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• Attaching an event to an Iframe that contains more iframes

  - by Oscar Godson

  I have an editor which is in my window that contains a wrapping iframe and then 2 more iframes inside like (the HTML inside the <iframe> element is inserted via write() in JS, not hardcoded like this): <iframe class="parent"> <div class="wrapper"> <iframe class="editor"></iframe> <iframe class="previewer"></iframe> </div> </iframe> One is an editor, the other is a previewer. The first one that contains the two (we'll call this the parent) has an eventListener for mousemove attached to it, but nothing is firing. If i add a 5px border for example, the event will fire when I move my mouse on the border of the parent, but not when i hover over the middle which contains the editor or previewer (previewer is display:none while the editor is visible, and vice versa). So, the blue area in the following i can mousemove, but the rest I can't. It's most likely because of the stacking order, but how can I attach an event to fire on the entire frame? I need mousemove because on mousemove I display a menu in the bottom right. I want the same menu to display whether or not the editor or the previewer is visible.

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• Relative Paths in .htaccess, how to attach to a variable?

  - by devians

  I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome.

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• Uncrackable anti-piracy protection/DRM even possible? [closed]

  - by some guy

  I hope that this is programming-related enough. You have probably heard about Ubisofts recent steps against piracy. (New DRM requires a constant connection to the Ubisoft server) Many people including me see this as intolerable because the only ones suffering from it at the end are the paying customers. Now to the actual question(s): Ubisoft justified this by calling this mechanism "Uncrackable, only playable by the paying customers". Is a so called uncrackable DRM even possible? You can reverse-engineer and modify everything, even if it takes long. Isn't Ubisoft already lying by calling something not crackable? I mean, hey - With the game you get all its content (textures, models, you know) and some anti-piracy mechanism hardcoded into it. How could that be "uncrackable"? You can just patch the unwanted mechanisms out ---- "Pirates" play the cracked game without problems and the paying customers are the idiots by having constant problems with the game and being unable to play it without a (working) internet connection. What are the points Ubisoft sees in this? If they are at least a bit intelligent and informed they know their anti-piracy protection won't last long. All they get is lower sales, angry customers and happy pirates and crackers.

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• JQuery set img src depending on where you click

  - by Anna

  Hello ! I used javascript for loading a picture on my website depending on which "small" photos in ul you clicked... I had something like that : <script type="text/javascript"> function viewImage(src, legende) { document.getElementById("imageBig").src = "images/photos/"+src; document.getElementById("legend").innerHTML = legende; } </script> and in html simply : things like that : <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('flute.jpg','La Reine de la Nuit au Comedia')"><img src="images/photos/carre-09.jpg" alt="" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('perichole.jpg','Manuelita - <em>La P&eacute;richole</em> &agrave; l&#8217;Op&eacute;ra Comique')"><img src="images/photos/carre-03.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> <li><a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('12.png','R&eacute;cital &agrave; Carnac, septembre 2008')"><img src="images/photos/carre-12.jpg" alt="Marion Baglan Carnac R&eacute;" /></a> <a href="#centre" onclick="javascript:viewImage('01.jpg','')"><img src="images/photos/carre-01.jpg" alt="" /></a></li> so you see, I could, depending on which small photos in the unordered list you clicked, load some particular photos, by passing the src string in argument... but I decided to use Jquery to get some fade-in effect. But I can't find a way to pass an argument that would tell my JQuery function which photo to load depending on where I clicked... stuck here : $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ulPhotos').click(function() { var newSrc= $('#imageBig').attr("src", "images/photos/11.jpg"); }); }); I don't want the 11.jpg to be hardcoded, I need to pass it through argument when I click on a special li element in my ul element of id #ulPhotos... I hope I'm clear enough sorry !

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• Dynamic Array traversal in PHP

  - by Kristoffer Bohmann

  I want to build a hierarchy from a one-dimensional array and can (almost) do so with a more or less hardcoded code. How can I make the code dynamic? Perhaps with while(isset($array[$key])) { ... }? Or, with an extra function? Like this: $out = my_extra_traverse_function($array,$key); function array_traverse($array,$key=NULL) { $out = (string) $key; $out = $array[$key] . "/" . $out; $key = $array[$key]; $out = $array[$key] ? $array[$key] . "/" . $out : ""; $key = $array[$key]; $out = $array[$key] ? $array[$key] . "/" . $out : ""; $key = $array[$key]; $out = $array[$key] ? $array[$key] . "/" . $out : ""; return $out; } $a = Array(102=>101, 103=>102, 105=>107, 109=>105, 111=>109, 104=>111); echo array_traverse($a,104); Output: 107/105/109/111/104

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• Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

  - by SztupY

  Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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• Are all of the default scripts loaded by Magento really needed?

  - by pxl

  Here's a listing of all the scripts loaded by Magento by default: ../js/prototype/prototype.js //prototype library ../js/prototype/validation.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/builder.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/effects.js //base scriptaculous effects library? ../js/scriptaculous/dragdrop.js //component of scriptaculous effects ../js/scriptaculous/controls.js //not sure? ../js/scriptaculous/slider.js //more scriptaculous effects ../js/varien/js.js //don't know what this is ../js/varien/form.js //form validation scripts? ../js/varien/menu.js //menu/drop down menu scripts ../js/mage/translate.js //don't know what this does ../js/mage/cookies.js //don't know what this does these scripts total 316.8K of javascript... all in various states of being minified (for example, prototype.js isn't minified). So my first question: 1) Aside from prototype.js, are all of the others really that needed? and 2) What is the "correct" way to remove these scripts? Layout updates? Or hardcoded in templates? I want to make the loading of my magento site as light weight as possible. thanks!

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• 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

  - by Simon_Weaver

  I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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• Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

  - by user135697

  The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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• Custom button with property as StaticResource

  - by alin

  I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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• DDD: Enum like entities

  - by Chris

  Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

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• Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

  - by Dave

  I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

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• Stuck trying to get Log4Net to work with Dependency Injection

  - by Pure.Krome

  I've got a simple winform test app i'm using to try some Log4Net Dependency Injection stuff. I've made a simple interface in my Services project :- public interface ILogging { void Debug(string message); // snip the other's. } Then my concrete type will be using Log4Net... public class Log4NetLogging : ILogging { private static ILog Log4Net { get { return LogManager.GetLogger( MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); } } public void Debug(string message) { if (Log4Net.IsDebugEnabled) { Log4Net.Debug(message); } } } So far so good. Nothing too hard there. Now, in a different project (and therefore namesapce), I try and use this ... public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo("Log4Net.config"); log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(fileInfo); } private void Foo() { // This would be handled with DI, but i've not set it up // (on the constructor, in this code example). ILogging logging = new Log4NetLogging(); logging.Debug("Test message"); } } Ok .. also pretty simple. I've hardcoded the ILogging instance but that is usually dependency injected via the constructor. Anyways, when i check this line of code... return LogManager.GetLogger(MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType); the DeclaringType type value is of the Service namespace, not the type of the Form (ie. X.Y.Z.Form1) which actually called the method. Without passing the type INTO method as another argument, is there anyway using reflection to figure out the real method that called it?

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• SSRS How to access the current value within a list control?

  - by Dale Burrell

  In SQL Server Reporting Services I have a report which has a list control which groups on currency. Within the list control I display the detailed rows of all records filtered to those with a value = £500. i.e. the top earners. However for each row I need to calculate the percentage of its amount over the total of the entire dataset. Because I am filtering it I can't use Sum(Fields!Amount.Value) as that only sums the data after filtering, so I am trying a conditional sum over the entire dataset, but am struggling with the correct condition e.g =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = "£", Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") So where the hardcoded currency symbol is I need to access the current value of currency for the list control, but because my sum is scoped at dataset level any field access is dataset level. Ideally I'd like something like the following, otherwise any other ideas on how to solve this problem. =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = myListControl.Value, Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") In fact, thinking about it, it would work if I just could access the row level data at that point, but how to do that when its at dataset scope within the sum statement? Hope that makes sense, any help appreciated.

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• How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

  - by Michel

  Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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• How to query the SPView object

  - by Hugo Migneron

  I have a SPView object that contains a lot of SPListItem objects (there are many fields in the view). I am only interested in one of these fields. Let's call it specialField Given that view and specialField, I want to know if a value is contained in specialField. Here is a way of doing what I want to do : String specialField = "Special Field"; String specialValue = "value"; SPList list = SPContext.Current.Site.RootWeb.Lists["My List"]; SPView view = list.Views["My View"]; //This is the view I want to query SPQuery query = new SPQuery(); query.Query = view.Query; SPListItemCollection items = list.GetItems(query); foreach(SPListItem item in items) { var value = item[specialField]; if(value != null) && (value.ToString() == specialValue) { //My value is found. This is what I was looking for. //break out of the loop or return } } //My value is not found. However, iterating through each ListItem hardly seems optimal, especially as there might be hundreds of items. This query will be executed often, so I am looking for an efficient way to do this. EDIT I will not always be working with the same view, so my solution cannot be hardcoded (it has to be generic enough that the list, view and specialField can be changed.

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• PHP IDE with Integrated Web Server

  - by seth

  Note: This is not another "What is the best PHP IDE?" question. I'm looking for a PHP IDE with a specific feature, namely an integrated / embedded (php enabled) web server; ideally with xdebug pre-bundled. I already know that Aptana 1.5 has this functionality (and some older versions of Zend Studio as well), but Aptana 1.5 hasn't been supported for quite some time and as we make the transition to PHP 5.3 and beyond, it's usefulness will diminish significantly. I've looked at some options including Eclipse PDT and NetBeans, but it seems every PHP IDE relies on a separate local/remote web server to actually interpret the code. I know installing a web server locally is fairly trivial, but this is for a classroom solution, where installing, configuring, and maintaining a web server on 1000 machines is simply not feasible. A remote server solution will also not work due to the need to use debugging functionality (xdebug currently requires a hardcoded IP for the debug client). This seems like such an obvious feature/plugin for a PHP IDE, but my research thus far has turned up no results.

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• Zend XML parsing

  - by Vincent

  I have an xml file called error.xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <errorList> <error> <code>0</code> <desc>Fault</desc> <ufmessage>Fault</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>1</code> <desc>Unknown</desc> <ufmessage>Unknown</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>2</code> <desc>Internal Error</desc> <ufmessage>Internal Error</ufmessage> </error> </errorList> I am using Zend and have the above xml file stored in a Zend Registry variable called "apperrors" like this: $apperrors = new Zend_Config_Xml( 'error.xml'); Zend_Registry::set('apperrors', $apperrors->errorList); If my code throws an error code of 2, I want a snippet of code to check the error code with "code" key in "apperrors" array and echo the ufmessage value corresponding to it. How can I do this? Ex: //Error thrown by the code. Hardcoded for now... $errorThrownByCode = 2; //Get the Zend Registry value for all errors $errorList = Zend_Registry::get('apperrors'); //Write some code to compare $errorThrownByCode with $errorList->error->code //If found echo $errorList->error->ufmessage, else echo "An Unknown error occured"; Thanks

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• Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

  - by Nathan

  I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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• How can I use rows in a lookup table as columns in a MySQL query?

  - by TomH

  I'm trying to build a MySQL query that uses the rows in a lookup table as the columns in my result set. LookupTable id | AnalysisString 1 | color 2 | size 3 | weight 4 | speed ScoreTable id | lookupID | score | customerID 1 | 1 | A | 1 2 | 2 | C | 1 3 | 4 | B | 1 4 | 2 | A | 2 5 | 3 | A | 2 6 | 1 | A | 3 7 | 2 | F | 3 I'd like a query that would use the relevant lookupTable rows as columns in a query so that I can get a result like this: customerID | color | size | weight | speed 1 A C D 2 A A 3 A F The kicker of the problem is that there may be additional rows added to the LookupTable and the query should be dynamic and not have the Lookup IDs hardcoded. That is, this will work: SELECT st.customerID, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=1 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS color, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=2 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS size, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=3 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS weight, (SELECT st1.score FROM ScoreTable st1 WHERE lookupID=4 AND st.customerID = st1.customerID) AS speed FROM ScoreTable st GROUP BY st.customerID Until there is a fifth row added to the LookupTable . . . Perhaps I'm breaking the whole relational model and will have to resolve this in the backend PHP code? Thanks for pointers/guidance. tom

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• How make this jquery function reusable?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  Comsider this jquery function, function showresults(jsonobj) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span style="display: inline-block;width:150px;" class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); } Here i am iterating my json data and drawing div elements.... As you see these div elements are hardcoded how to pass these html div elements dynamically by a variable... var divs=<div></div> function showresults(jsonobj,divs) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += divs Is this correct way of doing but there will be an error employee object wont be there know when my divs variable declared outside the function... Any suggestion...

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• Android 2.1 How to get Phone Numbers of contacts.

  - by Brandon Delany

  Hi, I am new to Android and have been working on an app that needs to get all of the user's contact's phone numbers. Apparently the code I have does not work with the 2.1 SDK. So far here is the code I am using: String[] projection = new String[] { Phone.NUMBER }; Cursor c = managedQuery( Phone.CONTENT_URI, projection, null, null, null ); int colIndex = -1; try { colIndex = c.getColumnIndexOrThrow( Phone.NUMBER ); } catch( Exception e ) { print( e.getMessage() ); } print( "Column Index = " + colIndex ); //count is equal to 3 for( int i = 0; i < count; i++ ){ try { print( c.getString( 2 ) ); //the 2 used to be colIndex } catch ( Exception e ) { print( e.getMessage() ); } } It seems that no matter what I pass into c.getString() it keeps telling me that I passed in -1. But I even hardcoded the 2, and it says the same thing. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• Downloading From Google Docs

  - by jeremynealbrown

  Hello, I am using the gdata-java-client Version 2 with for and Android app that allows users to download documents from their Google Docs account. Currently I am able to authenticate, request and display a list of all the user's documents. From here I would like to open each type of document in a specific Activity. If it's a spreadsheet or a csv file, open it in one activity and if it is a text document open it in another activity. This is where things are getting hazy. First I need to determine what type of document the user selected in order download the file in the appropriate format by appending exporFormat=(csv,xls,doc,txt) to the query string. I don't see any indication in the original list of documents as to what kind of file the each entry is. Secondly as a test I can just append a raw string to the end of the query string. As an example, a query might look like this: https://spreadsheets.google.com/feeds/download/spreadsheets/Export?key=0AsE_6_YIr797dHBTUWlHMUFXeTV4ZzJlUGxWRnJXanc&exportFormat=xls Notice that at the end of the string is the hardcoded export format. This query returns a HTTPResponse with a 200 OK message. However if I look at the response.content or use response.parseAsString I see what appears to be a Google Docs home page has html text. I don't get this result when I try to download a text document. When I request a text document the response.content is the body of the text file. If I copy and paste this uri into a browser I get the requested file as a download. To summarize, this question is two-fold: 1. How do I determine the type( plain text, .doc, .csv, .xls ) of a document from the initial list of user documents. 2. How do I download the actual .csv or spreadsheet files? Thanks in advance.

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• Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

  - by danswain

  We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• UpdatePanel doesn't Refresh

  - by mrxrsd

  I have got a simple page with a HtmlInputHidden field. I use Javascript to update that value and, when posting back the page, I want to read the value of that HtmlInputHidden field. The Value property of that HtmlInputHidden field is on postback the default value (the value it had when the page was created, not the value reflected through the Javascript). I also tried to Register the HtmlInputHidden field with ScriptManager.RegisterHiddenField(Page, "MyHtmlImputHiddenField", "initialvalue") but it still only lets me read the 'initialvalue' even though I (through javascript) can inspect that the value has changed. I tried to hardcoded the rowid and, to my surprise, after postback gridview was exactly the same before the delete but the record was deleted from the database. (I´ve called the databind method). protected void gridViewDelete(object sender, GridViewDeleteEventArgs e) { bool bDelete = false; bool bCheck = false; if (hfControl.Value != "1") { // check relationship bCheck = validation_method(.......); if (bCheck) { bDelete = true; } } else { hfControl.Value = ""; bDelete = true; } if (bDelete) { //process delete } else { string script = string.Empty; script += " var x; "; script += " x = confirm('are u sure?'); "; script += " if (x){ " ; script += " document.getElementById('hfControl').value = '1'; "; script += " setTimeOut(__doPostBack('gridView','Delete$" + e.RowIndex + "'),0);"; script += " } "; ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, Page.GetType() , "confirm" , script ,true); } }

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