's stored like so: url_ref,category 4,2 4,3 4,6 4,2 4,3 5,2 5,3 . . . So based on the above data, URL 4 would score (in it's own right) as follows: 2=2 3=2 6=1 What I was hoping to do was pick out a random URL from over 2,000,000 records based on the current users interests. So if the logged in user likes categories 1,2,3 then I would like to ORDER BY a score generated based on their interest. If the logged in user likes categories 2 3 and 6 then the total score would be 5. However, if the current logged in user only like categories 2 and 6, the URL score would be 3. So the order by would be in context of the logged in users interests. Think of stumbleupon. I was thinking of using a set of VIEWS to help with sub queries. I'm guessing that all 2,000,000 records will need to be looked at and based on the id of the url it will look to see what scores it has based on each selected category of the current user. So we need to know the user ID and this gets passed into the query as a constant from the start. Ain't got a clue! Chris Denman

  Read the article

• Avoiding stack overflows in wrapper DLLs

  - by peachykeen

  I have a program to which I'm adding fullscreen post-processing effects. I do not have the source for the program (it's proprietary, although a developer did send me a copy of the debug symbols, .map format). I have the code for the effects written and working, no problems. My issue now is linking the two. I've tried two methods so far: Use Detours to modify the original program's import table. This works great and is guaranteed to be stable, but the user's I've talked to aren't comfortable with it, it requires installation (beyond extracting an archive), and there's some question if patching the program with Detours is valid under the terms of the EULA. So, that option is out. The other option is the traditional DLL-replacement. I've wrapped OpenGL (opengl32.dll), and I need the program to load my DLL instead of the system copy (just drop it in the program folder with the right name, that's easy). I then need my DLL to load the Cg framework and runtime (which relies on OpenGL) and a few other things. When Cg loads, it calls some of my functions, which call Cg functions, and I tend to get stack overflows and infinite loops. I need to be able to either include the Cg DLLs in a subdirectory and still use their functions (not sure if it's possible to have my DLLs import table point to a DLL in a subdirectory) or I need to dynamically link them (which I'd rather not do, just to simplify the build process), something to force them to refer to the system's file (not my custom replacement). The entire chain is: Program loads DLL A (named opengl32.dll). DLL A loads Cg.dll and dynamically links (GetProcAddress) to sysdir/opengl32.dll. I now need Cg.dll to also refer to sysdir/opengl32.dll, not DLL A. How would this be done? Edit: How would this be done easily without using GetProcAddress? If nothing else works, I'm willing to fall back to that, but I'd rather not if at all possible. Edit2: I just stumbled across the function SetDllDirectory in the MSDN docs (on a totally unrelated search). At first glance, that looks like what I need. Is that right, or am I misjudging? (off to test it now) Edit3: I've solved this problem by doing thing a bit differently. Instead of dropping an OpenGL32.dll, I've renamed my DLL to DInput.dll. Not only does it have the advantage of having to export one function instead of well over 120 (for the program, Cg, and GLEW), I don't have to worry about functions running back in (I can link to OpenGL as usual). To get into the calls I need to intercept, I'm using Detours. All in all, it works much better. This question, though, is still an interesting problem (and hopefully will be useful for anyone else trying to do crazy things in the future). Both the answers are good, so I'm not sure yet which to pick...

  Read the article

• multiple definition of inline function

  - by K71993

  Hi, I have gone through some posts related to this topic but was not able to sort out my doubt completly. This might be a very navie question. Code Description I have a header file "inline.h" and two translation unit "main.cpp" and "tran.cpp". Details of code are as below inline.h file details #ifndef __HEADER__ #include <stdio.h> extern inline int func1(void) { return 5; } static inline int func2(void) { return 6; } inline int func3(void) { return 7; } #endif main.c file details are below #define <stdio.h> #include <inline.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("%d\n",func1()); printf("%d\n",func2()); printf("%d\n",func3()); return 0; } tran.cpp file details (Not that the functions are not inline here) #include <stdio.h> int func1(void) { return 500; } int func2(void) { return 600; } int func3(void) { return 700; } Question The above code does not compile in gcc compiler whereas compiles in g++ (Assuming you make changes related to gcc in code like changing the code to .c not using any C++ header files... etc). The error displayed is "duplicate definition of inline function - func3". Can you clarify why this difference is present across compile? When you run the program (g++ compiled) by creating two seperate compilation unit (main.o and tran.o and create an executable a.out), the output obtained is 500 6 700 Why does the compiler pick up the definition of the function which is not inline. Actually since #include is used to "add" the inline definiton I had expected 5,6,7 as the output. My understanding was during compilation since the inline definition is found, the function call would be "replaced" by inline function definition. Can you please tell me in detailed steps the process of compilation and linking which would lead us to 500,6,700 output. I can only understand the output 6. Thanks in advance for valuable input.

  Read the article

• msysgit git-am can't apply it's own git format-patch sequence

  - by Andrian Nord

  I'm using msysgit git on windows to operate on central svn repository. I'm using git as I want to have it's awesome little local branches for everything and rebasing on each other. I also need to update from central repo often, so using separate svn/git is not an option. Problem is - git svn --help (man page) says that it is not a good idea to use git merge into master branch (which is set to track from svn's trunk) from local branches, as this will ruin the party and git svn dcommit would not work anymore. I know that it's not exactly true and you may use git merge if you are merging from branch which was properly rebased on master prior merge, but I'm trying to make it safer and actually use git format-patch and git am. We are using code review, so I'm making patches anyway. I also knew about git cherry-pick, but I want to just git am /reviewed/patches/dir/* without actually recalling what commits was corresponding to this patches (without reading patches, that is). So, what's wrong with git svn and git am? It's simple - git am for a few very hard points is doing CRLF into LF conversion for patches supplied (git-mailsplit is doing this, to be precise), if not rebasing. git format-patch is also producing proper (LF-ended) patches. As my repo is mostly CRLF (and it should remain so), patches are, obviously, failing due to wrong EOL. Converting diffs to CRLF and somehow hacking git am to prevent it from conversion is not working, too. It will fail if any file was removed or deleted - git apply will complain about expected /dev/null (but he got /dev/null^M). And if I'm applying it with git am --ignore-space-change --ignore-whitespace that it will commit LF endings straight to the index, which is also weird. I don't know if it will preserve over commiting into svn (via git svn dcommit) and checking it out and I don't want to try out. Of course, it's still possible to try hacking around patches to convert only actual diffs, but this is too much hacks for simple task. So, I wonder, is there really no established way to produce patches and apply them to the same repo on the same system? It just feels weird that msysgit can't apply it's own patches.

  Read the article

• PHP 5.2 Function needed for GENERIC sorting of a recordset array

  - by donbriggs

  Somebody must have come up with a solution for this by now. We are using PHP 5.2. (Don't ask me why.) I wrote a PHP class to display a recordset as an HTML table/datagrid, and I wish to expand it so that we can sort the datagrid by whichever column the user selects. In the below example data, we may need to sort the recordset array by Name, Shirt, Assign, or Age fields. I will take care of the display part, I just need help with sorting the data array. As usual, I query a database to get a result, iterate throught he result, and put the records into an assciateiave array. So, we end up with an array of arrays. (See below.) I need to be able to sort by any column in the dataset. However, I will not know the column names at design time, nor will I know if the colums will be string or numeric values. I have seen a ton of solutions to this, but I have not seen a GOOD and GENERIC solution Can somebody please suggest a way that I can sort the recordset array that is GENERIC, and will work on any recordset? Again, I will not know the fields names or datatypes at design time. The array presented below is ONLY an example. UPDATE: Yes, I would love to have the database do the sorting, but that is just not going to happen. The queries that we are running are very complex. (I am not really querying a table of Star Trek characters.) They include joins, limits, and complex WHERE clauses. Writing a function to pick apart the SQL statement to add an ORDER BY is really not an option. Besides, sometimes we already have the array that is a result of the query, rather than the ability to run a new query. Array ( [0] => Array ( [name] => Kirk [shrit] => Gold [assign] => Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shrit] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shrit] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shrit] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [4] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shrit] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) )

  Read the article

• My style/control template out my calendar's blackout dates.

  - by Chris

  Howdy, My C#/WPF project needs a calendar. We're going to be using it to pick a range of dates for appointment scheduling. I'm told the default calendar is too small to be used by some of our reps so I've been working on resizing it. <toolkit:Calendar Grid.Row="1" x:Name="DateWindowCalendar" BorderBrush="White" BorderThickness="0" Style="{StaticResource PopupCalendarStyle}" DisplayMode="Month" SelectionMode="SingleRange" DisplayDateStart="{Binding FirstDayOfMonth}" AutomationProperties.AutomationId="ToolkitCalendarId" VerticalAlignment="Top"> </toolkit:Calendar> And I've created this styling: <Style x:Key="PopupCalendarStyle" TargetType="toolkit:Calendar"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="toolkit:Calendar"> <StackPanel Margin="0" HorizontalAlignment="Center" x:Name="Root"> <toolkit:Calendar x:Name="Calendar" SelectedDate="{TemplateBinding SelectedDate}" DisplayDateStart="{TemplateBinding DisplayDateStart}" SelectionMode="{TemplateBinding SelectionMode}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" SelectedDatesChanged="Calendar_SelectedDatesChanged"> <toolkit:Calendar.CalendarDayButtonStyle> <Style> <Setter Property="Button.Height" Value="34"/> <Setter Property="Button.Width" Value="34" /> <Setter Property="Button.FontSize" Value="16" /> </Style> </toolkit:Calendar.CalendarDayButtonStyle> <toolkit:Calendar.CalendarButtonStyle> <Style> <Setter Property="Button.Height" Value="34"/> <Setter Property="Button.Width" Value="34"/> <Setter Property="Button.FontSize" Value="16"/> </Style> </toolkit:Calendar.CalendarButtonStyle> </toolkit:Calendar> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> Everything is almost perfect. I specify my range, I can track the selected dates (granted using the SelectedDatesChanged event instead of the SelectedDates property. The problem is I also need to be able to set blackout dates (usually the period between first of the month and today although sometimes first of the month to a few days from now). Without the styling, this works: DateWindowCalendar.BlackoutDates.Add(new CalendarDateRange( new DateTime(DateTime.Now.Year, DateTime.Now.Month, 01), DateTime.Now)); But when I add the style, I don't get the black out displays being displayed and worse its possible to select the blackout dates. I'm not sure what I missed but I'm hoping someone has an easy answer so that I don't have to rebuild the entire widget. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Chris

  Read the article

• Passing Activity A's data into Activity B

  - by user1058153

  What i am trying to show here is that I am trying to pass the data in Activity A to Activity B. Activity A mainly there are 3 textbox for me to key in something then a button to go to Activity B(Confirmation Page) and in Activity B, i am able to show what i have keyed in Activity A. I am new to Android, so can someone guide me through this? In Activity A @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activitya); Textview01 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.txtView1); Textview02 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.txtView2); Textview03 = (EditText) this.findViewById(R.id.txtView3); mButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button); mButton.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(ActivityA.this, ActivityB.class); i.putExtra("Textview01", txtView1.getText().toString()); i.putExtra("Textview02", txtView2.getText().toString()); i.putExtra("Textview03", txtView3.getText().toString()); startActivity(i); In Activity B. @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.confirmbooking); TextView txtPickup = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.txtPickup); TextView txtLocation = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.txtLocation); TextView txtDestination = (TextView) this.findViewById(R.id.txtDestination); txtLocation.setText(getIntent().getStringExtra("Location")); txtPickup.setText(getIntent().getStringExtra("Pick Up Point")); txtDestination.setText(getIntent().getStringExtra("Destination")); In my Activity B XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="txtView01:" /> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtView01"></TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/TextView02" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="txtView02:"></TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtView02"></TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/TextView02" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="txtView03:"></TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtView03"></TextView> <Button android:id="@+id/btnButton" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:text="Book now" /> </LinearLayout> Can someone tell me if this is correct? I'm getting some error like a popup Instrumental.class. LogCat shows : 11-26 17:27:40.895: INFO/ActivityManager(52): Starting activity: Intent { cmp=ActivityA/.ActivityB (has extras) } 11-26 17:27:42.956: DEBUG/dalvikvm(252): GC_EXPLICIT freed 156 objects / 11384 bytes in 346ms 11-26 17:27:47.815: DEBUG/dalvikvm(288): GC_EXPLICIT freed 31 objects / 1496 bytes in 161ms

  Read the article

• Compose synthetic English phrase that would contain 160 bits of recoverable information

  - by Alexander Gladysh

  I have 160 bits of random data. Just for fun, I want to generate pseudo-English phrase to "store" this information in. I want to be able to recover this information from the phrase. Note: This is not a security question, I don't care if someone else will be able to recover the information or even detect that it is there or not. Criteria for better phrases, from most important to the least: Short Unique Natural-looking The current approach, suggested here: Take three lists of 1024 nouns, verbs and adjectives each (picking most popular ones). Generate a phrase by the following pattern, reading 20 bits for each word: Noun verb adjective verb, Noun verb adjective verb, Noun verb adjective verb, Noun verb adjective verb. Now, this seems to be a good approach, but the phrase is a bit too long and a bit too dull. I have found a corpus of words here (Part of Speech Database). After some ad-hoc filtering, I calculated that this corpus contains, approximately 50690 usable adjectives 123585 nouns 15301 verbs This allows me to use up to 16 bits per adjective (actually 16.9, but I can't figure how to use fractional bits) 15 bits per noun 13 bits per verb For noun-verb-adjective-verb pattern this gives 57 bits per "sentence" in phrase. This means that, if I'll use all words I can get from this corpus, I can generate three sentences instead of four (160 / 57 ˜ 2.8). Noun verb adjective verb, Noun verb adjective verb, Noun verb adjective verb. Still a bit too long and dull. Any hints how can I improve it? What I see that I can try: Try to compress my data somehow before encoding. But since the data is completely random, only some phrases would be shorter (and, I guess, not by much). Improve phrase pattern, so it would look better. Use several patterns, using the first word in phrase to somehow indicate for future decoding which pattern was used. (For example, use the last letter or even the length of the word.) Pick pattern according to the first bytes of the data. ...I'm not that good with English to come up with better phrase patterns. Any suggestions? Use more linguistics in the pattern. Different tenses etc. ...I guess, I would need much better word corpus than I have now for that. Any hints where can I get a suitable one?

  Read the article

• Summarising (permanently) data in a SQL table

  - by Cylindric

  Geetings, Stackers. I have a huge number of data-points in a SQL table, and I want to summarise them in a way reminiscent of RRD. Assuming a table such as ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | SOME_OTHER_DATA ----+-----------+------------+-------+----------------- 1 | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | some data 2 | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | more data 3 | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | various text ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00009999 | 01/01/2010 | 101 | ... | A00000001 | 02/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... | A00009999 | 02/01/2010 | 101 | arbitrary data ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 119 | I want to end up with one record per entity, per month: ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | ----+-----------+------------+-------+ ... | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | (I Don't care about the SOME_OTHER_DATA - I'll pick something - either the first or last record probably.) What's an easy way of doing this on a regular basis, so that anything in the last calendar month is summarised in this way? At the moment my plan is kind of: For each EntityID For each month Find average score for all records in given month Update first record with results of previous step Delete all records that aren't the first I can't think of a neat way of doing it though, that doesn't involve lots of updates and iteration. This can either be done in a SQL Stored Procedure, or it can be incorporated into the .Net app that's generating this data, so the solution doesn't really need to be "one big SQL script", but can be :) (SQL-2005)

  Read the article

• C# Select clause returns system exception instead of relevant object

  - by Kashif

  I am trying to use the select clause to pick out an object which matches a specified name field from a database query as follows: objectQuery = from obj in objectList where obj.Equals(objectName) select obj; In the results view of my query, I get: base {System.SystemException} = {"Boolean Equals(System.Object)"} Where I should be expecting something like a Car, Make, or Model Would someone please explain what I am doing wrong here? The method in question can be seen here: // this function searches the database's table for a single object that matches the 'Name' property with 'objectName' public static T Read<T>(string objectName) where T : IEquatable<T> { using (ISession session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession()) { IQueryable<T> objectList = session.Query<T>(); // pull (query) all the objects from the table in the database int count = objectList.Count(); // return the number of objects in the table // alternative: int count = makeList.Count<T>(); IQueryable<T> objectQuery = null; // create a reference for our queryable list of objects T foundObject = default(T); // create an object reference for our found object if (count > 0) { // give me all objects that have a name that matches 'objectName' and store them in 'objectQuery' objectQuery = from obj in objectList where obj.Equals(objectName) select obj; // make sure that 'objectQuery' has only one object in it try { foundObject = (T)objectQuery.Single(); } catch { return default(T); } // output some information to the console (output screen) Console.WriteLine("Read Make: " + foundObject.ToString()); } // pass the reference of the found object on to whoever asked for it return foundObject; } } Note that I am using the interface "IQuatable<T>" in my method descriptor. An example of the classes I am trying to pull from the database is: public class Make: IEquatable<Make> { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Model> Models { get; set; } public Make() { // this public no-argument constructor is required for NHibernate } public Make(string makeName) { this.Name = makeName; } public override string ToString() { return Name; } // Implementation of IEquatable<T> interface public virtual bool Equals(Make make) { if (this.Id == make.Id) { return true; } else { return false; } } // Implementation of IEquatable<T> interface public virtual bool Equals(String name) { if (this.Name.Equals(name)) { return true; } else { return false; } } } And the interface is described simply as: public interface IEquatable<T> { bool Equals(T obj); }

  Read the article

• How do I create a Spring 3 + Tiles 2 webapp using REST-ful URLs?

  - by Ichiro Furusato

  I'm having a heck of a time resolving URLs with Spring 3.0 MVC. I'm just building a HelloWorld to try out how to build a RESTful webapp in Spring, nothing theoretically complicated. All of the examples I've been able to find are based on configurations that pay attention to file extensions ("*.htm" or "*.do"), include an artificial directory name prefix ("/foo") or even prefix paths with a dot (ugly), all approaches that use some artificial regex pattern as a signal to the resolver. For a REST approach I want to avoid all that muck and use only the natural URL patterns of my application. I would assume (perhaps incorrectly) that in web.xml I'd set a url-pattern of "/*" and pass everything to the DispatcherServlet for resolution, then just rely on URL patterns in my controller. I can't reliably get my resolver(s) to catch the URL patterns, and in all my trials this results in a resource not found error, a stack overflow (loop), or some kind of opaque Spring 3 ServletException stack trace — one of my ongoing frustrations with Spring generally is that the error messages are not often very helpful. I want to work with a Tiles 2 resolver. I've located my *.jsp files in WEB-INF/views/ and have a single line index.jsp file at the application root redirecting to the index file set by my layout.xml (the Tiles 2 Configurer). I do all the normal Spring 3 high-level configuration: <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:view-controller path="/" view-name="index"/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.acme.web.controller" /> ...followed by all sorts of combinations and configurations of UrlBasedViewResolver, InternalResourceViewResolver, UrlFilenameViewController, etc. with all manner of variantions in my Tiles 2 configuration file. Then in my controller I've trying to pick up my URL patterns. Problem is, I can't reliably even get the resolver(s) to catch the patterns to send to my controller. This has now stretched to multiple days with no real progress on something I thought would be very simple to implement. I'm perhaps trying to do too much at once, though I would think this should be a simple (almost a default) configuration. I'm just trying to create a simple HelloWorld-type application, I wouldn't expect this is rocket science. Rather than me post my own configurations (which have ranged all over the map), does anyone know of an online example that: shows a simple Spring 3 MVC + Tiles 2 web application that uses REST-ful URLs (i.e., avoiding forced URL patterns such as file extensions, added directory names or dots) and relies solely on Spring 3 code/annotations (i.e., nothing outside of Spring MVC itself) to accomplish this? Is there an easy way to do this? Thanks very much for any help.

  Read the article

• How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

  - by olivehour

  I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

  Read the article

• Matlab cell length

  - by AP

  Ok I seem to have got the most of the problem solved, I just need an expert eye to pick my error as I am stuck. I have a file of length [125 X 27] and I want to convert it to a file of length [144 x 27]. Now, I want to replace the missing files (time stamps) rows of zeros. (ideally its a 10 min daily average thus should have file length of 144) Here is the code I am using: fid = fopen('test.csv', 'rt'); data = textscan(fid, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); fclose(fid); %//Make time a datenum of the first column time = datenum(data{1} , 'mm/dd/yyyy HH:MM') %//Find the difference in minutes from each row timeDiff = round(diff(datenum(time)*(24*60))) %//the rest of the data data = cell2mat(data(2:28)); newdata=zeros(144,27); for n=1:length(timeDiff) if timeDiff(n)==10 newdata(n,:)=data(n,:); newdata(n+1,:)=data(n+1,:); else p=timeDiff(n)/10 n=n+p; end end Can somebody please help me to find the error inside my for loop. My output file seems to miss few timestamped values. %*********************************************************************************************************** Can somebody help me to figure out the uiget to read the above file?? i am replacing fid = fopen('test.csv', 'rt'); data = textscan(fid, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); fclose(fid); With [c,pathc]=uigetfile({'*.txt'},'Select the file','C:\data'); file=[pathc c]; file= textscan(c, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); And its not working % NEW ADDITION to old question p = 1; %index into destination for n = 1:length(timeDiff) % if timeDiff(n) == 10 % newfile(p,:) = file(n,:); % newfile(p+1,:)=file(n+1,:); % p = p + 1; % else % p = p + (timeDiff(n)/10); % end q=cumsum(timeDiff(n)/10); if q==1 newfile(p,:)=file(n,:); p=p+1; else p = p + (timeDiff(n)/10); end end xlswrite('testnewws11.xls',newfile); even with the cumsum command this code fails when my file has 1,2 time stamps in middle of long missing ones example 8/16/2009 0:00 5.34 8/16/2009 0:10 3.23 8/16/2009 0:20 2.23 8/16/2009 0:30 1.23 8/16/2009 0:50 70 8/16/2009 2:00 5.23 8/16/2009 2:20 544 8/16/2009 2:30 42.23 8/16/2009 3:00 71.23 8/16/2009 3:10 3.23 My output looks like 5.34 3.23 2.23 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 5.23 544. 42.23 0 0 0 3.23 Any ideas?

  Read the article

• jQuery: form input values turns up undefined

  - by Seerumi

  Having problem with this bit of code qith jQuery. it should pick the values from current form and then submit them, but when I try to get them with jQuery they always turn up undefined. I know the SQL results are fine since they show correctly in HTML table, so it must be my inferior javascript skills. New with jQuery and I'm at loss :( PHP/HTML: echo "<table>\n" while ($row = odbc_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<form class='catForm'>\n"; echo "<input type=hidden class='catID' name='catID' value='".$row['running_id']."'/>\n"; echo "<tr>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['running_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['site_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['main_category']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['map_name']."</td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=textfield class='bCatID' value='".$row['mapping_id']."' size=6/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='saveCat' value='Save'/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='killCat' value='Delete' /></td>\n"; echo "</tr>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; } echo "</table>"; jQuery: $(".catForm").submit(function () { var id = $(this).find('.catID').val(); var bCatID = $(this).find('.bCatID').val(); var dataString = 'id='+id+'&bCatID='+bCatID; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'adminUI/bin/updateSCategories.php', dataType : 'json', data: dataString, success: function(data) { if (data.error == true) $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); if (data.error == false) $('.success').html("Saved succesfully").show().fadeOut(2000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); } }); return false; }); RESULT: id: undefined bCatID: undefined

  Read the article

• A* algorithm works OK, but not perfectly. What's wrong?

  - by Bart van Heukelom

  This is my grid of nodes: I'm moving an object around on it using the A* pathfinding algorithm. It generally works OK, but it sometimes acts wrongly: When moving from 3 to 1, it correctly goes via 2. When going from 1 to 3 however, it goes via 4. When moving between 3 and 5, it goes via 4 in either direction instead of the shorter way via 6 What can be wrong? Here's my code (AS3): public static function getPath(from:Point, to:Point, grid:NodeGrid):PointLine { // get target node var target:NodeGridNode = grid.getClosestNodeObj(to.x, to.y); var backtrace:Map = new Map(); var openList:LinkedSet = new LinkedSet(); var closedList:LinkedSet = new LinkedSet(); // begin with first node openList.add(grid.getClosestNodeObj(from.x, from.y)); // start A* var curNode:NodeGridNode; while (openList.size != 0) { // pick a new current node if (openList.size == 1) { curNode = NodeGridNode(openList.first); } else { // find cheapest node in open list var minScore:Number = Number.MAX_VALUE; var minNext:NodeGridNode; openList.iterate(function(next:NodeGridNode, i:int):int { var score:Number = curNode.distanceTo(next) + next.distanceTo(target); if (score < minScore) { minScore = score; minNext = next; return LinkedSet.BREAK; } return 0; }); curNode = minNext; } // have not reached if (curNode == target) break; else { // move to closed openList.remove(curNode); closedList.add(curNode); // put connected nodes on open list for each (var adjNode:NodeGridNode in curNode.connects) { if (!openList.contains(adjNode) && !closedList.contains(adjNode)) { openList.add(adjNode); backtrace.put(adjNode, curNode); } } } } // make path var pathPoints:Vector.<Point> = new Vector.<Point>(); pathPoints.push(to); while(curNode != null) { pathPoints.unshift(curNode.location); curNode = backtrace.read(curNode); } pathPoints.unshift(from); return new PointLine(pathPoints); } NodeGridNode::distanceTo() public function distanceTo(o:NodeGridNode):Number { var dx:Number = location.x - o.location.x; var dy:Number = location.y - o.location.y; return Math.sqrt(dx*dx + dy*dy); }

  Read the article

• Release management with a distributed version control system

  - by See Sharp Cheddar

  We're considering a switch from SVN to a distributed VCS at my workplace. I'm familiar with all the reasons for wanting to using a DVCS for day-to-day development: local version control, easier branching and merging, etc., but I haven't seen that much that's compelling in terms of managing software releases. Here's our release process: Discover what changes are available for merging. Run a query to find the defects/tickets associated with these changes. Filter out changes associated with "open" tickets. In our environment, tickets must be in a closed state in order to merged with a release branch. Filter out changes we don't want in the release branch. We are very conservative when it comes to merging changes. If a change isn't absolutely necessary, it doesn't get merged. Merge available changes, preferably in chronological order. We group changes together if they're associated with the same ticket. Block unwanted changes from the release branch (svnmerge block) so we don't have to deal with them again. Sometimes we can be juggling 3-5 different milestones at a time. Some milestones have very different constraints, and the block list can get quite long. I've been messing around with git, mercurial and plastic, and as far as I can tell none of them address this model very well. It seems like they would work very well when you have only one product you're releasing, but I can't imagine using them for juggling multiple, very different products from the same codebase. For example, cherry-picking seems to be an afterthought in mercurial. (You have to use the 'transplant' command). After you cherry-pick a change into a branch it still shows up as an available integration. Cherry-picking breaks the mercurial way of working. DVCS seems to be better suited for feature branches. There's no need for cherry-picking if you merge directly from a feature branch to trunk and the release branch. But who wants to do all that merging all the time? And how do you query for what's available to merge? And how do you make sure all the changes in a feature branch belong together? It sounds like total chaos. I'm torn because the coder in me wants DVCS for day-to-day work. I really want it. But I fear the day when I have to put the release manager hat and sort out what needs to be merged and what doesn't. I want to write code, I don't want to be a merge monkey.

  Read the article

• Rails learn's confusion

  - by Steve

  This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Add jquery link to returned text...

  - by Jerry

  Hi all I am trying to add two jquery plugins files to my application. When a user triggers my ajax event, the server will return text with a form button. The plugins (a jquery calendar) will work when the user clicks the form button inside the returned text . I believe I have to add the link inside the return text instead of the main page to let the code work, but not sure how to do this. I am giving out my code and need you experts opinions. Thanks. My main page html //required jquery plugins ...didn't work if I add them in the main application. <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/date.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/datePicker.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/selectWeek.js"></script> <div id="gameInfo"> //return text will be displayed here. </div> My returned text ...part of it.... <form> <div id=returnDiv> // the form input will be added here when a user clicks #addMatch button... </div> <tr> <td><input type="button" id="addMatch" name="addMatch" value="Add Match"/> </td> </tr> </form> My jquery $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ //the code below will create a calender when a user click the link...I am not sure //where I should add my two jquery plugins link... $("#returnDiv").html("<td><input type='text' size='6' class='date-pick dp-applied'"+ "name='date'><a style='color:white;' class='dp-choose-date' title='Choose Date'"+ "href='#'>Date</a></td>"; return false; }); I hope I explain my question well. +1 to any reply...:D

  Read the article

• Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

  - by irkenInvader

  I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99  | Next Page >