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  • Calling "Base-Getter" in Overriding Getter of Property

    - by scherand
    I have a base class "Parent" like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Parent { private int parentVirtualInt = -1; public virtual int VirtualProperty { get { return parentVirtualInt; } set { if(parentVirtualInt != value) { parentVirtualInt = value; } } } } } and a child class like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Child : Parent { public override int VirtualProperty { get { if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) { throw new ApplicationException("Dummy Ex"); } return base.VirtualProperty; } set { if(base.VirtualProperty != value) { base.VirtualProperty = value; } } } } } Note that the getter in Child is calling the getter of Parent (or at least this is what I intend). I now use the "Child" class by instantiating it, assigning a value (let's say 4) to its VirtualProperty and then reading the property again. Child c = new Child(); c.VirtualProperty = 4; Console.Out.WriteLine("Child.VirtualProperty: " + c.VirtualProperty); When I run this, I obviously get an ApplicationException saying "Dummy Ex". But if I set a breakpoint on the line if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) in Child and check the value of base.VirtualProperty (by hovering the mouse over it) before the exception can be thrown (I assume(d)), I already get the Exception. From this I convey that the statement base.VirtualProperty in the "Child-Getter calls itself"; kind of. What I would like to achieve is the same behavior I get when I change the definition of parentVirutalInt (in Parent) to protected and use base.parentVirtualInt in the Getter of Child instead of base.VirtualProperty. And I don't yet see why this is not working. Can anybody shed some light on this? I feel that overridden properties behave differently than overridden methods? By the way: I am doing something very similar with subclassing a class I do not have any control over (this is the main reason why my "workaround" is not an option). Kind regards

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  • SQL Server Clustered Index: (Physical) Data Page Order

    - by scherand
    I am struggling understanding what a clustered index in SQL Server 2005 is. I read the MSDN article Clustered Index Structures (among other things) but I am still unsure if I understand it correctly. The (main) question is: what happens if I insert a row (with a "low" key) into a table with a clustered index? The above mentioned MSDN article states: The pages in the data chain and the rows in them are ordered on the value of the clustered index key. And Using Clustered Indexes for example states: For example, if a record is added to the table that is close to the beginning of the sequentially ordered list, any records in the table after that record will need to shift to allow the record to be inserted. Does this mean that if I insert a row with a very "low" key into a table that already contains a gazillion rows literally all rows are physically shifted on disk? I cannot believe that. This would take ages, no? Or is it rather (as I suspect) that there are two scenarios depending on how "full" the first data page is. A) If the page has enough free space to accommodate the record it is placed into the existing data page and data might be (physically) reordered within that page. B) If the page does not have enough free space for the record a new data page would be created (anywhere on the disk!) and "linked" to the front of the leaf level of the B-Tree? This would then mean the "physical order" of the data is restricted to the "page level" (i.e. within a data page) but not to the pages residing on consecutive blocks on the physical hard drive. The data pages are then just linked together in the correct order. Or formulated in an alternative way: if SQL Server needs to read the first N rows of a table that has a clustered index it can read data pages sequentially (following the links) but these pages are not (necessarily) block wise in sequence on disk (so the disk head has to move "randomly"). How close am I? :)

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  • Where does IE store the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie?

    - by scherand
    I am a bit baffled here; using IE7, ASP.NET 2.0 and Cassini (the VS built-in web server; although the same thing seems to be true for "real" applications deployed in IIS) I am looking for the session-id-cookie. My test page shows a session id (by printing out Session.SessionId) and Response.Cookies.Keys contains ASP.NET_SessionId. So far so good. But I cannot find the cookie in IEs cookie-store! Nor does "remove all cookies" reset the session (as it does in FF)... So where - I am tempted to write that four letter word - does IE store that bloody cookie? Or am I missing something? By the way there is no hidden field with a session id either, as far as I can see. If I check in FF there is a cookie called ASP.NET_SessionId as I would expect. And as mentioned above deleting that cookie does start a new session; as I would expect. Can anybody imagine what is happening here?

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