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  • Call method immediately after object construction in LINQ query

    - by Steffen
    I've got some objects which implement this interface: public interface IRow { void Fill(DataRow dr); } Usually when I select something out of db, I go: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRows { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); foreach (DataRow dr in table.Rows) { IRow row = new MySQLRow(); // Disregard the MySQLRow type, it's not important row.Fill(dr); yield return row; } } Now with .Net 4, I'd like to use AsParallel, and thus LINQ. I've done some testing on it, and it speeds up things alot (IRow.Fill uses Reflection, so it's hard on the CPU) Anyway my problem is, how do I go about creating a LINQ query, which calls Fills as part of the query, so it's properly parallelized? For testing performance I created a constructor which took the DataRow as argument, however I'd really love to avoid this if somehow possible. With the constructor in place, it's obviously simple enough: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRowsParallel { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); return from DataRow dr in table.Rows.AsParallel() select new MySQLRow(dr); } However like I said, I'd really love to be able to just stuff my Fill method into the LINQ query, and thus not need the constructor overload.

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • SS3: the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList'

    - by Fraser
    In Silverstripe 3, I'm trying to run some custom SQL and return the result for handling in my template: function getListings(){ $sqlQuery = new SQLQuery(); $sqlQuery->setFrom('ListingCategory_Listings'); $sqlQuery->selectField('*'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('Listing', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingID" = "Listing"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('SiteTree_Live', '"Listing"."ID" = "SiteTree_Live"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('ListingCategory', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingCategoryID" = "ListingCategory"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('File', '"ListingCategory"."IconID" = "File"."ID"'); $result = $sqlQuery->execute(); //return $result; //$dataObject = new DataList(); $dataObject = new ArrayList(); foreach($result as $row) { $dataObject->push(new ArrayData($row)); } return $dataObject; } However, this is giving me the error: Uncaught Exception: Object-__call(): the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList' What am I doing wrong here and how can I get the result of this query into my template?

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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • how to access anti aliasing method of a font with CSS

    - by Daniel Ramirez-Escudero
    I've had this problem in a lot of different webs. You have a font which has different anti-aliasing options, the designer uses the same font with different anti-aliasing options on different parts of the text on the web. So there is a difference between some elements. In this case I have sharp, crisp, strong and smooth. I've used a font generator to get the code to access it via @font-face. Even so, I also have the original .otf if important to know. Is there a method to access this? I upload a picture of what I mean and my actual code: ![@font-face { font-family: 'light'; src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot'); src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot?#iefix') format('embedded-opentype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.woff') format('woff'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.ttf') format('truetype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.svg#../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light') format('svg'); font-weight: normal; font-style: normal; }]![enter image description here][1]

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  • ASP MVC Controller Method not always called from $.getJSON request

    - by johnvpetersen
    I have a controller method that returns a jSON object and in one calling situation, it works and in another calling situation, it does not work. When the URL in my browser is this: http://localhost:65247/Client -- it works. But, when my url looks like this: http://localhost:65247/Client/UserAdmin?id=6 -- it DOES NOT work In a nutshell, clients have users. From within the client, I wish to work on a specific user (this is the UserAdmin view). In this case, the client id is 6. From within the UserAdmin view that was launched with Id=6, I then wish to select a user from a dropdown. The idea was to use javascript and $.getJSON to fetch data for the specific user so as not to have to refresh the entire page. I use this approach in other parts of the app. The only difference I can see is with the URL in the browser. It would appear the presence of parameters via the '?' is futzing things up a bit. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance. John

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  • Moq.Mock<T> - how to setup a method that takes an expression

    - by Paul
    I am Mocking my repository interface and am not sure how to setup a method that takes an expression and returns an object? I am using Moq and NUnit Interface: public interface IReadOnlyRepository : IDisposable { IQueryable<T> All<T>() where T : class; T Single<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) where T : class; } Test with IQueryable already setup, but don't know how to setup the T Single: private Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository> _mockRepos; private AdminController _controller; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { var allPages = new List<Page>(); for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { allPages.Add(new Page { Id = i, Title = "Page Title " + i, Slug = "Page-Title-" + i, Content = "Page " + i + " on page content." }); } _mockRepos = new Moq.Mock<IReadOnlyRepository>(); _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.All<Page>()).Returns(allPages.AsQueryable()); //Not sure what to do here??? _mockRepos.Setup(x => x.Single<Page>() //---- _controller = new AdminController(_mockRepos.Object); }

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  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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  • Java HashSet using a specified method

    - by threenplusone
    I have a basic class 'HistoryItem' like so: public class HistoryItem private Date startDate; private Date endDate; private Info info; private String details; @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = (startDate == null ? 0 : startDate.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (endDate == null ? 0 : endDate.hashCode()); return hash; } } I am currently using a HashSet to remove duplicates from an ArrayList on the startDate & endDate fields, which is working correctly. However I also need to remove duplicates on different fields (info & details). My question is this. Is there a way to specify a different method which HashSet will use in place of hashCode()? Something like this: public int hashCode_2() { int hash = (info == null ? 0 : info.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (details == null ? 0 : details.hashCode()); return hash; } Set<HistoryItem> removeDups = new HashSet<HistoryItem>(); removeDups.setHashMethod(hashCode_2); Or is there another way that I should be doing this?

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  • Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

    - by dierre
    Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

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  • Java method help

    - by dalton conley
    Ok, so I'm working on a project for a class I'm taking.. simple music library. Now I'm having some issues, the main issue is I'm getting "non-static method cannot be referenced from a static context" Here is a function I have public void addSong() { Scanner scan = new Scanner(System.in); Song temp = new Song(); int index = countFileLines(Main.databaseFile); index = index + 2; temp.index = index; System.out.print("Enter the artist name: "); temp.artist.append(scan.next()); } Now thats in a class file called LibraryFunctions. So I can access it with LibraryFunctions.addSong(); Now I'm trying to run this in my main java file and its giving me the error, I know why the error is happening, but what do I do about it? If I make addSong() a static function then it throws errors at me with the Song temp = new Song() being static. Kind of ironic. Much help is appreciated on this!

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  • Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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  • Chrome extension:Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null

    - by T_t
    Hi,i am beginner with chrome extension.There is simple problem. There is the code in my extension,but it do not work.I don't know how to figure it out. In my extension, i used a xml file to stroe some data.There is the code in my background.html,but it do not work,i don't know how to figure it out... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function loadXmlFile(){ var xmlDom = null; var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); if( xmlhttp ){ xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if( xmlhttp.readyState == 4 ){ if( xmlhttp.status == 200 ){ xmlDom = xmlhttp.responseXML; } } } xmlhttp.open( "GET",chrome.extension.getURL("/xml/123.xml"),true); xmlhttp.send( null ); } return xmlDom; } var xmlDom = loadXmlFile(); var s = xmlDom.getElementsByTagName( "to" ); alert( s[0].nodeType ); </script> </body> </html> I used developer tools to debug,but it says " Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null"... who can help me?

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  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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  • Queue Data structure app crash with front() method

    - by Programer
    I am implementing queue data strcutre but my app gets crashed, I know I am doing something wrong with Node pointer front or front() method of queue class #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Node { public: int get() { return object; }; void set(int object) { this->object = object; }; Node * getNext() { return nextNode; }; void setNext(Node * nextNode) { this->nextNode = nextNode; }; private: int object; Node * nextNode; }; class queue{ private: Node *rear; Node *front; public: int dequeue() { int x = front->get(); Node* p = front; front = front->getNext(); delete p; return x; } void enqueue(int x) { Node* newNode = new Node(); newNode->set(x); newNode->setNext(NULL); rear->setNext(newNode); rear = newNode; } int Front() { return front->get(); } int isEmpty() { return ( front == NULL ); } }; main() { queue q; q.enqueue(2); cout<<q.Front(); system("pause"); }

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  • Rails: using find method to access joined tables for polymorphic relationships

    - by DJTripleThreat
    Ok, I have a generic TimeSlot model that deals with a start_at and an end_at for time spans. A couple models derive from this but I'm referring to one in this question: AppointmentBlock which is a collection of Appointments. I want to validate an AppointmentBlock such that no other AppointmentBlocks have been scheduled for a particular Employee in the same time frame. Since AppointmentBlock has a polymorphic association with TimeSlot, you have to access the AppointmentBlock's start_at and end_at through the TimeSlot like so: appt_block.time_slot.start_at This means that I need to have some kind of join in my :conditions for my find() method call. Here is my code so far: #inside my appointment_block.rb model validate :employee_not_double_booked def employee_not_double_booked unless self.employee_id # this find's condition is incorrect because I need to join time_slots to get access # to start_at and end_at. How can I do this? blocks = AppointmentBlock.find(:first, :conditions => ['employee_id = ? and (start_at between ? and ? or end_at between ? and ?)', self.employee_id, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at]) # pseudo code: # collect a list of appointment blocks that end after this # apointment block starts or start before this appointment # block ends that are also associated with this appointment # blocks assigned employee # if the count is great then 0 the employee has been double # booked. # if a block was found that means this employee is getting # double booked so raise an error errors.add "AppointmentBlock", "has already been scheduled during this time" if blocks end end Since AppointmentBlock doesn't have a start_at or an end_at how can I join with the time_slots table to get those conditions to work?

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  • How to set interface method between two viewController to pass paramter in Navigation Controller

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have created Window based application, root controller as Tab Bar controller. One Tab bar has Navigation controller. Navigation controller's ViewControlller implementation, I am pushing Viewcontroller. I am looking to pass parameter from Navigation Controller's View controller to pushed View Controller. I have tried to pass as per below method. //ViewController.h @interface ViewController:UIViewController{ NSString *String; } @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *String; @end //ViewController.m #import "ViewController1.h" ViewController1 *level1view = [[ViewController alloc]init]; level1view.hideBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; level1view.theString = String; [self.navigationController pushViewController:level1view animated:YES]; [level1view release]; //ViewController1.h NSString *theString; @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *theString; This is working fine. but I want to pass more than one parameter like Integer and UITextFiled Values so how to do that? Is there any Apple Doc that I can get idea about this? Thanks,

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • .before method adds unexpected close tags

    - by timkl
    I have a table in my markup on which I want to add some divs before and efter like this: <div class="widebox"> <div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div> <div class="widebox-middle"> <table id="Table3"></table> </div> <div class="widebox-bottom"></div> </div> I'm trying to do this with jQuery, like this: $('#Table3').before('<div class="widebox"><div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div><div class="widebox-middle">'); $('#Table3').after('</div><div class="widebox-bottom"></div></div>'); However this is what renders out, the method seems to close my opening divs: <div class="widebox"> <div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div> <div class="widebox-middle"></div></div><!-- unexpected close divs --> <table id="Table3"></table> <div class="widebox-bottom"></div> Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • Post Method Not giving Alerts like planned?

    - by Charles
    <form action="" method="post"> <div align="center"><legend>Add a Code</legend> <label for="code"></label> <input type="text" name="code" id="code" maxlength="10" /> <input type='button' onclick= "isAlphanumeric(document.getElementById('code'),'Your Submission Contained Invalid Characters'); isBadPhrase(document.getElementById('code'), 'Please Enter A Correct Friend Code!');" value='Check Field' /> function isAlphanumeric(elem, helperMsg){ var alphaExp = /^[0-9a-zA-Z]+$/; if(elem.value.match(alphaExp)){ return true; }else{ alert(helperMsg); elem.focus(); return false; } } function isBadPhrase(elem,helperMsg){ var badPhrase=/EPW|ESW|\s/; if (elem.value.match(badPhrase)){ alert(helperMsg); elem.focus(); return false; }else{ return true; } } What is wrong here?

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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  • Choosing design method for ladder-like word game.

    - by owca
    I'm trying to build a simple application, with the finished program looking like this : I will also have to implement two different GUI layouts for this. Now I'm trying to figure out the best method to perform this task. My professor told me to introduce Element class with 4 states : - empty - invisible (used in GridLayout) - first letter - other letter I've thought about following solutions (by List I mean any sort of Collection) : 1. Element is a single letter, and each line is Element[]. Game class will be array of arrays Element[]. I guess that's the dumbest way, and the validation might be troublesome. 2. Like previously but Line is a List of Element. Game is an array of Lines. 3. Like previously but Game is a List of Lines. Which one should I choose ? Or maybe do you have better ideas ? What collection would be best if to use one ?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • Why NOT use POST method here?

    - by Camran
    I have a classifieds website. In the main page (index) I have several form fields which the user may or may not fill in, in order to specify a detailed search of classifieds. Ex: Category: Cars Price from: 3000 Price to: 10000 Color: Red Area: California The forms' action is set to a php page: <form action='query_sql.php' method='post'> In query_sql.php I fetch the variables like this: category=$_POST['category']; etc etc... Then query MySql: $query="SELECT........WHERE category='$category' etc etc.... $results = mysql_query($query); Then I simply display the results of the query to the user by creating a table which is filled in dynamically depending on the results set. However, according to an answer by Col. Shrapnel in my previous Q I shouldn't use POST here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3004754/how-to-hide-url-from-users-when-submitting-this-form The reason I use post is simply to hide the "one-page-word-document" long URL in the browsers adress bar. I am very confused, is it okay to use POST or not? It is working fine both when I use GET or POST now... And it is already on a production server... Btw, in the linked question, I wasn't referring to make URL invisible (or hide it) I just wanted it too look better (which I have accomplished with mod_rewrite). UPDATE: If I use GET, then how should I make the url better looking (beautiful)? Check this previous Q out: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3000524/how-to-make-this-very-long-url-appear-short

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