Search Results

Search found 2886 results on 116 pages for 'behaviour'.

Page 99/116 | < Previous Page | 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106  | Next Page >

  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

    Read the article

  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

    Read the article

  • jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

    - by calumbrodie
    I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Orientation issue while presenting Modal ViewController

    - by Jacky Boy
    Current scenario: Right now I am showing a UIViewController using a segue with the style Modal and presentation Sheet. This Modal gets its superview bounds change, in order to have the dimensions I want, like this: - (void)viewWillLayoutSubviews { [super viewWillLayoutSubviews]; self.view.superview.bounds = WHBoundsRect; } The only allowed orientations are UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft and UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight. Since the Modal has some TextFields and the keyboard would be over the Modal itself, I am changing its center so it moves a bit to the top. The problem: What I am noticing right now, is that I am unable to work with the Y coordinate. In order for it move vertically (remember it's on landscape) I need to work with the X. The problem is that when it's UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft I need to come with a negative X. And when it's UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight I need to come with a positive X. So it seems that the X/Y Coordinate System is "glued" to the top left corner while in Portrait and when an orientation occurs, it's still there: What I have done So I have something like this: UIInterfaceOrientation orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; NSInteger newX = 0.0f; if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft) { // Logic for calculating the negative X. } else { // Logic for calculating the positive X. } It works exactly like I want, but it seems a very fragile implementation. Am I missing something? Is this the expected behaviour?

    Read the article

  • What features are heavily used in C# 2.0, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how to workaround?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I don't want a war between VBNET and C# developpers, neither is my goal to open a C# VS VBNET confrontation. I would like you all to list a feature that is heavily used in C#, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how would you work around to achieve a similar behaviour or purpose? For example: C# Accepts void (return) lambda expressions. Here's an example with FNH mapping: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); This is impossible to do before VBNET 4.0 (supposed to be doable in VBNET 4.0) VBNET Must write a helping method (Sub), and provide the AddressOf this method in order to workaround. Private Sub Helper(ByVal m As MType) m.Map(Function(x) x.Number) m.Map(Function(x) x.Street) m.Map(Function(x) x.PostCode) End Sub ... Component(Function(x) x.Address, AddressOf Helper) Now I know, it is not VBNET 2.0, but this is an example. VBNET 3.0 and 3.5 can used too. Please just mention what version of VBNET this refers to.

    Read the article

  • 'C++ object destroyed' in QComboBox descendant editor in delegate

    - by Max
    Hi, all! I have modified combobox to hold colors, using QtColorCombo (http://qt.nokia.com/products/appdev/add-on-products/catalog/4/Widgets/qtcolorcombobox) as howto for the 'more...' button implementation details. It works fine in C++ and in PyQt on linux, but I get 'underlying C++ object was destroyed' when use this control in PyQt on Windows. It seels like the error happens when: ... # in constructor: self.activated.connect(self._emitActivatedColor) ... def _emitActivatedColor(self, index): if self._colorDialogEnabled and index == self.colorCount(): print '!!!!!!!!! QtGui.QColorDialog.getColor()' c = QtGui.QColorDialog.getColor() # <----- :( delegate fires 'closeEditor' print '!!!!!!!!! ' + c.name() if c.isValid(): self._numUserColors += 1 #at the next line currentColor() tries to access C++ layer and fails self.addColor(c, self.currentColor().name()) self.setCurrentIndex(index) ... Maybe console output will help. I've overridden event() in editor and got: ... MouseButtonRelease FocusOut Leave Paint Enter Leave FocusIn !!!!!!!!! QtGui.QColorDialog.getColor() WindowBlocked Paint WindowDeactivate !!!!!!!!! 'CloseEditor' fires! Hide HideToParent FocusOut DeferredDelete !!!!!!!!! #6e6eff ... Can someone explain, why there is such a different behaviour in the different environments, and maybe give a workaround to fix this. Here is minimal example: http://docs.google.com/Doc?docid=0Aa0otNVdbWrrZDdxYnF3NV80Y20yam1nZHM&hl=en

    Read the article

  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

    Read the article

  • GUI blocked while running silent app VC++

    - by deb
    Hi, I have built a GUI interface in C++ (Windows XP, visual c++ 2008). There you can configure some parameters and when I click on the OK button, a silent application is launched (and uses the values setted). When I do this, the GUI frozes and even dissappears if you switch to other windows(it's still there, but you can only see a white space), when the other application's finished the GUI works again. This is the correct behaviour, I don't want the user to be able to edit the fields... but it's a bit ugly when you can't see the GUI. Does anybody know an easy way of being able to switch to other windows and being able to see the the GUI when you switch back? Thanks in advance Edited: Hi, I tried doing this, but the problem is that to run the apps in background I had a function that uses CreateProcess. So both ways the GUI gets frozen: if I create a Thread that creates the process and if I creathe the process directly. Then I wait for the process to finish: if (!CreateProcess( NULL, Args, NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &StartupInfo, &ProcessInfo)) { return GetLastError(); } WaitForSingleObject(ProcessInfo.hProcess, INFINITE); if(!GetExitCodeProcess(ProcessInfo.hProcess, &rc)) rc = 0; Any idea?

    Read the article

  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

    Read the article

  • Focus-dependent text change for TextBoxes in WPF

    - by Simon
    Hey there. I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM-pattern and will really often use TextBoxes. I don't want to use labels for the user to know user what the text box is for, i.e. I don't want something like this: <TextBlock> Name: </TextBlock> <TextBox /> Instead, I would like the TextBox to contain its own label. Statically, you would express it like this: <TextBox>Name</TextBox> If the cursor is displayed in the textbox, i.e. the TextBox gains focus, I want the description text to disappear. If the TextBox is left empty and it loses the focus, the description text should be shown again. It's similar to the search textbox of StackOverflow or the one of Firefox. (please tell me if your not sure what I mean). One TextBox's label may change at runtime, dependending on e.g. a ComboBox's selected element or a value in my ViewModel. (It's like in Firefox's search TextBox, if you select google from the search engins' menu, the TextBox's label changes to "Google", if you select "Yahoo" its set to "Yahoo"). Thus I want to be able to bind the label's content. Consider that I may already have a Binding on the Text-Property of the TextBox. How can implement such a behaviour and make it reusable for any of my TextBox's? Code is welcome but not needed; a description of what to do is enough. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

    - by Peter
    I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

    Read the article

  • How to filter node list based on the contents of another node list

    - by ~otakuj462
    Hi, I'd like to use XSLT to filter a node list based on the contents of another node list. Specifically, I'd like to filter a node list such that elements with identical id attributes are eliminated from the resulting node list. Priority should be given to one of the two node lists. The way I originally imagined implementing this was to do something like this: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1" select="$list1[not($list2[@id_from_list1 = @id_from_list2])]"/> The problem is that the context node changes in the predicate for $list2, so I don't have access to attribute @id_from_list1. Due to these scoping constraints, it's not clear to me how I would be able to refer to an attribute from the outer node list using nested predicates in this fashion. To get around the issue of the context node, I've tried to create a solution involving a for-each loop, like the following: <xsl:variable name="filteredList1"> <xsl:for-each select="$list1"> <xsl:variable name="id_from_list1" select="@id_from_list1"/> <xsl:if test="not($list2[@id_from_list2 = $id_from_list1])"> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:variable> But this doesn't work correctly. It's also not clear to me how it fails... Using the above technique, filteredList1 has a length of 1, but appears to be empty. It's strange behaviour, and anyhow, I feel there must be a more elegant approach. I'd appreciate any guidance anyone can offer. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I stop the browser viewport moving to the top of the page when the user clicks on a jQueryUI radio button?

    - by ben
    I have got some radio buttons setup like this: <div id="typeRadios"> <input id="note_notetype_note1" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note1" /><label for="note_notetype_note1">note1</label> <input id="note_notetype_note2" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note2" /><label for="note_notetype_note2">note2</label> </div> That I turn into jQueryUI buttons like this: $("#typeRadios").buttonset(); This is the resulting HTML: <input type="radio" value="note1" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note1" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note1" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note1</span></label> <input type="radio" value="note2" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note2" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note2" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note2</span></label> The buttons work, but whenever I click one, the browser view-port gets returned to the top of the page, the same way it happens when you click on a <a href="#">link</a> link. I am using jQuery 1.4.2 and jQueryUI 1.8.7. How can I prevent this behaviour? Thanks for reading. EDIT: The <a href="#">link</a> part was missing.

    Read the article

  • CSS3PIE issues in IE6 and 8

    - by Gordon
    I'm using CSS3PIE to apply some rounded corners to elements in Internet Explorer that will get them by stylesheet in other browsers. I've run into some issues with it though. In IE8, I discovered that any element that had the PIE behaviour would behave strangely. The container would jump a few pixels to the right, but the content would stay in its original position, giving the appearance that the content had all shifted left relative to its container. This would be especially problematic on elements with no or small amounts of padding. I was able to hack my way around the problem in IE8 by using X-UA-Compatible, but I'd rather avoid this solution if at all possible. I don't have access to IE9 for testing but my understanding hacks like PIE aren't necessary and it would be wasteful to force a compatibility mode in a browser that doesn't need it. I have worse issues in IE6, with the PIE layout breaking down completely on a list that is set up to use display:inline; zoom:1; list items (to simulate inline-block, which works in IE8 and the other browsers). Here the borders of the list items get rendered in completely the wrong place. So ideally, I'd like to have PIE work properly in IE6, and in IE8 without having to resort to compatibility mode. As far as IE6 goes, a graceful fallback where PIE is just not applied will do. IE7 is the only browser where the page displays as intended. I can't provide an example page just at the moment unfortunately, I can add one later though. Follow up: Here are some screen grabs made with IE Tester. I'm hoping they will make things a little more clear for everybody. As you can see, IE7 is fine. However, in IE8, the containers are offset to the left relative to their content, and in IE6 the list elements (with the rounded 1 pixel border) are a complete mess! Full size versions for IE8, IE7 and IE6 are also available

    Read the article

  • Can isdigit legitimately be locale dependent in C

    - by cdev
    In the section covering setlocale, the ANSI C standard states in a footnote that the only ctype.h functions whose behaviour is not affected by the current locale are isdigit and isxdigit. The Microsoft implementation of isdigit is locale dependent because, for example, in locales using code page 1250 isdigit only returns non-zero for characters in the range 0x30 ('0') - 0x39 ('9'), whereas in locales using code page 1252 isdigit also returns non-zero for the superscript digits 0xB2 ('²'), 0xB3 ('³') and 0xB9 ('¹'). Is Microsoft in violation of the C standard by making isdigit locale dependent? In this question I am primarily interested in C90, which Microsoft claims to conform to, rather than C99. Additional background: Microsoft's own documentation of setlocale incorrectly states that isdigit is unaffected by the LC_CTYPE part of the locale. The section of the C standard that covers the ctype.h functions contains some wording that I consider ambiguous: "The behavior of these functions is affected by the current locale. Those functions that have locale-specific aspects only when not in the "C" locale are noted below." I consider this ambiguous because it is unclear what it is trying to say about functions such as isdigit for which there are no notes about locale-specific aspects. It might be trying to say that such functions must be assumed to be locale dependent, in which case Microsoft's implementation of isdigit would be OK. (Except that the footnote I mentioned earlier seems to contradict this interpretation.)

    Read the article

  • IIS doesn't send two responses to the same client at the same time (only for ASP)

    - by dr. evil
    I've got 2 ASP pages. I do a request to the first page from Firefox (which takes 30 seconds to process on server-side), and during the execution of 30 seconds I do another request from Firefox to the second page (takes less than 1 second in server-side), but it does come after 31 second. Because it waits first requests to finish. When I request to the first page from Firefox and then request the second page from IE it's just instant. So basically ASP - IIS 6 somehow limiting every client to one request (long processing request) at a time. I need to get around this problem in my .NET client application. This is tested in 3 different systems. If you want to test you can try the ASP scripts at the end. This behaviour is same in a long SQL execution or just in a time consuming ASP operation. Note: It's not about HTTP Keep Alive It's not about persistent connection limit (we tried to increase this in firefox and in .NET with Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit) It's not about User Agent This doesn't happen in ASP.NET so I assume it's something to the with ASP.dll I'm trying to solve this on the client not the server. I don't have direct control over the server it's a 3rd party solution. Is there any way to get around this? Sample ASP Code: First ASP: <% Set cnn = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Connection") cnn.Open "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=master;User Id=sa;Password=;" cnn.Execute("WAITFOR DELAY '0:0:30'") cnn.Close %> Second ASP: <% Response.Write "bla bla" %>

    Read the article

  • Add a value to an element in a list of sets

    - by Kapelson
    Hello. I'm using python, and I have a list of sets, constructed like this: list = [set([])]*n ...where n is the number of sets I want in the list. I want to add a value to a specific set in the list. Say, the second set. I tried list[1].add(value) But this instead adds the value to each set in the list. This behaviour is pretty non-intuitive to me. Through further tests, I think I've found the problem: the list apparently contains 10 instances of the same set, or ten pointers to the same set, or something. Constructing the list through repeated calls of list.append(set([])) allowed me to use the syntax above to add elements to single sets. So my question is this: what exactly is going on in my first list-construction technique? It is clear I don't understand the syntax so well. Also, is there a better way to intialize an n-element list? I've been using this syntax for a while and this is my first problem with it.

    Read the article

  • Dereferencing the null pointer

    - by zilgo
    The standard says that dereferencing the null pointer leads to undefined behaviour. But what is "the null pointer"? In the following code, what we call "the null pointer": struct X { static X* get() { return reinterpret_cast<X*>(1); } void f() { } }; int main() { X* x = 0; (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (1) x = X::get(); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (2) x = reinterpret_cast<X*>( X::get() - X::get() ); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (3) (*(X*)0).f(); // I think that this the only null pointer here (4) } My thought is that dereferencing of the null pointer takes place only in the last case. Am I right? Is there difference between compile time null pointers and runtime according to C++ Standard?

    Read the article

  • Strange Effect with Overridden Properties and Reflection

    - by naacal
    I've come across a strange behaviour in .NET/Reflection and cannot find any solution/explanation for this: Class A { public string TestString { get; set; } } Class B : A { public override string TestString { get { return "x"; } } } Since properties are just pairs of functions (get_PropName(), set_PropName()) overriding only the "get" part should leave the "set" part as it is in the base class. And this is just what happens if you try to instanciate class B and assign a value to TestString, it uses the implementation of class A. But what happens if I look at the instantiated object of class B in reflection is this: PropertyInfo propInfo = b.GetType().GetProperty("TestString"); propInfo.CanRead ---> true propInfo.CanWrite ---> false(!) And if I try to invoke the setter from reflection with: propInfo.SetValue("test", b, null); I'll even get an ArgumentException with the following message: Property set method not found. Is this as expected? Because I don't seem to find a combination of BindingFlags for the GetProperty() method that returns me the property with a working get/set pair from reflection.

    Read the article

  • OOP design issue: Polymorphism

    - by Graham Phillips
    I'm trying to solve a design issue using inheritance based polymorphism and dynamic binding. I have an abstract superclass and two subclasses. The superclass contains common behaviour. SubClassA and SubClassB define some different methods: SubClassA defines a method performTransform(), but SubClassB does not. So the following example 1 var v:SuperClass; 2 var b:SubClassB = new SubClassB(); 3 v = b; 4 v.performTransform(); would cause a compile error on line 4 as performTransform() is not defined in the superclass. We can get it to compile by casting... (v as SubClassA).performTransform(); however, this will cause a runtime exception to be thrown as v is actually an instance of SubClassB, which also does not define performTransform() So we can get around that by testing the type of an object before casting it: if( typeof v == SubClassA) { (cast v to SubClassA).performTransform(); } That will ensure that we only call performTransform() on v's that are instances of SubClassA. That's a pretty inelegant solution to my eyes, but at least its safe. I have used interface based polymorphism (interface meaning a type that can't be instantiated and defines the API of classes that implement it) in the past, but that also feels clunky. For the above case, if SubClassA and SubClassB implemented ISuperClass that defined performTransform, then they would both have to implement performTransform(). If SubClassB had no real need for a performTransform() you would have to implement an empty function. There must be a design pattern out there that addresses the issue.

    Read the article

  • Issue scrolling table view with content inset

    - by Rog
    Hi all, I am experiencing a weird scrolling issue and I was hoping someone could give me a hand in trying to identify why this is happening. I have included the part of my code that I think is relevant to the question but am happy to update this post with whatever else is needed. I have implemented a pull to refresh view in the tableview's content inset area. The refresh fires an Async NSURLConnection that pulls data from a webserver, parses the relevant information and refreshes the table as required. This is where the refresh process kicks off: - (void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate{ if (scrollView.contentOffset.y <= - 65.0f && !self.reloading) { self.reloading = YES; [self reloadTableViewDataSource]; [refreshHeaderView setState:EGOOPullRefreshLoading]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(60.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Problem is if I start to scroll whilst the content inset is "visible" (i.e. during reload) I get this weird behaviour where my table sections do not scroll all the way to the top - see screenshot for a clear visual of what I am trying to describe here. I have included a couple of screenshots below that clearly identify what is happening at the moment. Has anyone experienced this before? Any ideas on what I should be looking at to try and fix it? Many thanks in advance, Rog And this is the result if I start scrolling the table. The orange bit at the top of the image is the actual navigation bar, where I would expect the table section (date 1 December 2010) to be.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106  | Next Page >