Is it necessary that each machine code can only map to one assembly code?

Posted by Mask on Stack Overflow See other posts from Stack Overflow or by Mask
Published on 2010-04-07T01:25:29Z Indexed on 2010/04/07 1:33 UTC
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assembly

|

machine-code

Suppose these two are essensially the same:

push 1

and

0x1231

Which says each assembly instruction maps to a machine code.

But is it necessary that each machine code can only map to one assembly code?

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