Search Results

Search found 5171 results on 207 pages for 'whatever'.

Page 94/207 | < Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >

  • onload Event in embedded SVG not calling function in attached script. Scope Issue?

    - by Nick
    Hi So I've got an XHTML page with a script - not inline > <script type="text/javascript" > src="../global/js/scripts.js"></script> and an embedded (I tried embed and object, same behavior) SVG document with a onload="CheckIfLoaded(evt)" attribute. The problem is firefox doesn't call the CheckIfLoaded() function in scripts.js. Firebug gives me "CheckIfLoaded() is not defined" with no reference to any line numbers. I can't find any information regarding the scope of javascript functions with respect to embedded content. Curiously, it works fine in IE. I could of course add a reference to the script into the SVG file as well but I believe that will result in the client downloading the scripts file twice and in addition I have 1000+ svg files and I'd really rather not add one line to all of them, although I suppose I could write a batch file or whatever if I have to. Any one know more about this? Thanks, Nick

    Read the article

  • Virtual functions and polymorphism

    - by ritmbo
    Suppose I have this: class A { public: virtual int hello(A a); }; class B : public A { public: int hello(B b){ bla bla }; }; So, A it's an abstract class. 1)In the class B, I'm defining a method that its suppose overrides the A class. But the parameter it's slightly different. I'm not sure about this, is this correct? Maybe because of polymorphism, this is ok but its rather confusing. 2) If I do: A a = new B;, and then a.hello(lol); if "lol" it's not of type B, then it would give compile error?, and if it's of type A from another class C (class C : public A), what would happend? I'm confused about the overriding and virtual thing.. all examples I found work with methods without parameters. Any answer, link, or whatever it's appreciated. thanks pd: sorry for my english

    Read the article

  • How to get rid of Drupal CSS stylesheets?

    - by unforgiven
    I am trying to accomplish the following. I need to use Drupal 6 as a project requirement, but I want to use it with my own HTML and CSS stylesheets for each node/view/panel etc. The problem is, whatever the theme, I always found that Drupal applies to my HTML content both my CSS stylesheets and the CSS related to the theme chosen. I have also tried, without success, using the stylestripper module (installed in sites/all/modules). No matter what I do, additional CSS stylesheets are applied to my pages, completely destroying my layout. What is the proper way to achieve this? Why stylestripper does not work at all? Is there a completely blank theme available? I have tried basic, mothership, zen etc, but I always see additional CSS stylesheets applied to my pages. This is driving me crazy, Drupal was chosen by someone else for its flexibility. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Create creative diagrams or find someone creative

    - by devdude
    This question might be slightly non-techy/dev, but I am sure many of you had a similar problem. We code, write test-cases, put comments in source-code (!), put messages in svn commit, write comments in tracked issues. We create ERD/class/usecase/.. diagrams with whatever tool. We might write user-manuals, wikis, guidelines,.. Not everyones cup of tea, but usually practice makes a good tech writer (I experienced that). Now comes the point: Once in a while we need to supply system overview diagrams, drawings of architecure,.. that look appealing to non-technical people, and no, we dont have a marketing department with designers waiting for our input or a $$$$ design company doing our corporate design. If I try to do that, it a) takes forever b) I might not have the tools and c) looks like crap and not like something I want to see in a slideshow. Whats your experience or recipe ? Is there something like RENT-A-DESIGNER ? cheers

    Read the article

  • PHP: Why Cookies only sent to http://www.xxx.com and NOT http://xxx.com

    - by Axel
    Hi, I have a php login which sets 2 cookies once some one login. the problem is that if you login from : http://www.mydomain.com and you go to http://mydomain.com you will find your self not logged in, I think that's because the browser only send the cookies to the first syntax. It's only one domain, the difference is the www. before the domain name, so how to set cookies to the whole domain whatever there is www. or not ? <?php setcookie('username',$username,time()+3600); ?> Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using RichTextBox SelectionTabs property in winforms

    - by Bala R
    In a winforms application, I'm using a RichTextBox and I'm trying to reduce the output from a '\t' to 4 spaces from whatever the default is. I have this in the form's OnLoad _richTextBox.Text = "1\t2\t3\t4\t5"; _richTextBox.SelectAll(); _richTextBox.SelectionTabs = new int[] {100,200,300,400 }; I have a breakpoint before and after this snippet. The SelectionTabs is set to {int[0]} (empty int array) before and after the assignment. Can anyone tell me why my assignment is not going through?

    Read the article

  • How do you give variables reference in javascript?

    - by Eric
    I want to give variables reference in javascript. For example, I want to do: a=1 b=a a=2 and have b=2, and change accordingly to a. Is this possible in javascript? If it isn't is there a way to do like a.onchange = function () {b=a}? What I wanted to do was make a function like makeobject which make an object and puts it in an array and than returns it like function makeobject() { objects[objects.length] = {blah:'whatever',foo:8}; } so than I could do a=makeobject() b=makeobject() c=makeobject() and later in the code do for (i in objects) { objects[i].blah = 'whatev'; } and also change the values of a,b and c

    Read the article

  • Code Access Security - Basics and Example

    - by jobless-spt
    I was going through this link to understand CodeAccessSecurity: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/security/UB_CAS_NET.aspx It's a great article but it left me with following questions: If you can demand and get whatever permissions you want, then any executable can get Full_Trust on machine. If permissions are already there, then why do we need to demand those? Code is executing on Server, so the permissions are on server not on client machine? Article takes an example of removing write permissions from an assembly to show security exception. Though in real world, System.IO assembly (or related classes) will take care of these permissions. So is there a real scenario where we will need CAS?

    Read the article

  • Spring security custom principal bean

    - by wuntee
    I have a web application that is set up to use the default ldap server/authentication manager/authentication provider/user service. I have another DAO that already does majority of the work that those do (besides the authenticating a user) using Spring-LDAP. My problem is that I want the principal to be of my own custom bean class. What is the simplest way to do this? Initially I was thinking to create a custom authentication provider, but since the default one does exactly what I want, there doesnt seem to be a need. I am thinking I just need to override whatever object actually returns the Principal bean. Is this possible, and able to be injected into the security ldap authenticator context?

    Read the article

  • Python: Which encoding is used for processing sys.argv?

    - by EOL
    What encoding are the elements of sys.argv in, in Python? are they encoded with the sys.getdefaultencoding() encoding? sys.getdefaultencoding(): Return the name of the current default string encoding used by the Unicode implementation. PS: As pointed out in some of the answers, sys.stdin.encoding would indeed be a better guess. I would love to see a definitive answer to this question, though, with pointers to solid sources! PPS: As Wim pointed out, Python 3 solves this issue by putting str objects in sys.argv (if I understand correctly). The question remains open for Python 2.x, though. Under Unix, the LC_CTYPE environment variable seems to be the correct thing to check, no? What should be done with Windows (so that sys.argv elements are correctly interpreted whatever the console)?

    Read the article

  • Loading Images with Real Screen Resolution (Flash AS3)

    - by yar
    I am loading JPEGs into a Flash presentation using load with a flash.display.Loader and it's working great. The JPEGs are sizing to their native resolution (which is perfect). However, if I maximize the Flash presentation (in the Flash Player), the JPGs do NOT take advantage of the bigger screen. For example, the presentation is 1024x768, and the image is 1280x400. Normally the image shows with a part offscreen in the Flash presentation. However, if I expand the Flash presentation to 1680x1200, the freshly loaded image still goes offscreen. Is there any way to load the jpg (or png, or whatever) to take advantage of the displayed resolution of the Flash presentation? Edit: I realize this question is hard to read, so any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • OpenId ASP MVC Authentication with long expiry

    - by Khash
    Stackoverflow uses OpenId as many other websites. However, I rarely need to provide my OpenId to Stackoverflow while with other OpenId enabled websites, I have to do it once a day or week. This suggests to me that the expiry of the session is with the website and not the OpenId provider. Looking at the DotNetOpenId code in ASP MVC, I can see that after a successful authentication by the OpenId provider FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie is called with the identifier and a boolean parameter to determine if the cookie should be persisted. How can I force this cookie to expire, say in 2020 instead of whatever the default value is.

    Read the article

  • Bourne Script: Redirect success messages but NOT error messages

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    This command: keytool -import -file "$serverPath/$serverCer" -alias "$clientTrustedCerAlias" -keystore "$clientPath/$clientKeystore" -storepass "$serverPassword" -noprompt Will when it runs successfully outputs: Certificate was added to keystore I tried redirecting the stdard out with: keytool ... > /dev/null But it is still printing. It appears that the message is being output into standard error. Since when I do this it is not displayed: keytool ... > /dev/null 2>&1 However this is not what I am wanting to do. I would like error messages to be output normally but I do not want "success" messages to be output to the command line. Any ideas? Whatever happened to unix convention: "If it works do not output anything".

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC Web PetClinic Tutorial?

    - by wuntee
    Is there a tutorial that goes along with the PetClinic application? I have been trying to find one, but google is not helping me today. Specifically, I dont understand things like: @Autowired - what does that even mean? @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public String setupForm(@RequestParam("petId") int petId, ModelMap model) { Pet pet = this.clinic.loadPet(petId); model.addAttribute("pet", pet); return "petForm"; } How can a request return just a string? Shouldnt it need to return some sort of ModelAndView? Or does the application somehow redirect to whatever is returned? A lot of confusing concepts - if there is a tutorial, or video (like spring-security has) that would be very helpful. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jQuery .ajax() call to page method works in FF only when async is false

    - by Steve
    I'm calling a page method using .ajax() and it works in IE8 whatever the value of async is. However, in FF3.6, it only works with async set to false. When async is set to true, in Firebug, I just see status aborted. The page validates. I can work with async set to false, but any clues as to why FF can't work with async set to true? $("[id$='_www']").click(function() { var hhh = false; $.ajax({ async: false, cache: false, type: "POST", url: "/abc/def.aspx/jkl", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{ 'eee': '" + window.location.href.match(/\d{1,3}$/) + "', 'ttt': '" + $("[id$='_zzz']").val() + "' }", success: function(msg) { $("#ggg").html(msg.d); }, error: function(xhr, err) { hhh = true; } }); return hhh; });

    Read the article

  • $.Post with Form submit

    - by Michael
    ...Some form gets submitted... $.("form").submit(function() { saveFormValues($(this), "./../.."; } function saveFormValues(form, path) { var inputs = getFormData(form); var params = createAction("saveFormData", inputs); var url = path + "/scripts/sessions.php"; $.post(url, params); } The weird thing is that if i add a function to the $.post(url, params, function(data) { alert(data); } I get a blank alert statement. Within scripts/sessions.php i have a function to save whatever the $_POST information is to a file, and the sessions.php never saves this saveFormValues call. It never shows up to the file. But if i keep trying to get it to save, about once every 15 will actually allow it to be saved. This leads me to believe that the forms POST is somehow blocking this value saving post. Any help?

    Read the article

  • generalizing the pumping lemma for UNIX-style regular expressions

    - by Avi
    Most UNIX regular expressions have, besides the usual *,+,? operators a backslash operator where \1,\2,... match whatever's in the last parentheses, so for example L=(a)b\1* matches the (non regular) language a^n b a^n On one hand, this seems to be pretty powerful since you can create (a*)b\1b\1 to match the language a^n b a^n b a^n which can't even be recognized by a stack automaton. On the other hand, I'm pretty sure a^n b^n cannot be expressed this way. Two questions: 1. Is there any literature on this family of languages (UNIX-y regular). In particular, is there a version of the pumping lemma for these? 2. Can someone prove (or perhaps disprove) that a^n b^n cannot be expressed this way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Background processing in rails

    - by hashpipe
    Hi, This might seem like a FAQ on stackoverflow, but my requirements are a little different. While I have previously used BackgroundRB and DJ for running background processes in ruby, my requirement this time is to run some heavy analytics and mathematical computations on a huge set of data, and I need to do this only about the first 15 days of the month. Going by this, I am tempted to use cron and run a ruby script to accomplish this goal. What I would like to know / understand is: 1 - Is using cron a good idea (cause I'm not a system admin, and so while I have basic idea of cron, I'm not overly confident of doing it perfectly) 2 - Can we somehow modify DJ to run only on the first 15 days of the month (with / without using cron), and then just stop and exit once all the jobs in the queue for the day are over (don't want it to ping the DB every time for a new job...whatever the jobs will be in the queue when DJ starts, that will be all). I'm not sure if I have put the question in the right manner, but any help in this direction will be much appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • iPhone to iPhone communication

    - by Dan
    Hi, I have been looking into communication methods between two iPhone devices and as I understand it there are two main methods to do this: Bluetooth and WiFi. However I wanted to know if anyone knows of any other way of sharing information between two iPhones? If I were in an area with no WiFi or mobile signal, and couldn't use Bluetooth for whatever reason, is there anything that could be done to broadcast data from one iPhone to another? I'm sure its a bit of a silly question, but if you don't ask, you don't get; and if someone knows of anything I might be able to look into with regards to this, I would be very appreciative. Thanks, Dan

    Read the article

  • .NET invoking against an arbitrary control.

    - by kerkeslager
    I have a method which takes in a .NET control and calls invoke against it like so: Form.Invoke(Target); However, I've run into an issue numerous times calling this method where due to timing or whatever, the form handle on the form doesn't exist, causing a Invoke or BeginInvoke cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created error. In frustration, I jokingly changed the code to: MainForm.Invoke(Target); where MainForm is the main window of the application (the form handle for the main form is created at startup and remains active for the entire life cycle of the application). I ran all the tests and manually tested the application and everything seems to work fine despite the fact that this is used everywhere. So my question is, what exactly is the meaning of invoking against a specific control? Is there any downside to just always invoking against a control you know will be active? If not, why does .NET have you invoke against a control in the first place (instead of just creating a static GuiThread.InvokeOnGuiThread(Blah);)?

    Read the article

  • Difficulties signing in to Twitter from iPhone

    - by Tristan
    Hi there, I'm using MGTwitterEngine to add Twitter functionality to my app. It's very easy to simply prompt the user for a username and password and then start posting. Strangely, however, I've noticed other apps (eg Foursquare and Brightkite) require you to visit their website to associate your Twitter account with your foursquare/brightkite/whatever account. Why do they do it this way? Is there a reason why my app shouldn't prompt the user for a Twitter username and password, even though it would be so easy? Thanks a bunch! Tristan

    Read the article

  • Seam reRender component in partial

    - by meed2000
    Hello, I'm using seam to develop a simple web app. Using a4j commandButton in many places, with the property reRender="componentName" componentName is in most places a a4j outputPanel Which always worked, until I used a template. with include of two different views. reRender applied to the whole view does work, but reRender applied to an inner component does not. Same issue with page rules, all action I had defined are not functioning any more. Is this a problem with Seam, did someone experience this? <a4j:outputPanel id="panel1"> <h:form> <div class="section"> // whatever code </div> <a4j:commandButton id="button1" value="Add" action="#{bean1.action()}" reRender="panel1"/> <h:commandButton id="reset" value="Reset" action="#{bean1.reset}"/> </h:form> </a4j:outputPanel>

    Read the article

  • How to pass a very long string/file into RESTWebservice JAX-RS Jersey

    - by Sashikiran Challa
    Hello All, I am trying to write a webservice that takes in an XML string, does parsing of it using DOM and extract particular things I want. My XML string happens to be very long so I do not want to pass it as a @QueryParam or @PathParam. Say If I write that XML string into a file, How do I go about writing a RESTful service that takes in this file, extracts whatever I want and return the results. I am actually trying to extract some number of strings, so my output should probably be an ArrayList having all these strings. Could somebody please shed some light on how I should go about doing this. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Grails URL's with Tomcat/Apache ProxyPass

    - by intargc
    Grails tends to write out the URL for everything that uses its tags as /appName/whatever. For instance, if I use the tag: <g:javascript library="jquery"/> the resulting tag is <script src="/appName/jquery/jquery.js"></script> This causes an issue with using ProxyPass with Apache/Tomcat. All of my CSS, JS, Images and links have that /appName prefixed to them. Is there a way to work around this with ProxyPass or possibly a way for Grails to not prefix the appName to the front of all of my URL's?

    Read the article

  • How would you pass objects with MVC and jQuery AJAX?

    - by Ken
    I am finally experimenting and trying to learn MVC after years of asp.net. I am used to using asp.net AJAX PageMethods where you can pass an object that automagically gets parsed to whatever type the parameter is in that method. Javascript: PageMethods.AddPerson({First:"John",Last:"Doe"}); Code-Behind: [WebMethod] public static Result AddPerson(Person objPerson) { return Person.Save(); } How would do this using MVC and jQuery? Did just have to send strings and parse the json to object?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101  | Next Page >