Search Results

Search found 93816 results on 3753 pages for 'nexus one'.

Page 94/3753 | < Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >

  • iPhone SDK: Switching to one view then back to previous view errors

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a UITabBarConroller that I use to switch between 3 different views. This all works perfectly. On one of my tabs, I added a button at the to called "Add", I have added an outlet to this, as well as an IBAction method which looks like the following: // Method used to load up view where we can add a new ride - (IBAction)showAddNewRideView { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddNewRide" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end showAddNewRideView This currently works fine, and loads up my AddNewRide nib file. But, once that view loads, I have a cancel button, which, when clicked, I want to return to the previous view. So, I figured I would just do the reverse of the above, using the following method which would load back my previous nib: - (IBAction)cancelAddingNewRide { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainWindow" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end cancelAddingNewRide But, which trying to load the MainWindow nib, the program crashes, and I get the following error: 2010-05-05 20:24:37.211 Ride[6032:207] *** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450 2010-05-05 20:24:37.213 Ride[6032:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450' So, I am a little lost as to why it would work one way, but not the other.

    Read the article

  • NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

    - by Owen
    I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Spring aop multiple pointcuts & advice but only the last one is working

    - by Jarle Hansen
    I have created two Spring AOP pointcuts that are completely separate and will be woven in for different parts of the system. The pointcuts are used in two different around advices, these around-advices will point to the same Java method. How the xml-file looks: <aop:config> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(......)" id="pointcutOne" /> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(.....)" id="pointcurTwo" /> <aop:aspect id="..." ref="springBean"> <aop:around pointcut-ref="pointcutOne" method="commonMethod" /> <aop:aroung pointcut-ref="pointcutTwo" method="commonMethod" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> The problem is that only the last pointcut works (if I change the order "pointcutOne" works because it is last). I have gotten it to work by creating one big pointcut, but I would like to have them separate. Any suggestions to why only one of the pointcuts works at a time?

    Read the article

  • How to take name in one preg_match

    - by Julianto
    Hello guys, I am trying to extract just the names result from the hypothetical HTML file below. <ul class="cat"> <li>sport</li> <li>movie</li> </ul> <ul class="person-list"> <li>name 1</li> <li>name 2</li> <li>name 3</li> <li>name 4</li> <li>name 5</li> <li>name 6</li> </ul> Ideally, the result should come in an array format like the one below: Array( name 1 , name 2 , name 3 , .......... ) OK I can easily do this with 2 regex matches but I was wondering if I can do it with just one. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to update attribute of one instance

    - by Begbie00
    Hi all - I'm creating an arbitrary number of instances (using for loops and ranges). At some event in the future, I need to change an attribute for only one of the instances. What's the best way to do this? Right now, I'm doing the following: 1) Manage the instances in a list. 2) Iterate through the list to find a key value. 3) Once I find the right object within the list (i.e. key value = value I'm looking for), change whatever attribute I need to change. for Instance within ListofInstances: if Instance.KeyValue == SearchValue: Instance.AttributeToChange = 10 This feels really inefficient: I'm basically iterating over the entire list of instances, even through I only need to change an attribute in one of them. Should I be storing the Instance references in a structure more suitable for random access (e.g. dictionary with KeyValue as the dictionary key?) Is a dictionary any more efficient in this case? Should I be using something else? Thanks, Mike

    Read the article

  • Combine Search Bar and URL Bar into One (WebView)

    - by Jay Bush
    So I'm in the midst of updating my Web Browser app for iOS devices, from the ground up, and I'm trying to implement some more convenient features. One feature that seems to be really popular now, that I have been getting a lot of requests for, is the combination of a Google Search bar and a URL bar in one, like that of the Chrome application. Below is a screenshot of the Google Chrome app, and as you can see, they've made it so you can either enter in a search query like "apple ipad" and it will return a Google search page of 'Apple iPad', or you can enter in a URL "http://apple.com/ipad/" and it will load that URL. I have looked all over the internet, but all I could find were tutorials on how to Search Google with value of the UITextField. I have a feeling that the best way to do this is to probably make a 'check'. Like if the entered value contains 'http://' 'www.' '.com' or no spaces, then load it as a URL, if not then load it in a Google Search page, and then have the webview load up the Google Search page. If anybody could show me to the right direction, that would be great, or even supplying me with some code would be even greater. :) Thanks! If anyone needs part of the code, just ask.

    Read the article

  • Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

    - by James Black
    I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

    Read the article

  • Code-Golf: one line PHP syntax

    - by Kendall Hopkins
    Explanation PHP has some holes in its' syntax and occasionally in development a programmer will step in them. This can lead to much frustration as these syntax holes seem to exist for no reason. For example, one can't easily create an array and access an arbitrary element of that array on the same line (func1()[100] is not valid PHP syntax). The workaround for this issue is to use a temporary variable and break the statement into two lines, but sometimes that can lead to very verbose, clunky code. Challenge I know of a few of these holes (I'm sure there are more). It is quite hard to even come up with a solution, let alone in a code-golf style. Winner is the person with in the least characters total for all four Syntax Holes. Rules Statement must be one line in this form: $output = ...;, where ... doesn't contain any ;'s. Only use standard library functions (no custom functions allowed) Statement works identically to the assumed functional of the non-working syntax (even in cases that it fails). Statement must run without syntax error of any kind with E_STRICT | E_ALL. Syntax Holes $output = func_return_array()[$key]; - accessing an arbitrary offset (string or integer) of the returned array of a function $output = new {$class_base.$class_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being used to create a new class $output = {$func_base.$func_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being called as function $output = func_return_closure()(); - call a closure being returned from another function

    Read the article

  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

    Read the article

  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

    Read the article

  • C two functions in one with casts

    - by Favolas
    I have two functions that do the exact same thing but in two different types of struct and this two types of struct are very similar. Imagine I have this two structs. typedef struct nodeOne{ Date *date; struct nodeOne *next; struct nodeOne *prev; }NodeOne; typedef struct nodeTwo{ Date *date; struct nodeTwo *next; struct nodeTwo *prev; }NodeTwo; Since my function to destroy each of the list is almost the same (Just the type of the arguments are different) I would like to make just one function to make the two thins. I have this two functions void destroyListOne(NodeOne **head, NodeOne **tail){ NodeOne *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } and this one: void destroyListTwo(NodeTwo **head, NodeTwo **tail){ NodeTwo *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } Since they are very similar I thought making something like this: void destroyList(void **ini, void **end, int listType){ if (listType == 0) { NodeOne *aux; NodeOne head = (NodeOne) ini; NodeOne tail = (NodeOne) ed; } else { NodeTwo *aux; NodeTwo head = (NodeTwo) ini; NodeTwo tail = (NodeTwo) ed; } while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } As you may now this is not working but I want to know if this is possible to achieve. I must maintain both of the structs as they are.

    Read the article

  • Multiple/repeat .replace on one page

    - by Kenneth B
    I've made a script which copies the ALT-tag of an image and puts it into a SPAN. It also formates the information devided by a hyphen. It works like a charm, but only with one image. Further more, I would like it to wrap a div around the image, to prevent unnecessary markup, as I have now. Any ideas is much appreciated... :-) Script that works now: HTML: <div id="hoejre"> <p><span class="alignright"><img src="tommy_stor.jpg" alt="Name - Title" width="162" height="219" /><span></span></span></p> </div> jQuery: var alt = $("#hoejre p span img").attr("alt"); $('#hoejre p span span').html("<strong>" + alt.replace("-", "</strong> <em>") + "</em>"); Output: <span class="alignright"><img height="219" width="162" alt="Name - Title" src="tommy_stor.jpg"><span><strong>Name </strong> <em> Title</em></span></span> How do you I repeat the effect on several images, with different information within? P.S.: I really love this forum. I have used several other forums for this kind of questions, but this one is by far the most professional.

    Read the article

  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

    Read the article

  • Combining two-part SQL query into one query

    - by user332523
    Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

    Read the article

  • Any one point me how to customize facebook share

    - by Venkat
    I am trying to share my own custom url, image, title and description using Facebook and twitter. I am having lot of images and videos in my website. So i want to make my content viral on social websites. I am trying to keep share options for both facebook and twitter for everything individually. If some one share one image i want that image in the sharing thumbnail and url will be the page url with my own title, description. Based on the url i will point the user to that pic in my website. I tried in the below way. Facebook share: <a href="javascript:;" onclick="window.open('http://www.facebook.com/share.php?u=your_page_url','facebook share','resizable=yes,width=700,height=500,scrollbars=yes,status=yes')"><img alt="facebook" src="yourimage.jpg" /></a> Twitter share: <a href="javascript:;" onclick="window.open('https://twitter.com/share','twitter share','resizable=yes,width=700,height=500,scrollbars=yes,status=yes')"><img alt="twitter" src="yourimage.jpg" /></a>

    Read the article

  • MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

    - by lcf
    Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to combine two separate unrelated Git repositories into one with single history timeline

    - by Antony
    I have two unrelated (not sharing any ancestor check in) Git repositories, one is a super repository which consists a number of smaller projects (Lets call it repository A). Another one is just a makeshift local Git repository for a smaller project (lets call it repository B). Graphically, it would look like this A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (repo A) A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) A1-B1-C1-D1-E1-HEAD (repo B) Ideally, I would really like to merge repo B into repo A with a single history timeline. So it would appear that I originally started project in repo A. Graphically, this would be the ideal end result A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (new repo A) A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) I have been doing some reading with submodules and subtree (Pro Git is a pretty good book by the way), but both of them seem to cater solution towards maintaining two separate branch with sub module being able to pull changes from upstream and subtree being slightly less headache. Both solution require additional and specialized git commands to handle check ins and sync between master and sub tree/module branch. Both solution also result in multiple time-lines (with --squash you even get 3 timelines with subtree). The closest solution from SO seems to talk about "graft", but is that really it? The goal is to have a single unified repository where I can pull/push check-ins, so that there are no more repo B, just repo A in the end.

    Read the article

  • Best way to do one-to-many "JOIN" in CouchDB

    - by mit
    There are CouchDB documents that are list elements: { "type" : "el", "id" : "1", "content" : "first" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "2", "content" : "second" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "3", "content" : "third" } There is one document that defines the list: { "type" : "list", "elements" : ["2","1"] , "id" : "abc123" } As you can see the third element was deleted, it is no longer part of the list. So it must not be part of the result. Now I want a view that returns the content elements including the right order. The result could be: { "content" : ["second", "first"] } In this case the order of the elements is already as it should be. Another possible result: { "content" : [{"content" : "first", "order" : 2},{"content" : "second", "order" : 1}] } I started writing the map function: map = function (doc) { if (doc.type === 'el') { emit(doc.id, {"content" : doc.content}); //emit the id and the content exit; } if (doc.type === 'list') { for ( var i=0, l=doc.elements.length; i<l; ++i ){ emit(doc.elements[i], { "order" : i }); //emit the id and the order } } } This is as far as I can get. Can you correct my mistakes and write a reduce function? Remember that the third document must not be part of the result. Of course you can write a different map function also. But the structure of the documents (one definig element document and an entry document for each entry) cannot be changed.

    Read the article

  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

    Read the article

  • jQuery slider to load content one at a time

    - by Barrett
    I have a slider that load all of my content at once. Into a div. Like so: external page.php $get_users = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM user WHERE id!='$user_id'"); while ($rows = mysql_fetch_assoc($get_users)) { $id = $rows['id']; $firstname = $rows['firstname']; $display_info .= ' <div class="f_outer" id="' . $id . '"> <div class="f_name likeu">' . $firstname . '</div> </div>'; } echo $display_info; I call this page from my find.php page using bxslider Here is my find.php page below. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var slider = $("#slider1").bxSlider(); $("#slider-like").live('click', function() { slider.goToNextSlide(); return false; }); }); </script> <div id="slider-like>Yes</div> <div id="slider1"> <?PHP include ("external.php"); ?> </div> So what I get is all of my .f_outer div on the find.php page. I have hundreds of user and they will all be loaded at once. I would like to only load one slide at a time. So when I click #slider-like it load one of my dive from my external page.

    Read the article

  • Why extremely occasionally will one of bof/eof be true for a new non-empty recordset

    - by jjb
    set recordsetname = databasename.openrecordset(SQLString) if recordsetname.bof <> true and recordsetname.eof <> true then 'do something end if 2 questions : the above test can evaluate to false incorrectly but only extremely rarely (I've had one lurking in my code and it failed today, I believe for the first time in 5 years of daily use-that's how I found it). Why very occasionally will one of bof/eof be true for a non-empty recordset. It seems so rare that I wonder why it occurs at all. Is this a foolproof replacement: if recordsetname.bof <> true or recordsetname.eof <> true then Edit to add details of code : Customers have orders, each order begins with a BeginOrder item and end with an EndOrder item and in between are the items in the order. The SQL is: ' ids are autoincrement long integers ' SQLString = "select * from Orders where type = OrderBegin or type = OrderEnd" Dim OrderOpen as Boolean OrderOpen = False Set rs = db.Openrecordset(SQLString) If rs.bof <> True And rs.eof <> True Then myrec.movelast If rs.fields("type").value = BeginOrder Then OrderOpen = True End If End If If OrderOpen F False Then 'code here to add new BeginOrder Item to Orders table ' End If ShowOrderHistory 'displays the customer's Order history ' In this case which looks this this BeginOrder Item a Item b ... Item n EndOrder BeginOrder Item a Item b ... Item n EndOrder BeginOrder Item a item b ... Item m BeginOrder <----should not be there as previous order still open

    Read the article

  • IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

    - by PFranchise
    Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

    Read the article

  • Reload a UITable on the fly when editing a UITextField inside one of the cells

    - by Saze
    I have a UITable containing some customs UITableCells. Those cells contain a few UILabels and a UITextField. The datasource of the table comes from a main controller's property. (This controller is also the delegate and the dataSource for the table). Here's a simplified screenshot of the UI: Now, I need to update "on the fly" the content of all the UILabels when the user edits one of the UITextFields. To do so, at the I am listening to the "Editing Changed" event at the UITextField level. This triggers the following action: - (IBAction) editChangeHandler: (id) sender { MyAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate.viewController.myDataSourceArray objectAtIndex:self.rowIndex] setANumber: [theTextField.text intValue]]; [delegate.viewController reloadRows]; } The reloadRows method in the viewController is as such: - (void) reloadRows { NSLog(@"called reloadRows"); //perform some calculations on the data source objects here... [theUITable reloadData]; } My problem here is that whenever the user changes the value in the field, the reloadRows method is successfully called, so is apparently the reloadData but it also causes the keyboard to be dismissed. So in the end, the user can only touch one key when editing the TextField before the keyboard is dismissed and the table reloaded. Does anybody knows a solution to this or have experienced the same issue?

    Read the article

  • Common Properties: Consolidating Loan, Purchase, Inventory and Sale tables into one Transaction tabl

    - by Frank Computer
    Pawnshop Application: I have separate tables for Loan, Purchase, Inventory & Sales transactions. Each tables rows are joined to their respective customer rows by: customer.pk [serial] = loan.fk [integer]; = purchase.fk [integer]; = inventory.fk [integer]; = sale.fk [integer]; Since there are so many common properties within the four tables, I consolidated the four tables into one table called "transaction", where a column: transaction.trx_type char(1) {L=Loan, P=Purchase, I=Inventory, S=Sale} Scenario: A customer initially pawns merchandise, makes a couple of interest payments, then decides he wants to sell the merchandise to the pawnshop, who then places merchandise in Inventory and eventually sells it to another customer. I designed a generic transaction table where for example: transaction.main_amount DECIMAL(7,2) in a loan transaction holds the pawn amount, in a purchase holds the purchase price, in inventory and sale holds sale price. This is clearly a denormalized design, but has made programming alot easier and improved performance. Any type of transaction can now be performed from within one screen, without the need to change to different tables.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >