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  • Java - is this an idiom or pattern, behavior classes with no state

    - by Berlin Brown
    I am trying to incorporate more functional programming idioms into my java development. One pattern that I like the most and avoids side effects is building classes that have behavior but they don't necessarily have any state. The behavior is locked into the methods but they only act on the parameters passed in. The code below is code I am trying to avoid: public class BadObject { private Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); public BadObject() { data.put("data", "data"); } /** * Act on the data class. But this is bad because we can't * rely on the integrity of the object's state. */ public void execute() { data.get("data").toString(); } } The code below is nothing special but I am acting on the parameters and state is contained within that class. We still may run into issues with this class but that is an issue with the method and the state of the data, we can address issues in the routine as opposed to not trusting the entire object. Is this some form of idiom? Is this similar to any pattern that you use? public class SemiStatefulOOP { /** * Private class implies that I can access the members of the <code>Data</code> class * within the <code>SemiStatefulOOP</code> class and I can also access * the getData method from some other class. * * @see Test1 * */ class Data { protected int counter = 0; public int getData() { return counter; } public String toString() { return Integer.toString(counter); } } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void execute(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void updateStateWithCallToService(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Similar to CLOS (Common Lisp Object System) make instance. */ public Data makeInstance() { return new Data(); } } // End of Class // Issues with the code above: I wanted to declare the Data class private, but then I can't really reference it outside of the class: I can't override the SemiStateful class and access the private members. Usage: final SemiStatefulOOP someObject = new SemiStatefulOOP(); final SemiStatefulOOP.Data data = someObject.makeInstance(); someObject.execute(data); someObject.updateStateWithCallToService(data);

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  • Python: How best to parse a simple grammar?

    - by Rosarch
    Ok, so I've asked a bunch of smaller questions about this project, but I still don't have much confidence in the designs I'm coming up with, so I'm going to ask a question on a broader scale. I am parsing pre-requisite descriptions for a course catalog. The descriptions almost always follow a certain form, which makes me think I can parse most of them. From the text, I would like to generate a graph of course pre-requisite relationships. (That part will be easy, after I have parsed the data.) Some sample inputs and outputs: "CS 2110" => ("CS", 2110) # 0 "CS 2110 and INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, 3300, 3140" => [("CS", 2110), ("CS", 3300), ("CS", 3140)] # 1 "CS 2110 or INFO 3300" => [[("CS", 2110)], [("INFO", 3300)]] # 2 "MATH 2210, 2230, 2310, or 2940" => [[("MATH", 2210), ("MATH", 2230), ("MATH", 2310)], [("MATH", 2940)]] # 3 If the entire description is just a course, it is output directly. If the courses are conjoined ("and"), they are all output in the same list If the course are disjoined ("or"), they are in separate lists Here, we have both "and" and "or". One caveat that makes it easier: it appears that the nesting of "and"/"or" phrases is never greater than as shown in example 3. What is the best way to do this? I started with PLY, but I couldn't figure out how to resolve the reduce/reduce conflicts. The advantage of PLY is that it's easy to manipulate what each parse rule generates: def p_course(p): 'course : DEPT_CODE COURSE_NUMBER' p[0] = (p[1], int(p[2])) With PyParse, it's less clear how to modify the output of parseString(). I was considering building upon @Alex Martelli's idea of keeping state in an object and building up the output from that, but I'm not sure exactly how that is best done. def addCourse(self, str, location, tokens): self.result.append((tokens[0][0], tokens[0][1])) def makeCourseList(self, str, location, tokens): dept = tokens[0][0] new_tokens = [(dept, tokens[0][1])] new_tokens.extend((dept, tok) for tok in tokens[1:]) self.result.append(new_tokens) For instance, to handle "or" cases: def __init__(self): self.result = [] # ... self.statement = (course_data + Optional(OR_CONJ + course_data)).setParseAction(self.disjunctionCourses) def disjunctionCourses(self, str, location, tokens): if len(tokens) == 1: return tokens print "disjunction tokens: %s" % tokens How does disjunctionCourses() know which smaller phrases to disjoin? All it gets is tokens, but what's been parsed so far is stored in result, so how can the function tell which data in result corresponds to which elements of token? I guess I could search through the tokens, then find an element of result with the same data, but that feel convoluted... What's a better way to approach this problem?

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  • working validation hint, working word counter but not working together

    - by Sriyani Rathnayaka
    I added a word counter to a my form's textarea... it is something like this... <div> <label>About you:</label> <textarea id="qualification" class="textarea hint_needed" rows="4" cols="30" ></textarea> <span class="hint">explain about you</span> <script type="text/javascript"> $("textarea").textareaCounter(); </script> </div> My problem is when I add textaracounter() like this my validation hint is not working.. when I remover the counter function validation hint is working... this is the jquery for hint message.. $(".hint").css({ "display":"none" }); $("input.hint_needed, select.hint_needed, textarea.hint_needed, radio.hint_needed").on("mouseenter", function() { $(this).next(".hint").css({ "display":"inline" }); }).on("mouseleave", function() { $(this).next(".hint").css({ "display":"none" }); }); this is for the word counter.. (function($){ $.fn.textareaCounter = function(options) { // setting the defaults // $("textarea").textareaCounter({ limit: 100 }); var defaults = { limit: 150 }; var options = $.extend(defaults, options); // and the plugin begins return this.each(function() { var obj, text, wordcount, limited; obj = $("#experience"); obj.after('<span style="font-weight: bold; color:#6a6a6a; clear: both; margin: 3px 0 0 150px; float: left; overflow: hidden;" id="counter-text">Max. '+options.limit+' words</span>'); obj.keyup(function() { text = obj.val(); if(text === "") { wordcount = 0; } else { wordcount = $.trim(text).split(" ").length; } if(wordcount > options.limit) { $("#counter-text").html('<span style="color: #DD0000;">0 words left</span>'); limited = $.trim(text).split(" ", options.limit); limited = limited.join(" "); $(this).val(limited); } else { $("#counter-text").html((options.limit - wordcount)+' words left'); } }); }); }; })(jQuery); can anybody tell me what is the problem there? Thank you..

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  • How can call a JQuery function when it in side the from view (asp.net control)?

    - by ricky roy
    Hi, All I have a Span in side the Form view. I wanted to Call a Jquery Fucntion when the from load how can i do this? Thanks Waiting for your reply here is my code <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" OnItemCommand="FormView1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="hidProductID" Value='<%#Eval("ProductID") %>' runat="server" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hidCustomerID" Value='<%#Eval("CustomerID") %>' runat="server" /> <a href='<%=WinToSave.SettingsConstants.SiteURL%>WintoSave/AuctionProduct.aspx?id=<%#Eval("ProductID") %>'> <%#Eval("ProductName")%> </a> <br /> <img src='<%#Eval("ImagePath")%>' alt="Image No available" /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblTime" runat="server" Text='<%#Convert.ToDateTime(Eval("ModifiedOn")).ToString("hh:mm:ss") %>'></asp:Label> <span id='Countdown_<%#Eval("ProductID") %>' onload="GetTimeOnLoad('<%#Eval("ModifiedOn")%>','Countdown_<%#Eval("ProductID") %>');"></span> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblFinalPrice" runat="server" Text='<%#Convert.ToDouble(Eval("FinalPrice")).ToString("#.00")%>'></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblFullName" runat="server" Text='<%#Eval("FullName") %>'></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAddbid" Text="Bid" CommandName="AddBid" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("ID")%>' runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> and following is my jquery code function GetTimeOnLoad(shortly,DivID) { var dt = new Date(shortly); alert(dt); alert(shortly); alert(DivID); var ProductDivID = "#" +DivID; alert(ProductDivID); $(ProductDivID).countdown({ until: dt, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, format: 'HMS', layout: '{hnn}{sep}{mnn}{sep}{snn}' }); } function liftOff(){}; function watchCountdown(){}; In above code I Used ' onload="GetTimeOnLoad('<%#Eval("ModifiedOn")%','Countdown_<%#Eval("ProductID") %');" but is not working

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  • Mercurial local repository backup

    - by Ricket
    I'm a big fan of backing things up. I keep my important school essays and such in a folder of my Dropbox. I make sure that all of my photos are duplicated to an external drive. I have a home server where I keep important files mirrored across two drives inside the server (like a software RAID 1). So for my code, I have always used Subversion to back it up. I keep the trunk folder with a stable copy of my application, but then I create a branch named with my username, and inside there is my working copy. I make very few changes between commits to that branch, with the understanding that the code in there is my backup. Now I'm looking into Mercurial, and I must admit I haven't truly used it yet so I may have this all wrong. But it seems to me that you have a server-side repository, and then you clone it to a working directory in the form of a local repository. Then as you work on something, you make commits to that local repository, and when things are in a state to be shared with others, you hg push to the parent repository on the server. Between pushes of stable, tested, bug-free code, where is the backup? After doing some thinking, I've come to the conclusion that it is not meant for backup purposes and it assumes you've handled that on your own. I guess I need to keep my Mercurial local repositories in my dropbox or some other backed-up location, since my in-progress code is not pushed to the server. Is this pretty much it, or have I missed something? If you use Mercurial, how do you backup your local repositories? If you had turned on your computer this morning and your hard drive went up in flames (or, more likely, the read head went bad, or the OS corrupted itself, ...), what would be lost? If you spent the past week developing a module, writing test cases for it, documenting and commenting it, and then a virus wipes your local repository away, isn't that the only copy? So then on the flip side, do you create a remote repository for every local repository and push to it all the time? How do you find a balance? How do you ensure your code is backed up? Where is the line between using Mercurial as backup, and using a local filesystem backup utility to keep your local repositories safe?

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • No data when attempting to get JSONP data from cross domain PHP script

    - by Alex
    I am trying to pull latitude and longitude values from another server on a different domain using a singe id string. I am not very familiar with JQuery, but it seems to be the easiest way to go about getting around the same origin problem. I am unable to use iframes and I cannot install PHP on the server running this javascript, which is forcing my hand on this. My queries appear to be going through properly, but I am not getting any results back. I was hoping someone here might have an idea that could help, seeing as I probably wouldn't recognize most obvious errors here. My javascript function is: var surl = "http://...omitted.../pull.php"; var idnum = 5a; //in practice this is defined above alert("BEFORE"); $.ajax({ url: surl, data: {id: idnum}, dataType: "jsonp", jsonp : "callback", jsonp: "jsonpcallback", success: function (rdata) { alert(rdata.lat + ", " + rdata.lon); } }); alert("BETWEEN"); function jsonpcallback(rtndata) { alert("CALLED"); alert(rtndata.lat + ", " + rtndata.lon); } alert("AFTER"); When my javascript is run, the BEFORE, BETWEEN and AFTER alerts are displayed. The CALLED and other jsonpcallback alerts are not shown. Is there another way to tell if the jsoncallback function has been called? Below is the PHP code I have running on the second server. I added the count table to my database just so that I can tell when this script is run. Every time I call the javascript, count has had an extra item inserted and the id number is correct. <?php header("content-type: application/json"); if (isset($_GET['id']) || isset($_POST['id'])){ $db_handle = mysql_connect($server, $username, $password); if (!$db_handle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $db_found = mysql_select_db($database, $db_handle); if ($db_found) { if (isset($_POST['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['id'])); } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['id'])); } $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $rtnjsonobj -> lat = $db_field["lat"]; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = $db_field["lon"]; if (isset($_POST['id'])){ echo $_POST['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } $SQL = sprintf("INSERT INTO count (bullshit) VALUES ('%s')", $_GET['id']); $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); } mysql_close($db_handle); } else { $rtnjsonobj -> lat = 404; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = 404; echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; }?> I am not entirely sure if the jsonp returned by this PHP is correct. When I go directly to the PHP script without including any parameters, I do get the following. ({"lat":404,"lon":404}) The callback function is not included, but that much can be expected when it isn't included in the original call. Does anyone have any idea what might be going wrong here? Thanks in advance!

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

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  • MySQL LEFT OUTER JOIN virtual table

    - by user1707323
    I am working on a pretty complicated query let me try to explain it to you. Here is the tables that I have in my MySQL database: students Table --- `students` --- student_id first_name last_name current_status status_change_date ------------ ------------ ----------- ---------------- -------------------- 1 John Doe Active NULL 2 Jane Doe Retread 2012-02-01 students_have_courses Table --- `students_have_courses` --- students_student_id courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date --------------------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- 1 1 2012-01-01 2012-01-04 2012-01-05 1 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 2 1 2012-01-10 2012-01-11 NULL students_have_optional_courses Table --- `students_have_optional_courses` --- students_student_id optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date e_date --------------------- ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 1 2012-01-02 2012-01-03 1 1 2012-01-06 NULL 1 5 2012-01-07 NULL Here is my query so far SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_optional_courses` ON ( `students_have_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id; What I want to be returned is the student_id, first_name, and last_name for all Active or Retread students and then LEFT JOIN the highest course_id, s_date, e_date, and int_date for the those students where the s_date is since the status_change_date if status is 'Retread'. Then LEFT JOIN the highest optional_courses_opcourse_id, s_date, and e_date from the students_have_optional_courses TABLE where the students_have_optional_courses.s_date is greater or equal to the students_have_courses.s_date and the students_have_optional_courses.e_date IS NULL Here is what is being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 1 2012-01-06 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Here is what I want being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 5 2012-01-07 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Everything is working except one thing, I cannot seem to get the highest students_have_optional_courses.optional_courses_opcourse_id no matter how I form the query Sorry, I just solved this myself after writing this all out I think it helped me think of the solution. Here is the solution query: SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT * FROM `students_have_optional_courses` ORDER BY `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id DESC ) `students_optional_courses` ON ( `students_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id;

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  • Change style display for cells with Javascript

    - by Ronny
    Hi, I want to do something like this: user selects one radio button (lock,delete or compare). I want to show to him only the relevant column from the table. (each option has different column). The table is ajax. I guess i need to change the display style for every cell but i don't know how. Here is example: Here i want to change the display of the cells function ButtonForTbl(value) { var x=document.getElementById("audithead").rows[0].cells; if (value == "lock"){ document.getElementById('lock').checked = true; //something like for(...)lockCell.style.display='' //something like for(...)deleteCell.style.display='none' //something like for(...)compareCell.style.display='none' } else if(value == "delete"){ document.getElementById('delete').checked = true; //something like for(...)lockCell.style.display='none' //something like for(...)deleteCell.style.display='' //something like for(...)compareCell.style.display='none' } else{ document.getElementById('compare').checked = true; } } I guess i need something like that: for (i = 0; i < deleteCell.length; i++) deleteCell[i].style.display='' = true ; The table: oCell = oRow.insertCell(-1); oCell.setAttribute('id','comCell' ); oCell.setAttribute('align', 'center'); oCell.innerHTML = "<input type='checkbox' id='com' value='"+ ind + "'name='com[]'>"; oCell = oRow.insertCell(-1); oCell.setAttribute('id','lockCell' ); oCell.setAttribute('align', 'center'); oCell.innerHTML = "<input type='checkbox' id='lock' value='"+ ind + "'name='lock[]'>"; Radio buttons: <input type="radio" value="compare" id="compare" name="choose" onclick="ButtonForTbl(this.value)"/> Compare&nbsp; <input type="radio" value="delete" id="delete" name="choose" onclick="ButtonForTbl(this.value)"/> Delete&nbsp; <input type="radio" value="lock" id="lock" name="choose" onclick="ButtonForTbl(this.value)"/> Lock<br/> The table html: <table class="auditable"> <thead id="audithead"> <tr><td></td></tr> </thead> <tbody id="auditTblBody"> </tbody> </table> EDIT: Full row is like that: <tr> <td align="center" id="lockCell" style="display: none;"> <input type="checkbox" onclick="" name="lock[]" value="1500" id="lock"></td> <td align="center" id="delCell" style="display: none;"> <input type="checkbox" name="del[]" value="1500"></td> <td align="center" id="comCell"> <input type="checkbox" onclick="setChecks(this)" name="com[]" value="1500" id="com"></td> <td width="65px">100% 1/1</td><td width="105px">2011-01-10 17:47:37</td> </tr> Thank you so much!

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  • asp.net mvc radio button state

    - by Josh Bush
    I'm trying out asp.net mvc for a new project, and I ran across something odd. When I use the MVC UI helpers for textboxes, the values get persisted between calls. But, when I use a series of radio buttons, the checked state doesn't get persisted. Here's an example from my view. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> When the form gets posted back, I build up an object with "ProviderType" as one of it's properties. The value on the object is getting set, and then I RedirectToAction with the provider as a argument. All is well, and I end up at a URL like "http://localhost/Provider/List?ProviderType=1" with ProviderType showing. The value gets persisted to the URL, but the UI helper isn't picking up the checked state. I'm having this problem with listbox, dropdownlist, and radiobutton. Textboxes pick up the values just fine. Do you see something I'm doing wrong? I'm assuming that the helpers will do this for me, but maybe I'll just have to take care of this on my own. I'm just feeling my way through this, so your input is appreciated. Edit: I just found the override for the SelectList constructor that takes a selected value. That took care of my dropdown issue I mentioned above. Edit #2: I found something that works, but it pains me to do it this way. I feel like this should be inferred. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType","1",Request["ProviderType"]=="1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "2", Request["ProviderType"] == "2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "3", Request["ProviderType"] == "3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> Hopefully someone will come up with another way.

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  • meteor mongodb _id changing after insert (and UUID property as well)

    - by lommaj
    I have meteor method that does an insert. Im using Regulate.js for form validation. I set the game_id field to Meteor.uuid() to create a unique value that I also route to /game_show/:game_id using iron router. As you can see I'm logging the details of the game, this works fine. (image link to log below) Meteor.methods({ create_game_form : function(data){ Regulate.create_game_form.validate(data, function (error, data) { if (error) { console.log('Server side validation failed.'); } else { console.log('Server side validation passed!'); // Save data to database or whatever... //console.log(data[0].value); var new_game = { game_id: Meteor.uuid(), name : data[0].value, game_type: data[1].value, creator_user_id: Meteor.userId(), user_name: Meteor.user().profile.name, created: new Date() }; console.log("NEW GAME BEFORE INSERT: ", new_game); GamesData.insert(new_game, function(error, new_id){ console.log("GAMES NEW MONGO ID: ", new_id) var game_data = GamesData.findOne({_id: new_id}); console.log('NEW GAME AFTER INSERT: ', game_data); Session.set('CURRENT_GAME', game_data); }); } }); } }); All of the data coming out of the console.log at this point works fine After this method call the client routes to /game_show/:game_id Meteor.call('create_game_form', data, function(error){ if(error){ return alert(error.reason); } //console.log("post insert data for routing variable " ,data); var created_game = Session.get('CURRENT_GAME'); console.log("Session Game ", created_game); Router.go('game_show', {game_id: created_game.game_id}); }); On this view, I try to load the document with the game_id I just inserted Template.game_start.helpers({ game_info: function(){ console.log(this.game_id); var game_data = GamesData.find({game_id: this.game_id}); console.log("trying to load via UUID ", game_data); return game_data; } }); sorry cant upload images... :-( https://www.evernote.com/shard/s21/sh/c07e8047-de93-4d08-9dc7-dae51668bdec/a8baf89a09e55f8902549e79f136fd45 As you can see from the image of the console log below, everything matches the id logged before insert the id logged in the insert callback using findOne() the id passed in the url However the mongo ID and the UUID I inserted ARE NOT THERE, the only document in there has all the other fields matching except those two! Not sure what im doing wrong. Thanks!

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

    - by ElMagn
    Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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  • Hidden divs for "lazy javascript" loading? Possible security/other issues?

    - by xyld
    I'm curious about people's opinion's and thoughts about this situation. The reason I'd like to lazy load javascript is because of performance. Loading javascript at the end of the body reduces the browser blocking and ends up with much faster page loads. But there is some automation I'm using to generate the html (django specifically). This automation has the convenience of allowing forms to be built with "Widgets" that output content it needs to render the entire widget (extra javascript, css, ...). The problem is that the widget wants to output javascript immediately into the middle of the document, but I want to ensure all javascript loads at the end of the body. When the following widget is added to a form, you can see it renders some <script>...</script> tags: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </script>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output What I'm proposing is that if someone uses a <div class=".lazy-js">...</div> with some css (.lazy-js { display: none; }) and some javascript (jQuery('.lazy-js').each(function(index) { eval(jQuery(this).text()); }), you can effectively force all javascript to load at the end of page load: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<div class="lazy-js"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </div>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output Nevermind all the details of my specific implementation (the specific media involved), I'm looking for a consensus on whether the method of using lazy-loaded javascript through hidden a hidden tags can pose issues whether security or other related? One of the most convenient parts about this is that it follows the DRY principle rather well IMO because you don't need to hack up a specific lazy-load for each instance in the page. It just "works". UPDATE: I'm not sure if django has the ability to queue things (via fancy template inheritance or something?) to be output just before the end of the </body>?

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  • Can't Show image in gridview using templates

    - by n10i
    i am trying to load images from the northwind database (categories table, images that are stored in the database) into grid view control. But it dosenot seems to work. Plz! have a look... Default.aspx <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="CategoryID" DataSourceID="NorthWindSQLExpressConnectionString" EnableModelValidation="True"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="CategoryID" HeaderText="CategoryID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="CategoryID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="CategoryName" HeaderText="CategoryName" SortExpression="CategoryName" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Description" HeaderText="Description" SortExpression="Description" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Picture" SortExpression="Picture"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Picture") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl='<%# RetriveImage(Eval("CategoryID")) %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="NorthWindSQLExpressConnectionString" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:NorthwindSQLExpressConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CategoryID], [CategoryName], [Description], [Picture] FROM [Categories]"> </asp:SqlDataSource> </div> </form> [Partial] Default.aspx.cs protected string RetriveImage(object eval) { return ("ImageHandler.ashx?CategoryID=" + eval.ToString()); } [Partial] ImageHandler.ashx public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { if (context.Request.QueryString == null) { } else { try { using (var sqlCon = new SqlConnection(conString)) { const string cmdString = "Select picture from Categories where CategoryID=@CategoryID"; using (var sqlCmd = new SqlCommand(cmdString, sqlCon)) { sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CategoryID", context.Request.QueryString["CategoryID"]); string trmp = sqlCmd.ToString(); sqlCon.Open(); using (var sqlDr = sqlCmd.ExecuteReader()) { sqlDr.Read(); context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])sqlDr["Picture"]); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { context.Response.Write(ex.Message); } } }

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  • C# Serialization Surrogate - Cannot access a disposed object

    - by crushhawk
    I have an image class (VisionImage) that is a black box to me. I'm attempting to serialize the image object to file using Serialization Surrogates as explained on this page. Below is my surrogate code. sealed class VisionImageSerializationSurrogate : ISerializationSurrogate { public void GetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; byte[,] temp = image.ImageToArray().U8; info.AddValue("width", image.Width); info.AddValue("height", image.Height); info.AddValue("pixelvalues", temp, temp.GetType()); } public Object SetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context, ISurrogateSelector selector) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; Int32 width = info.GetInt32("width"); Int32 height = info.GetInt32("height"); byte[,] temp = new byte[height, width]; temp = (byte[,])info.GetValue("pixelvalues", temp.GetType()); PixelValue2D tempPixels = new PixelValue2D(temp); image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); return image; } } I've stepped through it to write to binary. It seems to be working fine (file is getting bigger as the images are captured). I tried to test it read the file back in. The values read back in are correct as far as the "info" object is concerned. When I get to the line image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); It throws the "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. Upon further inspection, the object and the resulting image are both marked as disposed. My code behind the form spawns an "acquisitionWorker" and runs the following code. void acquisitionWorker_LoadImages(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // This is the main function of the acquisition background worker thread. // Perform image processing here instead of the UI thread to avoid a // sluggish or unresponsive UI. BackgroundWorker worker = (BackgroundWorker)sender; try { uint bufferNumber = 0; // Loop until we tell the thread to cancel or we get an error. When this // function completes the acquisitionWorker_RunWorkerCompleted method will // be called. while (!worker.CancellationPending) { VisionImage savedImage = (VisionImage) formatter.Deserialize(fs); CommonAlgorithms.Copy(savedImage, imageViewer.Image); // Update the UI by calling ReportProgress on the background worker. // This will call the acquisition_ProgressChanged method in the UI // thread, where it is safe to update UI elements. Do not update UI // elements directly in this thread as doing so could result in a // deadlock. worker.ReportProgress(0, bufferNumber); bufferNumber++; } } catch (ImaqException ex) { // If an error occurs and the background worker thread is not being // cancelled, then pass the exception along in the result so that // it can be handled in the acquisition_RunWorkerCompleted method. if (!worker.CancellationPending) e.Result = ex; } } What am I missing here? Why would the object be immediately disposed?

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  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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  • getting Cannot identify image file when trying to create thumbnail in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    Am trying to create a thumbnail in django, am trying to build a custom class specifically to be used for generating thumbnails. As following from StringIO import StringIO from PIL import Image class Thumbnail(object): source = '' size = (50, 50) output = '' def __init__(self): pass @staticmethod def load(src): self = Thumbnail() self.source = src return self def generate(self, size=(50, 50)): if not isinstance(size, tuple): raise Exception('Thumbnail class: The size parameter must be an instance of a tuple.') self.size = size # resize properties box = self.size factor = 1 fit = True image = Image.open(self.source) # Convert to RGB if necessary if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') while image.size[0]/factor > 2*box[0] and image.size[1]*2/factor > 2*box[1]: factor *=2 if factor > 1: image.thumbnail((image.size[0]/factor, image.size[1]/factor), Image.NEAREST) #calculate the cropping box and get the cropped part if fit: x1 = y1 = 0 x2, y2 = image.size wRatio = 1.0 * x2/box[0] hRatio = 1.0 * y2/box[1] if hRatio > wRatio: y1 = int(y2/2-box[1]*wRatio/2) y2 = int(y2/2+box[1]*wRatio/2) else: x1 = int(x2/2-box[0]*hRatio/2) x2 = int(x2/2+box[0]*hRatio/2) image = image.crop((x1,y1,x2,y2)) #Resize the image with best quality algorithm ANTI-ALIAS image.thumbnail(box, Image.ANTIALIAS) # save image to memory temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'png') temp_handle.seek(0) self.output = temp_handle return self def get_output(self): return self.output.read() the purpose of the class is so i can use it inside different locations to generate thumbnails on the fly. The class works perfectly, I've tested it directly under a view.. I've implemented the thumbnail class inside the save method of the forms to resize the original images on saving. in my design, I have two fields for thumbnails. I was able to generate one thumbnail, if I try to generate two it crashes and I've been stuck for hours not sure whats the problem. Here is my model class Image(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(Article) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) src = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/') r128 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/128/', blank=True, null=True) r200 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/200/', blank=True, null=True) uploaded_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) Here is my forms class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) file = Thumbnail.load(instance.src) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance the strange part is, when i remove the line which contains instance.r200 in the form save. It works fine, and it does the thumbnail and stores it successfully. Once I add the second thumbnail it fails.. Any ideas what am doing wrong here? Thanks Update: I tried earlier doing the following but I still got the same error class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • how to update only the updated rows in gridview?

    - by user603007
    what is the handiest way to update only the updated rows (only the checkbox column) in this gridview? what is a handy way to check wether the row was updated? c# public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<customer> listCustomer = new List<customer>(); customer cust1 = new customer(){name="fred",email="[email protected]",jobless="true"}; customer cust2 = new customer(){name="mark",email="[email protected]",jobless="false"}; listCustomer.Add(cust1); listCustomer.Add(cust2); GridView1.DataSource=listCustomer; GridView1.DataBind(); } } protected void btnUpdate_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (GridViewRow rw in GridView1.Rows) { CheckBox thiscontrol = (CheckBox)rw.Cells[0].FindControl("cb"); var ch = thiscontrol.Checked; //only update the updated rows? } } public class customer { public string name { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public string jobless { get; set; } } html <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="gridviewUpdate._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="jobless" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("jobless").ToString().Equals("true") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div>

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  • Converting a list into a select with jquery

    - by Davemof
    I'm trying to convert the following list into a select list so it can be submitted via a form - the element within the lists will become the value of each option: <ul class="selected connected-list ui-sortable" style="height: 279px;"> <li class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible" style=""></li> <li title="Owner Name 1 - " class="ui-state-default ui-element ui-draggable" style="display: block; position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px;"><span class="ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s ui-icon"></span>Owner Name 1 - <em class="thenumber">4.4796E+11</em><a class="action" href="#"><span class="ui-corner-all ui-icon ui-icon-minus"></span></a></li> <li title="David Moffat - " class="ui-state-default ui-element" style="display: block; position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px;"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s"></span>David Moffat - <em class="thenumber">07730423005</em><a class="action" href="#"><span class="ui-corner-all ui-icon ui-icon-minus"></span></a></li> </ul> This should convert to the following format: <select style="display:none" class="selectoption" name="p_num[]" multiple="multiple"> <option value="">4.4796E+11</option> <option value="">07730423007</option> </select> I have tried the following jquery code, but after many hours I'm pulling my hair out: $('a.sendform').click(function(){ $('ul.selected').each(function() { var $select = $('<select />'); $(this).find('li').each(function() { var $option = $('<option />'); $option.attr('value', $(this).('em')).html($(this).html()); $select.append($option); }); $(this).replaceWith($select); }); }); Any help might save my remaining hair. Many thanks David

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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