Search Results

Search found 3071 results on 123 pages for 'executing'.

Page 100/123 | < Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >

  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

    Read the article

  • How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

    - by Matt
    I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Java downcasting dilemma

    - by Shades88
    please have a look at this code here. class Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("vehicle"); } } class Car extends Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("car"); } } class Bike extends Vehicle{ public void printSound() { System.out.print("bike"); } } public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { Vehicle v = new Car(); Bike b = (Bike)v; v.printSound(); b.printSound(); Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"}; for (String s : (String[])myObj) System.out.print(s + "."); } } Executing this code will give ClassCastException saying inheritance.Car cannot be cast to inheritance.Bike. Now look at the line Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"};. This line is same as Vehicle v = new Car(); right? In both lines we are assigning sub class object to super class reference variable. But downcasting String[]myObj is allowed but (Bike)v is not. Please help me understand what is going on around here.

    Read the article

  • Developing on a windows machine that interacts with a linux system

    - by Jamie
    Sorry for the bad title (couldn't think of a better way to describe it) I have a windows machine which I do development on. However, I have a new project which needs to interact with a linux system (executing linux commands etc.). So, obviously I can't do development on my windows machine..and I don't wish to code on the dev machine, svn commit and then svn update it on the linux machine. Is there a way where any changes I make on my dev machine will be quickly mirrored to the linux machine? SVN is not a very quick alternative and of course some changes will be very minor. Any ideas? A network share I guess....but that's not very pretty (bit slow too). As fellow developers I would like to know if you've been in a similar situation and how you've resolved it. On a furthernote, I can't just install Ubuntu as my development machine and mirror the commands, applications etc. from the linux machine because it's a cluster 'master' machine and so therefore it has quite a special configuration. Thanks guys! EDIT: I've also thought about having web services on the linux machine and then just calling them from code thus seperating platform development dependency. What do you think about that too? thanks

    Read the article

  • How is external memory, internal memory, and cache organized?

    - by goldenmean
    Consider a system as follows:= A hardware board having say ARM Cortex-A8 and Neon Vector coprocessor, and Embedded Linux OS running on Cortex-A8. On this environment, if there is some application - say, a video decoder is executing - then: How is it decided that which buffers would be in external memory, which ones would be allocated in internal SRAM, etc. When one says calloc/malloc on such system/code, the pointer returned is from which memory: internal or external? Can a user make buffers to be allocated to the memories of his choice (internal/external)? In ARM architectures, there is another memory called as Tightly coupled memory (TCM). What is that and how can user enable and use it? Can I declare buffers in this memory? Do I need to see the memory map (if any) of the hardware board to understand about all these different physical memories present in a typical hardware board? How much of a role does the OS play in distinguishing these different memories? Sorry for multiple questions, but i think they all are interlinked.

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • Gem Load Error about whois command and removed cache

    - by Puru puru rin..
    Hello, I have an awesome trouble with Gem. After executing this command: rm -f /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/cache/* I can not do any thing. If I try for instance: gem cleanup I get this kind of answer: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems/commands/whois (LoadError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `load' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `block in <top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `<top (required)>' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `require' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `load_full_rubygems_library' from <internal:gem_prelude>:334:in `const_missing' from /usr/local/bin/gem:12:in `<main>' It's the same for gem -v, of just gem command... I'm working of Snow Leopard. What should the best solution about you? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Why do I get a security warning in visual studio 2008 when creating a project?

    - by MikeG
    This is the error, it's basically a security warning (And here's the text grabbed off the dialog box) Security Warning for WindowsApplication4 __________________________I The WindowsApplication4 project file has been customized and could present a security risk by executing custom build steps when opened in Microsoft Visual Studio. If this project came from an untrustwoithy source, it could cause damage to your computer or compromise your private information. More Details Project load options 0 Load project for browsing Opens the project in Microsoft Visual Studio with increased security. This option allows you to browse the contents of the project, but some functionality, such as IntelliSense, is restricted, When a project is loaded for browsing, actions such as building, cleaning, publishing, or opening designers could still remain unsafe. Load project normally Opens the project normally in Microsoft Visual Studio. Use this option if you trust the source and understand the potential risks involved. Microsoft Visual Studio does not restrict any project functionality and will not prompt you again for this project. Ask me for every project in this solution OK L Cancel When click the more details button get this: Microsoft Visual Studio __ An item referring to the file was found in the project file “C:\Users\mgriffiths\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\ProjectATemp\Win dowsApplication4\WindowsApplicdtion4\W in dowsApplication4.vbproj”. Since this file is located within a system directory, root directory, or network share, it could be harmful to write to this file. OK

    Read the article

  • Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

    - by Bill
    In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

    Read the article

  • Multithreading A Function in VB.Net

    - by Ben
    I am trying to multi thread my application so as it is visible while it is executing the process, this is what I have so far: Private Sub SendPOST(ByVal URL As String) Try Dim DataBytes As Byte() = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("") Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create(URL.Trim & "/webdav/"), HttpWebRequest) Request.Method = "POST" Request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Request.ContentLength = DataBytes.Length Request.Timeout = 1000 Request.ReadWriteTimeout = 1000 Dim PostData As Stream = Request.GetRequestStream() PostData.Write(DataBytes, 0, DataBytes.Length) Dim Response As WebResponse = Request.GetResponse() Dim ResponseStream As Stream = Response.GetResponseStream() Dim StreamReader As New IO.StreamReader(ResponseStream) Dim Text As String = StreamReader.ReadToEnd() PostData.Close() Catch ex As Exception If ex.ToString.Contains("401") Then TextBox2.Text = TextBox2.Text & URL & "/webdav/" & vbNewLine End If End Try End Sub Public Sub G0() Dim siteSplit() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) For i = 0 To siteSplit.Count - 1 Try If siteSplit(i).Contains("http://") Then SendPOST(siteSplit(i).Trim) Else SendPOST("http://" & siteSplit(i).Trim) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Next End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load Dim t As Thread t = New Thread(AddressOf Me.G0) t.Start() End Sub However, the 'G0' sub code is not being executed at all, and I need to multi thread the 'SendPOST' as that is what slows the application.

    Read the article

  • LINQ Joins - Performance

    - by Meiscooldude
    I am curious on how exactly LINQ (not LINQ to SQL) is performing is joins behind the scenes in relation to how Sql Server performs joins. Sql Server before executing a query, generates an Execution Plan. The Execution Plan is basically an Expression Tree on what it believes is the best way to execute the query. Each node provides information on whether to do a Sort, Scan, Select, Join, ect. On a 'Join' node in our execution plan, we can see three possible algorithms; Hash Join, Merge Join, and Nested Loops Join. Sql Server will choose which algorithm to for each Join operation based on expected number of rows in Inner and Outer tables, what type of join we are doing (some algorithms don't support all types of joins), whether we need data ordered, and probably many other factors. Join Algorithms: Nested Loop Join: Best for small inputs, can be optimized with ordered inner table. Merge Join: Best for medium to large inputs sorted inputs, or an output that needs to be ordered. Hash Join: Best for medium to large inputs, can be parallelized to scale linearly. LINQ Query: DataTable firstTable, secondTable; ... var rows = from firstRow in firstTable.AsEnumerable () join secondRow in secondTable.AsEnumerable () on firstRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) equals secondRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) select new {firstRow, secondRow}; SQL Query: SELECT * FROM firstTable fT INNER JOIN secondTable sT ON fT.Property = sT.Property Sql Server might use a Nested Loop Join if it knows there are a small number of rows from each table, a merge join if it knows one of the tables has an index, and Hash join if it knows there are a lot of rows on either table and neither has an index. Does Linq choose its algorithm for joins? or does it always use one?

    Read the article

  • ContentPresenter within ControlTemplate cannot change attached dependency property

    - by happyclicker
    Why does the following simplified code not set the font-size of the TextBlock to 50? <Window.Resources> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ContentControl" x:Key="Test"> <ContentPresenter TextBlock.FontSize="50" /> </ControlTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ContentControl Template="{StaticResource Test}"> <TextBlock>Test should be rendered big</TextBlock> </ContentControl> </Grid> If I change the value of the FontSize property, visual studio shows me the text in the size I want. After compiling or executing the app, the size of the textblock is always reset to its default size. I have also tested various versions with styles and embedded resources but I end always in the situation that I cannot set attached dp's from within a ControlTemplate that contains a ContentPresenter. Is this by design?

    Read the article

  • custom rss feed suddenly does not work anymore

    - by krike
    I just don't understand what's happening, I haven't change anything to the site for a few months but now suddenly the rss feed doesn't work anymore. I create a php file with the following code: header('Content-type: text/xml'); include("config/config.inc.php"); $result = mysqli_query($link, "SELECT * FROM tutorials ORDER BY tutorial_id DESC LIMIT 50"); ?> <rss version="2.0"> <channel> <title>CMS tutorial site</title> <description>Bringing you the best CMS tutorials from the web</description> <link>http://cmstutorials.org</link> <?php while($row = mysqli_fetch_object($result)) { $user = mysqli_fetch_object(mysqli_query($link, "SELECT * FROM user_extra WHERE userid=".$row->user_id."")); ?> <item> <title><?php echo $row->title; ?></title> <author><?php echo $user->username; ?></author> <description><?php echo $row->description; ?></description> <pubDate><?php echo $row->date; ?></pubDate> <link>http://cmstutorials.org/view_tutorial.php?tutorial_id=<?php echo $row->tutorial_id; ?></link> </item> <?php } ?> </channel> </rss> I checked the query by executing it in phpmyadmin and it works, doesn't give any error. When I delete the header content type and the rss tag it will print out each line from the query but the feed won't display anything this is the link of the feed http://cmstutorials.org/rss (or http://cmstutorials.org/rss.php)

    Read the article

  • Do applescript repeat loops reflect changes instantly?

    - by user1159454
    I'm making a script to open multiple folders in a directory, and it's not working as planned. I've tried outlining it and walking through the steps one by one pretending I'm the computer executing it but when I run it the outcome is very different. It uses repeat and repeat with a lot. The repeat repeats for as long as there is ANYTHING in a certain array (I mean List) and the repeat with is INSIDE of the first repeat, which repeats it's own loop with everything in the array at that time. Now, one of the actions of the repeat with loop is to change the array. Which I think would change the loop would it not? Example (foldList is A, B, C) repeat until {} repeat with folder_name in foldList do something set foldList to 1, 2, 3 end repeat end repeat What I would THINK that does is iterate through the first loop as "A", but before hitting the end it would change foldList to 1, 2, 3. So instead of going through the next loop as "B" I'd think it would go as "1" instead. But if it did that then I don't think my manual walkthrough would be off by so much. So I'm under the assumption that in Applescript when you're in a repeat with, regardless of changing the List you WILL end that loop on the last item of the first List (before the list was replaced.) Is this right?

    Read the article

  • how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

    - by rezna
    Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

    Read the article

  • Java Concurrency in practice sample question

    - by andy boot
    I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

    Read the article

  • R plotting multiple histograms on single plot to .pdf as a part of R batch script

    - by Bryce Thomas
    I am writing R scripts which play just a small role in a chain of commands I am executing from a terminal. Basically, I do much of my data manipulation in a Python script and then pipe the output to my R script for plotting. So, from the terminal I execute commands which look something like $python whatever.py | R CMD BATCH do_some_plotting.R. This workflow has been working well for me so far, though I have now reached a point where I want to overlay multiple histograms on the same plot, inspired by this answer to another user's question on Stackoverflow. Inside my R script, my plotting code looks like this: pdf("my_output.pdf") plot(hist(d$original,breaks="FD",prob=TRUE), col=rgb(0,0,1,1/4),xlim=c(0,4000),main="original - This plot is in beta") plot(hist(d$minus_thirty_minutes,breaks="FD",prob=TRUE), col=rgb(1,0,0,1/4),add=T,xlim=c(0,4000),main="minus_thirty_minutes - This plot is in beta") Notably, I am using add=T, which is presumably meant to specify that the second plot should be overlaid on top of the first. When my script has finished, the result I am getting is not two histograms overlaid on top of each other, but rather a 3-page PDF whose 3 individual plots contain the titles: i) Histogram of d$original ii) original - This plot is in beta iii) Histogram of d$minus_thirty_minutes So there's two points here I'm looking to clarify. Firstly, even if the plots weren't overlaid, I would expect just a 2-page PDF, not a 3-page PDF. Can someone explain why I am getting a 3-page PDF? Secondly, is there a correction I can make here somewhere to get just the two histograms plotted, and both of them on the same plot (i.e. 1-page PDF)? The other Stackoverflow question/answer I linked to in the first paragraph did mention that alpha-blending isn't supported on all devices, and so I'm curious whether this has anything to do with it. Either way, it would be good to know if there is a R-based solution to my problem or whether I'm going to have to pipe my data into a different language/plotting engine.

    Read the article

  • MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

    - by Andrew K
    Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

    Read the article

  • Protecting critical sections based on a condition in C#

    - by NAADEV
    Hello, I'm dealing with a courious scenario. I'm using EntityFramework to save (insert/update) into a SQL database in a multithreaded environment. The problem is i need to access database to see whether a register with a particular key has been already created in order to set a field value (executing) or it's new to set a different value (pending). Those registers are identified by a unique guid. I've solved this problem by setting a lock since i do know entity will not be present in any other process, in other words, i will not have same guid in different processes and it seems to be working fine. It looks something like that: static readonly object LockableObject = new object(); static void SaveElement(Entity e) { lock(LockableObject) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } But this implies when i have a huge ammount of requests to be saved, they will be queued. I wonder if there is something like that (please, take it just as an idea): static void SaveElement(Entity e) { (using ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition protector = new ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition(e => e.UniqueId) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } The idea would be having a kind of protection that protected based on a condition so each entity e would have its own lock based on e.UniqueId property. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • testng multiple suites

    - by Eli
    Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How do I create an exception-wrapping fubumvc behaviour?

    - by Jon M
    How can I create a fubumvc behaviour that wraps actions with a particular return type, and if an exception occurs while executing the action, then the behaviour logs the exception and populates some fields on the return object? I have tried the following: public class JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour : IActionBehavior { private static readonly Logger logger = LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); private readonly IActionBehavior _innerBehavior; private readonly IFubuRequest _request; public JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour(IActionBehavior innerBehavior, IFubuRequest request) { _innerBehavior = innerBehavior; _request = request; } public void Invoke() { try { _innerBehavior.Invoke(); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = true; } catch(Exception ex) { logger.ErrorException("Error processing JSON request", ex); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = false; response.Exception = ex.ToString(); } } public void InvokePartial() { _innerBehavior.InvokePartial(); } } But, although I get the AjaxResponse object from the request, any changes I make don't get sent back to the client. Also, any exceptions thrown by the action don't make it as far as this, the request is terminated before execution gets to the catch block. What am I doing wrong? For completeness, the behaviour is wired up with the following in my WebRegistry: Policies .EnrichCallsWith<JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour>(action => typeof(AjaxResponse).IsAssignableFrom(action.Method.ReturnType)); And AjaxResponse looks like: public class AjaxResponse { public bool Success { get; set; } public object Data { get; set; } public string Exception { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

    Read the article

  • What is the most simple way to execute java class every 30 seconds

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I've been reading about java/spring/hibernate and worked trough a "dummy" examples so I told my friend to recommend something a bit harder for me, and now I'm stuck.. here is the simplest class I could think of package spring.com.practice; public class Pitcher { private String shout; public String getShout() { return shout; } public void setShout(String shout) { this.shout = shout; } public void voice() { System.out.println(getShout()); } } What is the most simple way to print out something by calling metod voice() from spring beans, and do it repeadatly every 30 seconds lets say, here is what I've got so far : <bean id="simpleTrigger" class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SimpleTriggerBean"> <property name="jobDetail" ref="jobSchedulerDetail" /> <property name="startDelay" value="0" /> <property name="repeatInterval" value="30" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean"> <property name="schedulerName" value="pitcherScheduler" /> <property name="triggers"> <list> <ref bean="simpleTrigger" /> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="pitcher" class="spring.com.practice.Pitcher"> <property name="shout" value="I started executing..."></property> </bean> And yes I'm trying to run this on Jboss 5, I'm building a project with maven.

    Read the article

  • javascript :Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Kaushik
    In my jsp page, I have in the tag, the following code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/static/js/common/common.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Function for Suppressing the JS Error function silentErrorHandler() {return true;} window.onerror=silentErrorHandler; </script> If there is some javascript executing on the jsp page after this, then I guess silentErrorHandler() will have no effect. i.e. the error will still show on page. IS this correct? Because the error is showing and am not sure why. The second part of the question is this: The error is Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; AskTbFXTV5/5.9.1.14019) Timestamp: Fri, 7 Jan 2011 21:26:23 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 613 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:9080/Claris/static/js/common/common.js And finally, line 613 states document.captureEvents(Event.MOUSEUP); There is error on IE8. Runs fine on Mozilla and IE7. Any suggestions will be very helpful

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >