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  • Pigs in Socks?

    - by MightyZot
    My wonderful wife Annie surprised me with a cruise to Cozumel for my fortieth birthday. I love to travel. Every trip is ripe with adventure, crazy things to see and experience. For example, on the way to Mobile Alabama to catch our boat, some dude hauling a mobile home lost a window and we drove through a cloud of busting glass going 80 miles per hour! The night before the cruise, we stayed in the Malaga Inn and I crawled UNDER the hotel to look at an old civil war bunker. WOAH! Then, on the way to and from Cozumel, the boat plowed through two beautiful and slightly violent storms. But, the adventures you have while travelling often pale in comparison to the cult of personalities you meet along the way.  :) We met many cool people during our travels and we made some new friends. Todd and Andrea are in the publishing business (www.myneworleans.com) and teaching, respectively. Erika is a teacher too and Matt has a pig on his foot. This story is about the pig. Without that pig on Matt’s foot, we probably would have hit a buoy and drowned. Alright, so…this pig on Matt’s foot…this is no henna tatt, this is a man’s tattoo. Apparently, getting tattoos on your feet is very painful because there is very little muscle and fat and lots of nifty nerves to tell you that you might be doing something stupid. Pig and rooster tattoos carry special meaning for sailors of old. According to some sources, having a tattoo of a pig or rooster on one foot or the other will keep you from drowning. There are many great musings as to why a pig and a rooster might save your life. The most plausible in my opinion is that pigs and roosters were common livestock tagging along with the crew. Since they were shipped in wooden crates, pigs and roosters were often counted amongst the survivors when ships succumbed to Davy Jones’ Locker. I didn’t spend a whole lot of time researching the pig and the rooster, so consider these musings as you would a grain of salt. And, I was not able to find a lot of what you might consider credible history regarding the tradition. What I did find was a comfort, or solace, in the maritime tradition. Seems like raw traditions like the pig and the rooster are in danger of getting lost in a sea of non-permanence. I mean, what traditions are us old programmers and techies leaving behind for future generations? Makes me wonder what Ward Christensen has tattooed on his left foot.  I guess my choice would have to be a Commodore 64.   (I met Ward, by the way, in an elevator after he received his Dvorak awards in 1992. He was a very non-assuming individual sporting business casual and was very much a “sailor” of an old-school programmer. I can’t remember his exact words, but I think they were essentially that he felt it odd that he was getting an award for just doing his work. I’m sure that Ward doesn’t know this…he couldn’t have set a more positive example for a young 22 year old programmer. Thanks Ward!)

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  • jquery stop image rotation on mouseover, start on mouseout / hover

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I have built a jQuery rotator to rotate through 3 divs and loop them. I would like to add the functionality on mouse over to "freeze" the current div and then start again on mouse out. I've thought about setting a variable to false at the start of the function and setting it true when it's on it's current frame but I've got my self a bit confused. I've also tried to use the hover function but when using the in and out handlers, I'm confused as to how to stop, restart the animation. function ImageRotate() { var CurrentFeature = "#container" + featureNumber; $(CurrentFeature).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '330px'}, 3000); var featureNumber2 = featureNumber+1; if ( featureNumber == numberOfFeatures) {featureNumber2 = 1} var NewFeature = "#container" + featureNumber2; $(NewFeature).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '0px'}, 3000); var featureNumber3 = featureNumber-1; if ( featureNumber == 1) {featureNumber3 = numberOfFeatures}; var OldFeature = "#container" + featureNumber3; $(OldFeature).stop(false, true).delay(4500).css('top' , '-330px'); setTimeout('if (featureNumber == numberOfFeatures){featureNumber = 1} else {featureNumber++}; ImageRotate2()', 7500)}; Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Thanks, Matt

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  • LINQ-to-SQL: Could not find key member 'x' of key 'x' on type 'y'

    - by Austin Hyde
    I am trying to connect my application to a SQLite database with LINQ-to-SQL, and so far everything has worked fine. The only hitch was that the SQLite provider I am using does not support code generation (unless I was doing something wrong), so I manually coded the 4 tables in the DB. The solution builds properly, but will not run, giving me the error message Could not find key member 'ItemType_Id' of key 'ItemType_Id' on type 'Item'. The key may be wrong or the field or property on 'Item' has changed names. I have checked and double checked spellings and field names on the database and in the attribute mappings, but could not find any problems. The SQL for the table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [Items] ( [Id] integer PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT NOT NULL, [Name] text NOT NULL, [ItemType_Id] integer NOT NULL ); And my mapping code: [Table(Name="Items")] class Item { // [snip] [Column(Name = "Id", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int Id { get; set; } // [snip] [Column(Name="ItemType_Id")] public int ItemTypeId { get; set; } [Association(Storage = "_itemType", ThisKey = "ItemType_Id")] public ItemType ItemType { get { return _itemType.Entity; } set { _itemType.Entity = value; } } private EntityRef<ItemType> _itemType; // [snip] } This is really my first excursion into LINQ-to-SQL, and am learning as I go, but I cannot seem to get past this seeming simple problem. Why cannot LINQ see my association?

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  • Is it possible to make a non-nullable column nullable when used in a view? (sql server)

    - by Matt
    Hi, To start off I have two tables, PersonNames and PersonNameVariations. When a name is searched, it finds the closest name to one of the ones available in PersonNames and records it in the PersonNameVariations table if it's not already in there. I am using a stored proc to search the PersonNames for a passed in PersonNameVariationand return the information on both the PersonName found and the PersonNameVariation that was compared to it. Since I am using the Entity Framework, I needed return a complex type in the Import Function but for some reason it says my current framework doesn't support it. My last option was to use an Entity to return in my stored proc instead. The result that I needed back is the information on both the PersonName that was found and the PersonNameVariation that was recorded. Since I cannot return both entities, I created a view PersonSearchVariationInfo and added it into my Entity Framework in order to use it as the entity to return. The problem is that the search will not always return a Person Name match. It needs to be able to return only the PersonNameVariation data in some cases, meaning that all the fields in the PersonSearchVariationInfo pertaining to PersonName need to be nullable. How can I take my view and make some of the fields nullable? When I do it directly in the Entity Framework I get a mapping error: Error 4 Error 3031: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1202:Non-nullable column myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo.DateAdded in table myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo is mapped to a nullable entity property. C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject.Domain\EntityFramework\MyProjectDBEntities.edmx 1203 15 MyProject.Domain Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Matt

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  • the Memory problem about MySQL "SELECT *"

    - by Austin Huang
    Dear all: I'm new to MySQL, and I have a question about the memory. I have a 200mb table(MyISAM, 2,000,000 rows), and I try to load all of it to the memory. I use python(actually MySQLdb in python) with sql: SELECT * FROM table. However, from my linux "top" I saw this python process uses 50% of my memory(which is total 6GB) I'm curious about why it uses about 3GB memory only for a 200 mb table. Thanks in advance!

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  • Derby vs PostgreSql Performance Comparison

    - by Austin
    We are doing research right now on whether to switch our postgresql db to an embedded Derby db. Both would be using glassfish 3 for our data layer. Anybody have any opinions or knowledge that could help us decide? Thanks! edit: we are writing some performance tests ourselves right now. Looking for answers more based on experience / first hand knowledge

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  • Optimizing Levenshtein Distance Algorithm

    - by Matt
    I have a stored procedure that uses Levenshtein Distance to determine the result closest to what the user typed. The only thing really affecting the speed is the function that calculates the Levenshtein Distance for all the records before selecting the record with the lowest distance (I've verified this by putting a 0 in place of the call to the Levenshtein function). The table has 1.5 million records, so even the slightest adjustment may shave off a few seconds. Right now the entire thing runs over 10 minutes. Here's the method I'm using: ALTER function dbo.Levenshtein ( @Source nvarchar(200), @Target nvarchar(200) ) RETURNS int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Source_len int, @Target_len int, @i int, @j int, @Source_char nchar, @Dist int, @Dist_temp int, @Distv0 varbinary(8000), @Distv1 varbinary(8000) SELECT @Source_len = LEN(@Source), @Target_len = LEN(@Target), @Distv1 = 0x0000, @j = 1, @i = 1, @Dist = 0 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv1 + CAST(@j AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END WHILE @i <= @Source_len BEGIN SELECT @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Source, @i, 1), @Dist = @i, @Distv0 = CAST(@i AS binary(2)), @j = 1 WHILE @j <= @Target_len BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist + 1 SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j-1, 2) AS int) + CASE WHEN @Source_char = SUBSTRING(@Target, @j, 1) THEN 0 ELSE 1 END IF @Dist > @Dist_temp BEGIN SET @Dist = @Dist_temp END SET @Dist_temp = CAST(SUBSTRING(@Distv1, @j+@j+1, 2) AS int)+1 IF @Dist > @Dist_temp SET @Dist = @Dist_temp BEGIN SELECT @Distv0 = @Distv0 + CAST(@Dist AS binary(2)), @j = @j + 1 END END SELECT @Distv1 = @Distv0, @i = @i + 1 END RETURN @Dist END Anyone have any ideas? Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • javascript onkeypressed not giving current text box content

    - by Austin
    I have an html form like this: <form id="boxy" action="layout.html" method="get" accept-charset="utf-8"> <input type="text" id="a" onkeypress="Boxy.Check(this);"> </form> Invoking javascript like this: Boxy.Check = function() { input = document.getElementById(this.currentSelector.id).value; console.log("\"" + input + "\""); }; However, this.value is the previous value before onkeypress. For example, if I just type "A" into the form, console.log() prints "". And if I type "AA", console.log prints "A". Is there a way to get the current content of the input?

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  • Post on a logged in users facebook wall

    - by Matt Nathanson
    Hey all, I've created a widget that will essentially unlock a music track, providing you post to either your twitter account, or facebook wall. I've signed up through facebook connect and I am able to successfully post onto my own wall... but the functionality I'm looking for is to be able to take ones username and password and automatically log in to facebook, and send my desired message. Like I said, it posts on my wall successfully, it's just not using the username and password from the field to log in to their respective facebooks and post. <?php $facename = $_POST['facename']; $facepass = $_POST['facepass']; define('FB_APIKEY', 'my_api_key'); define('FB_SECRET', 'my_secret_phrase_'); define('FB_SESSION', 'my_session_id'); require_once('facebook.php'); echo "post on wall"; try { $facebook = new Facebook(FB_APIKEY, FB_SECRET); $facebook->api_client->session_key = FB_SESSION; $fetch = array('friends' => array('pattern' => '.*', 'query' => "select uid2 from friend where uid1={$facename}")); echo $facebook->api_client->admin_setAppProperties(array('preload_fql' => json_encode($fetch))); $message = 'I downloaded Automatic Loveletter\'s new single \'To Die For\' here!'; if( $facebook->api_client->stream_publish($message)) echo "Added on FB Wall"; } catch(Exception $e) { echo $e . "<br />"; } ?> Any help in the right direction is greatly appreciated! Thanks, Matt

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  • PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • Examples of CoffeeScript in NodeJS?

    - by Austin Hyde
    As a pet project, I am trying to get familiar with NodeJS and CoffeeScript, and am finding it hard to get the ball rolling. I've found plenty of examples of single-file super-simple apps like in CoffeeScript's examples folder, however, none of those really show what a full application would look like. I've also scrounged Google to no avail. Do you have any examples of medium-sized, multi-file CoffeeScript/NodeJS apps I could learn from?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0: Specifying an instance of an object for an ObjectDataSource

    - by Austin Salonen
    I'm using an ObjectDataSource to bind data to a GridView; it works fine except that it always creates a new object to use as a data source. I can do all the setup just fine but I cannot use an instance of an existing object to specify as the "data source" for it. Is it possible to do this? If so, how? If it's not possible, why? EDIT: Here's the gist of what's going on (object types changed): On the first page you are editting the attributes for a dog. One of the attributes is "has puppies" and if it's true, the next page you specify the names of those puppies. What's happening in my case is that those puppies are not getting linked to the original dog but to a "new" dog. (The implication that my problem is a "female dog" was coincidental. ;-) )

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  • Tablet as Car Computer

    - by Austin Fitzpatrick
    Okay, so forward this off to the right place if this isn't the right place to ask this question. I want to use a tablet computer as a car-computer. Minimum features would be to run my music (through iPod, Pandora, whatever I want) and GPS Navigation, watch TV or movies while I'm parked waiting for people, and the hard one: it needs to answer my phone calls with a pleasant interface much like in-dash systems do. It needs to detect that my phone is ringing in my pocket and provide an on-screen answer/ignore and then route the audio through the cars speakers. It would be nice to dial out and have address book access, but that is somewhat secondary. I have an iPhone myself and I figured that an iPad with 3G might make a good system for this - but I'm open to other options if an iPad can't do everything I need. I'm willing to write code, and I'm willing to jailbreak one or both devices. I haven't done much work in Obj-C, but I'm not opposed to learning a new language for this project. It's self enrichment for the most part, as I'm sure I can buy an indash entertainment system for less. Does anyone have experience with the iPhone/iPad SDK that can tell me whether or not it would be possible to get it an iPad to answer my calls in the car? What about an Android tablet? (that Adam looks promising, too).

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  • Async trigger for an update panel refreshes entire page when triggering too much in too short of tim

    - by Matt
    I have a search button tied to an update panel as a trigger like so: <asp:Panel ID="CRM_Search" runat="server"> <p>Search:&nbsp;<asp:TextBox ID="CRM_Search_Box" CssClass="CRM_Search_Box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="CRM_Search_Button" CssClass="CRM_Search_Button" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="SearchLeads" /></p> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CRM_Search_Button" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> /* Content Here */ </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my javascript I use jQuery to grab the search box and tie it's keyup to make the search button click: $($(".CRM_Search_Box")[0]).keyup( function () { $($(".CRM_Search_Button")[0]).click(); } ); This works perfectly, except when I start typing too fast. As soon as I type too fast (my guess is if it's any faster than the data actually returns) the entire page refreshes (doing a postback?) instead of just the update panel. I've also found that instead of typing, if I just click the button really fast it starts doing the same thing. Is there any way to prevent it from doing this? Possibly prevent 2nd requests until the first has been completed? If I'm not on the right track then anyone have any other ideas? Thanks, Matt

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  • maps, iterators, and complex structs - STL errors

    - by Austin Hyde
    So, I have two structs: struct coordinate { float x; float y; } struct person { int id; coordinate location; } and a function operating on coordinates: float distance(const coordinate& c1, const coordinate& c2); In my main method, I have the following code: map<int,person> people; // populate people map<int,map<float,int> > distance_map; map<int,person>::iterator it1,it2; for (it1=people.begin(); it1!=people.end(); ++it1) { for (it2=people.begin(); it2!=people.end(); ++it2) { float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); distance_map[it1->first][d] = it2->first; } } However, I get the following error upon build: stl_iterator_base_types.h: In instantiation of ‘std::iterator_traits<coordinate>’: stl_iterator_base_types.h:129: error: no type named ‘iterator_category’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:130: error: no type named ‘value_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:131: error: no type named ‘difference_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:132: error: no type named ‘pointer’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:133: error: no type named ‘reference’ in ‘struct coordinate’ And it blames it on the line: float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); Why does the STL complain about my code?

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  • What is the Best way to databind an ASP.NET TreeView for table with many to many parent child relati

    - by Matt W
    I've got a table which has the usual ParentID, ChildID as it's first two columns in a self-referencing tree data structure. My issue is that when I pull this out and use the following code: DataSet set = DA.GetNewCategories(); set.Relations.Add( new DataRelation("parentChildCategories", set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryParentID"], set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryID"]) ); StringBuilder buildXml = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(buildXml); set.WriteXml(writer); TreeView2.DataSource = new HierarchicalDataSet(set, "CategoryID", "CategoryParentID"); TreeView2.DataBind(); I get the error: These columns don't currently have unique values I believe this is because my data has children with multiple parent nodes. This is fine for my application - I don't mind if one row of data is rendered in multiple nodes of my TreeView. Could someone shed light on this please? It doesn't seem unreasonable to have a DataSet render XML which has nodes appearing in multiple places, but I can't figure out how to do it. Thanks, Matt.

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  • Makefiles - Compile all .cpp files in src/ to .o's in obj/, then link to binary in /

    - by Austin Hyde
    So, my project directory looks like this: /project Makefile main /src main.cpp foo.cpp foo.h bar.cpp bar.h /obj main.o foo.o bar.o What I would like my makefile to do would be to compile all .cpp files in the /src folder to .o files in the /obj folder, then link all the .o files in /obj into the output binary in the root folder /project. The problem is, I have next to no experience with Makefiles, and am not really sure what to search for to accomplish this. Also, is this a "good" way to do this, or is there a more standard approach to what I'm trying to do?

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  • Relay WCF Service

    - by Matt Ruwe
    This is more of an architectural and security question than anything else. I'm trying to determine if a suggested architecture is necessary. Let me explain my configuration. We have a standard DMZ established that essentially has two firewalls. One that's external facing and the other that connects to the internal LAN. The following describes where each application tier is currently running. Outside the firewall: Silverlight Application In the DMZ: WCF Service (Business Logic & Data Access Layer) Inside the LAN: Database I'm receiving input that the architecture is not correct. Specifically, it has been suggested that because "a web server is easily hacked" that we should place a relay server inside the DMZ that communicates with another WCF service inside the LAN which will then communicate with the database. The external firewall is currently configured to only allow port 443 (https) to the WCF service. The internal firewall is configured to allow SQL connections from the WCF service in the DMZ. Ignoring the obvious performance implications, I don't see the security benefit either. I'm going to reserve my judgement of this suggestion to avoid polluting the answers with my bias. Any input is appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • Using nhibernate <loader> element with HQL queries

    - by Matt
    Hi All I'm attempting to use an HQL query in element to load an entity based on other entities. My class is as follows public class ParentOnly { public ParentOnly(){} public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string ParentObjectName { get; set; } } and the mapping looks like this <class name="ParentOnly"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ParentObjectName" /> <loader query-ref="parentonly"/> </class> <query name="parentonly" > select new ParentOnly() from SimpleParentObject as spo where spo.Id = :id </query> The class that I am attemping to map on top of is SimpleParentObject, which has its own mapping and can be loaded and saved without problems. When I call session.Get(id) the sql runs correctly against the SimpleParentObject table, and the a ParentOnly object is instantiated (as I can step through the constructer), but only a null comes back, rather than the instantiated ParentOnly object. I can do this succesfully using a instead of the HQL, but am trying to build this in a database independent fashion. Any thoughts on how to get the and elements to return a populated ParentOnly object...? Thanks Matt

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  • Metamorphs Messing Up CSS in Ember.js Views

    - by Austin Fatheree
    I'm using Ember.js / handlebars to loop through a collection and spit out some items that I'd like bootstrap to handle nice and responsive like. Here is the issue: The bootstrap-responsive css has some declrations in it like: .row-fluid > [class*="span"]:first-child { margin-left: 0; } and .row-fluid:before, .row-fluid:after { display: table; content: ""; } These rules seem to target the first children. When I loop through my collection in handlebars I end up with a bunch of metamorph code around my items: <div class="row-fluid"> {{#each restaurantList}} {{view GS.vHomePageRestList content=this class="span6"}} {{/each}} </div> Here is what is produced: <div class="row-fluid"> <script id="metamorph-9-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-104-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <div id="ember2527" class="ember-view span6"> My View </div> <script id="metamorph-104-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-105-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <div id="ember2574" class="ember-view span6"> My View 2 </div> <script id="metamorph-105-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-9-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> </div> So my question is this: 1. How can I tell css to ignore script tags? or 2. How can I edit the css bindings so that they skip over script tags when selecting the first or first child? or 3. How can I structure this so that Ember uses fewer/no metamorph tags? Here is a fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/skilesare/SgwsJ/

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  • Convert "this" to a reference-to-pointer

    - by Austin Hyde
    Just stumbled onto this problem. (title says it all) Let's say I have a struct struct Foo { void bar () { do_baz(this); } void do_baz(Foo*& pFoo) { pFoo->p_sub_foo = new Foo; // for example } Foo* p_sub_foo; } GCC tells me that temp.cpp: In member function ‘void Foo::bar()’: temp.cpp:3: error: no matching function for call to ‘Foo::do_baz(Foo* const)’ temp.cpp:5: note: candidates are: void Foo::do_baz(Foo*&) So, how do I convert what is apparently a const Foo* to a Foo*&?

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  • Undefined symbols for C++0x lambdas?

    - by Austin Hyde
    I was just poking around into some new stuff in C++0x, when I hit a stumbling block: #include <list> #include <cstdio> using namespace std; template <typename T,typename F> void ForEach (list<T> l, F f) { for (typename list<T>::iterator it=l.begin();it!=l.end();++it) f(*it); } int main() { int arr[] = {1,2,3,4,5,6}; list<int> l (arr,arr+6); ForEach(l,[](int x){printf("%d\n",x);}); } does not compile. I get a load of undefined symbol errors. Here's make's output: i386-apple-darwin9-gcc-4.5.0 -std=c++0x -I/usr/local/include -o func main.cpp Undefined symbols: "___cxa_rethrow", referenced from: std::_List_node<int>* std::list<int, std::allocator<int> >::_M_create_node<int const&>(int const&&&) in ccPxxPwU.o "operator new(unsigned long)", referenced from: __gnu_cxx::new_allocator<std::_List_node<int> >::allocate(unsigned long, void const*) in ccPxxPwU.o "___gxx_personality_v0", referenced from: ___gxx_personality_v0$non_lazy_ptr in ccPxxPwU.o "___cxa_begin_catch", referenced from: std::_List_node<int>* std::list<int, std::allocator<int> >::_M_create_node<int const&>(int const&&&) in ccPxxPwU.o "operator delete(void*)", referenced from: __gnu_cxx::new_allocator<std::_List_node<int> >::deallocate(std::_List_node<int>*, unsigned long) in ccPxxPwU.o "___cxa_end_catch", referenced from: std::_List_node<int>* std::list<int, std::allocator<int> >::_M_create_node<int const&>(int const&&&) in ccPxxPwU.o "std::__throw_bad_alloc()", referenced from: __gnu_cxx::new_allocator<std::_List_node<int> >::allocate(unsigned long, void const*) in ccPxxPwU.o "std::_List_node_base::_M_hook(std::_List_node_base*)", referenced from: void std::list<int, std::allocator<int> >::_M_insert<int const&>(std::_List_iterator<int>, int const&&&) in ccPxxPwU.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [func] Error 1 Why is this not working?

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  • Creating an AJAX Searchable Database.

    - by Austin
    Currently I am using MySQLi to parse a CSV file into a Database, that step has been accomplished. However, My next step would be to make this Database searchable and automatically updated via jQuery.ajax(). Some people suggest that I print out the Database in another page and access it externally. I'm quite new to jquery + ajax so if anyone could point me in the right direction that would be greatly appreciated. I understand that the documentation on ajax should be enough to tell me what I'm looking for but it appears to talk only about retrieving data from an external file, what about from a mysql database? The code so far stands: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input type="text" id="search" name="search" /> <input type="submit" value="submit"> <?php show_source(__FILE__); error_reporting(E_ALL);ini_set('display_errors', '1'); $category = NULL; $mc = new Memcache; $mc->addServer('localhost','11211'); $sql = new mysqli('localhost', 'user', 'pword', 'db'); $cache = $mc->get("updated_DB"); $query = 'SELECT cat,name,web,kw FROM infoDB WHERE cat LIKE ? OR name LIKE ? OR web LIKE ? OR kw LIKE ?'; $results = $sql->prepare($query); $results->bind_param('ssss', $query, $query, $query, $query); $results->execute(); $results->store_result(); ?> </body> </html>

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  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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