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  • Method interception in PHP 5.*

    - by Rolf
    Hi everybody, I'm implementing a Log system for PHP, and I'm a bit stuck. All the configuration is defined in an XML file, that declares every method to be logged. XML is well parsed and converted into a multidimensionnal array (classname = array of methods). So far, so good. Let's take a simple example: #A.php class A { public function foo($bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #B.php class B { public function far($boo) { echo $boo; } } Now, let's say I've this configuration file: <interceptor> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__A.php"> <method name="foo"> <log-level>INFO</log-level> <log-message>Transaction init</log-message> </method> </methods> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__B.php"> <method name="far"> <log-level>DEBUG</log-level> <log-message>Useless</log-message> </method> </methods> </interceptor> The thing I'd like AT RUNTIME ONLY (once the XML parser has done his job) is: #Logger.php (its definitely NOT a final version) -- generated by the XML parser class Logger { public function __call($name,$args) { $log_level = args[0]; $args = array_slice($args,1); switch($method_name) { case 'foo': case 'far': //case ..... //write in log files break; } //THEN, RELAY THE CALL TO THE INITIAL METHOD } } #"dynamic" A.php class A extends Logger { public function foo($log_level, $bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #"dynamic" B.php class B extends Logger { public function far($log_level, $boo) { echo $boo; } } The big challenge here is to transform A and B into their "dynamic" versions, once the XML parser has completed its job. The ideal would be to achieve that without modifying the code of A and B at all (I mean, in the files) - or at least find a way to come back to their original versions once the program is finished. To be clear, I wanna find the most proper way to intercept method calls in PHP. What are your ideas about it ??? Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • c++ var-arg macro, NOT template

    - by anon
    I need this to be a macro. Do not answer about templates. [This is part of a larger system that can not be represented as a template.] Is it possible to define a macro "foo" so that foo(a) --> foo1(a); foo(a, b) --> foo2(a, b); foo(a, b, c) --> foo3(a, b, c); Basically, I want this macro to expand to a different macro depending on the number of args it has. Pretty much, I want number_of_(__VA_ARGS) as a symbol. Thanks!

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  • How to get ouput from expect

    - by Mallikarjunarao
    i wrote a script for spawing the bc command package require Expect proc bc {eq} { spawn e:/GnuWin32/bc/bin/bc send "$eq\r" expect -re "(.*)\r" return "$expect_out(0,string)" } set foo "9487294387234/sqrt(394872394879847293847)" puts "the valule [bc $foo]" how to get the output from this. When i am running this one i get ouput like this bc 1.06 Copyright 1991-1994, 1997, 1998, 2000 Free Software Foundation, Inc. This is free software with ABSOLUTELY NO WARRANTY. For details type `warranty'. 9487294387234/sqrt(394872394879847293847) 477 can't read "expect_out(0,string)": no such element in array while executing "return "The values is $expect_out(0,string)"" (procedure "bc" line 6) invoked from within "bc $foo" invoked from within "puts "the valule [bc $foo]"" (file "bc.tcl" line 21) how to resolve this one.

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  • Generating unique N-valued key

    - by Bar
    Hi, StackOverflow! I want to generate unique random, N-valued key. This key can contain numbers and latin characters, i.e. A-Za-z0-9. The only solution I am thinking about is something like this (pseudocode): key = ""; smb = "ABC…abc…0123456789"; // allowed symbols for (i = 0; i < N; i++) { key += smb[rnd(0, smb.length() - 1)]; // select symbol at random position } Is there any better solution? What can you suggest? TIA, Michael.

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  • Question about member function pointers in a heirarchy

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm using a library that defines an interface: template<class desttype> void connect(desttype* pclass, void (desttype::*pmemfun)()); and I have a small heirarchy class base { void foo(); }; class derived: public base { ... }; In a member function of derived, I want to call connect(this, &derived::foo); but it seems that &derived::foo is actually a member function pointer of base; gcc spits out error: no matching function for call to ‘connect(derived* const&, void (base::* const&)())’ I can get around this by explicitly casting this to base *; but why can't the compiler match the call with desttype = base (since derived * can be implicitly cast to base *)? Also, why is &derived::foo not a member function pointer of derived?

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  • ASP.NET Call Another Element's DoPostBack Function

    - by blu
    I have an ASP.NET control that has an onclick event handler rendered inline on the element. I would like to call that function and have it raise the target control's server side event handler. <asp:CheckBox ID="Foo" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" Text="Foo" /> <a href="#" onclick="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'Foo\',\'\')', 0)">Test </a> I created the checkbox, looked at the rendered function on the field, and then copied that into the onclick on the anchor element. The anchor will raise a postback, but the event handler for the check box is not raised. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { // fires for checkbox // fires for anchor (the anchor does cause a postback) } void Foo_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // fires for checkbox // does not fire for anchor } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { this.Foo.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(Foo_CheckedChanged); } Is it possible to do this?

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  • Assigning a default value to a final variable in case of an exception in Java

    - by frenetisch applaudierend
    Why won't Java let me assign a value to a final variable in a catch block after setting the value in the try block, even if it is not possible for the final value to be written in case of an exception. Here is an example that demonstrates the problem: public class FooBar { private final int foo; private FooBar() { try { int x = bla(); foo = x; // In case of an exception this line is never reached } catch (Exception ex) { foo = 0; // But the compiler complains // that foo might have been initialized } } private int bla() { // You can use any of the lines below, neither works // throw new RuntimeException(); return 0; } } The problem is not hard to work around, but I would like to understand why the compiler does not accept this. Thanks in advance for any inputs!

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  • sometime SetCookie() not working

    - by Nano HE
    Hi I created two file to switch my forum (Language Chinese and English) enForum.php <?php function foo() { global $_COOKIES; setcookie('ForumLangCookie', 'en', time()+3600, '/', '.mysite.com'); echo 'running<br>'; $_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie'] = 'en'; bar(); } // foo() function bar() { global $_COOKIES; if (empty($_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie'])) { die('cookie_name is empty'); } echo 'Language =' . $_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie']; echo "<br>"; } // bar() foo(); ?> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>forum EN Version</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> </head> <body> please be patient ... <script LANGUAGE='javascript'> location.href='http://www.mysite.com/forum/index.php'; </script> </body> </html> cnForum.php <?php function foo() { global $_COOKIES; setcookie('ForumLangCookie', 'cn', time()+3600, '/', '.mysite.com'); echo 'running<br>'; $_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie'] = 'cn'; bar(); } // foo() function bar() { global $_COOKIES; if (empty($_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie'])) { die('cookie_name is empty'); } echo 'Language =' . $_COOKIES['ForumLangCookie']; echo "<br>"; } // bar() foo(); ?> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>forum CN Version</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> </head> <body> please be patient ... <script LANGUAGE='javascript'> location.href='http://www.mysite.com/forum/index.php'; </script> </body> </html> There are some files including include template('foo'); , I will get the Cookie value and load different template files. But sometime the SetCookie() not working. Do I need add Sleep(someSeconds); for my code?

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  • Allow single-line accessor (getter/setter) syntax with Checkstyle

    - by Sam3
    We'd like to have trivial Java property accessors using a single line syntax, so they take up much much less space, and are more readable (in terms of 'seeing' the set of accessors quickly). But we do want to enforce multi-line method syntax for everything else in our checkstyle configuration. But I'm not sure how to make this exception for accessors in Checkstyle config and suspect it may not be possible. So we'd like our accessors to look something like this: public String getFoo() { return foo; } public void setFoo(String foo) { this.foo = foo; } [In fact we'd rather not have trivial accessors at all and instead just annotate the private member variables with @Property or something and have the accessors generated for us, since writing endless get and set code delivers no real benefit, but that's a general Java frustration and an aside as far as this question goes.]

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  • selectors-api for data attributes

    - by MJ
    In HTML5, CSS selectors seem to operate well with data-* attributes. For example: <style> div[data-foo='bar'] { background:#eee; } </style> <div data-foo='bar'>colored</div> <div>not colored</div> will properly style the first . But, attempts to select such elements using the selectors-api fail. Examples: var foos = document.querySelectorAll("div[data-foo]='bar'"); or var foos = document.querySelectorAll("div data-foo='bar'"); in Chrome and Safari, this produces a cryptic error: SYNTAX_ERR: DOM Exception 12 Any thoughts on how to use the selectors-api to properly select elements on the basis of data-* attributes?

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  • Is there a Post-Build Extensible Installer System

    - by Will Hughes
    We have a product that we need to create an installer for. It has a number of components which can be installed or not as the situation demands. When we ship our installation package, we want to be able to have that include any number of additional components to be installed. For example, Foo Manager Pro contains: Foo Manager Console Foo Manager Database Foo Manager Services That might be shipped as something like: FooManagerInstaller.exe FMPConsole.pkg FMPDatabase.pkg FMPServices.pkg A package might consist of something like: Manifest Files to be deployed Additional scripts to be executed (eg find file foo.config, do some XML Manipulation) If a client wants to add custom skins and a series of plugins as part of the install, they create their own packages: FMPConsoleSkins.pkg ClientWebservices.pkg If that client then ships it to someone else who wants to add more customisation - they can do so in the same way. We can build this from scratch - but wanted to check if this sort of install system already exists. We already have a set of NAnt scripts which do something not too far from this. But they're difficult to maintain, and quite complex. They don't offer any of the 'niceties' that we'd expect from an installer (like tracking deployed files and removing them if the install fails). We've been looking a little bit at NSIS and building MSIs using WiX, but it's not clear that these can offer us the capability for downstream to provide additional packages, without inventing our own installer language.

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  • Pycassa | Python

    - by MMRUser
    Is anyone having experience working with pycassa I have a doubt with it. How do I get all the keys that are stored in the database? well in this small snippet we need to give the keys in order to get the associated columns (here the keys are 'foo' and 'bar'),that is fine but my requirement is to get all the keys (only keys) at once as Python list or similar data structure. cf.multiget(['foo', 'bar']) {'foo': {'column1': 'val2'}, 'bar': {'column1': 'val3', 'column2': 'val4'}} Thanks.

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  • Unable to load dump files in Windows Server 2008

    - by foo
    I've got a managed process (x86) running on a Win Server 2008 (x64). When i'm talking a dump of the process via the task manager ("Create dump file"), i use correctly SOS on win dbg (it complains about symbols and such even though i have all of the debugging symbols installed). If i'll create the dump using procdump.exe [SysInternals], or via WinDBG [.dump -ma], i can open the dump file and use SOS without any problems ...what's the deal with task manager's "create dump file" option?

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  • forward declare static function c++

    - by Matthew Scouten
    I want to forward declare a static member function of a class in another file. What I WANT to do looks like this: BigMassiveHeader.h: class foo { static void init_foos(); } Main.cpp: class foo; void init_foos(); int main(char** argv, int argc) { foo::init_foos() } This fails out with "error C2027: use of undefined type 'tt_py_ns::foo'" Is there a way to accomplish what I want to do with out making init_foos a free function, or including BigMassiveHeader.h? (BigMassiveHeader.h is noticeably effecting compile time, and is included everywhere.)

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  • Regular expression either/or not matching everything

    - by dwatransit
    I'm trying to parse an HTTP GET request to determine if the url contains any of a number of file types. If it does, I want to capture the entire request. There is something I don't understand about ORing. The following regular expression only captures part of it, and only if .flv is the first int the list of ORd values. (I've obscured the urls with spaces because Stackoverflow limits hyperlinks) regex: GET.?(.flv)|(.mp4)|(.avi).? test text: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy match output: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv I don't understand why the .*? at the end of the regex isnt callowing it to capture the entire text. If I get rid of the ORing of file types, then it works. Here is the test code in case my explanation doesn't make sense: public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub String sourcestring = "GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy"; Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?\.flv."); // this works //output: // [0][0] = GET http :// foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy // the match from the following ends with the ".flv", not the entire url. // also it only works if .flv is the first of the 3 ORd options //Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?(\.flv)|(\.mp4)|(\.avi).?"); // output: //[0][0] = GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv // [0][1] = .flv // [0][2] = null // [0][3] = null Matcher m = re.matcher(sourcestring); int mIdx = 0; while (m.find()){ for( int groupIdx = 0; groupIdx < m.groupCount()+1; groupIdx++ ){ System.out.println( "[" + mIdx + "][" + groupIdx + "] = " + m.group(groupIdx)); } mIdx++; } } }

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  • Equivalent of LaTeX's \label and \ref in HTML.

    - by dreeves
    I have an FAQ in HTML (example) in which the questions refer to each other a lot. That means whenever we insert/delete/rearrange the questions, the numbering changes. LaTeX solves this very elegantly with \label and \ref -- you give items simple tags and LaTeX worries about converting to numbers in the final document. How do people deal with that in HTML? ADDED: Note that this is no problem if you don't have to actually refer to items by number, in which case you can set a tag with <a name="foo"> and then link to it with <a href="#foo">some non-numerical way to refer to foo</a>. But I'm assuming "foo" has some auto-generated number, say from an <ol> list, and I want to use that number to refer to and link to it.

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  • Get the selected option id with jQuery

    - by Itamar Bar-Lev
    Hi, I'm trying to use jQuery to make an ajax request based on a selected option. Is there a simple way to retrieve the selected option id (e.g. "id2") using jQuery? <select id="my_select"> <option value="o1" id="id1">Option1</option> <option value="o2" id="id2">Option2</option> </select> $("#my_select").change(function() { //do something with the id of the selected option });

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  • Using map/reduce for mapping the properties in a collection

    - by And
    Update: follow-up to MongoDB Get names of all keys in collection. As pointed out by Kristina, one can use Mongodb 's map/reduce to list the keys in a collection: db.things.insert( { type : ['dog', 'cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { egg : ['cat'] } ); db.things.insert( { type : [] }); db.things.insert( { hello : [] } ); mr = db.runCommand({"mapreduce" : "things", "map" : function() { for (var key in this) { emit(key, null); } }, "reduce" : function(key, stuff) { return null; }}) db[mr.result].distinct("_id") //output: [ "_id", "egg", "hello", "type" ] As long as we want to get only the keys located at the first level of depth, this works fine. However, it will fail retrieving those keys that are located at deeper levels. If we add a new record: db.things.insert({foo: {bar: {baaar: true}}}) And we run again the map-reduce +distinct snippet above, we will get: [ "_id", "egg", "foo", "hello", "type" ] But we will not get the bar and the baaar keys, which are nested down in the data structure. The question is: how do I retrieve all keys, no matter their level of depth? Ideally, I would actually like the script to walk down to all level of depth, producing an output such as: ["_id","egg","foo","foo.bar","foo.bar.baaar","hello","type"] Thank you in advance!

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  • How to override the behavior of Spring @Autowired

    - by Mark
    Hi a little background: I am Using Spring 2.5, and specifically spring IOC and annotations. I am using @Autowired in my code (the Autowiring is done by type) and use @Component for exposing Classes to the Automatic wiring. The situation described bellow arose while i tried to test my code. now to the problem: Note: i use a different Spring Context for the Test environment. I have a class FOO which is @Autowired but in the test context i want to use a different class of the same type MockFoo (extends FOO) The Spring Setup of course fails do so automatically due to multiple options for the Dependency Injection of the FOO class (both FOO and MockFOO comply to the Type check) I am looking for a way to inject the test bean instead of the original bean. I expected Spring to allow using the Context configurion file to override a bean injection or to order Spring not to autowire a specific bean BUT All these option seem to exists only for the beans which were originally defined in the Spring Context Configuration file

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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • Write to static field - is FindBugs wrong in this case?

    - by htorque
    I have a Java class like this: public class Foo { public static int counter = 0; public void bar(int counter) { Foo.counter = counter; } } FindBugs warns me about writing to the static field counter via the instance method bar. However, if I change the code to: public class Foo { public static int counter = 0; public static void setCounter(int counter) { Foo.counter = counter; } public void bar(int counter) { setCounter(counter); } } Then FindBugs won't complain. Isn't that wrong? I'm still writing to a static field from an instance method, just via a static method - no?

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  • Using multiple aggregate functions in an algebraic expression in (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have the following aggregate functions (AGG FUNCs): foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats(). I want to know if I can use multiple AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression. This may seem a strange/simplistic question for seasoned SQL developers - however, the but the reason I ask is that so far, all AGG FUNCs examples I have seen are of the simplistic variety e.g. max(salary) < 100, rather than using the AGG FUNCs in an expression which involves using multiple AGG FUNCs in an expression (like agg_func1() agg_func2()). The information below should help clarify further. Given tables with the following schemas: CREATE TABLE item (id int, length float, weight float); CREATE TABLE item_info (item_id, name varchar(32)); # Is it legal (ANSI) SQL to write queries of this format ? SELECT id, name, foo, foobar, fredstats FROM A, B (SELECT id, foo(123) as foo, foobar('red') as foobar, fredstats('weight') as fredstats FROM item GROUP BY id HAVING [ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION] ORDER BY id AS A), item_info AS B WHERE item.id = B.id Where: ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION is the type of expression that can be used in a WHERE clause - for example: ((foo(x) < foobar(y)) AND foobar(y) IN (1,2,3)) OR (fredstats(x) <> 0)) I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible. Assuming it is legal to include AGG FUNCS in the way I have done above, I'd like to know: Is there a more efficient way to write the above query ? Is there any way I can speed up the query in terms of a judicious choice of indexes on the tables item and item_info ? Is there a performance hit of using AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression like I am (i.e. an expression involving the output of aggregate functions rather than constants? Can the expression also include 'scaled' AGG FUNC? (for example: 2*foo(123) < -3*foobar(456) ) - will scaling (i.e. multiplying an AGG FUNC by a number have an effect on performance?) How can I write the query above using INNER JOINS instead?

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