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• Create ImageButton programatically depending on local database records

  - by user2507920

  As i described in title, i have a local db in sqlite. I want to create ImageButton parametrically. How many times is local database loop executing? Please see code below : RelativeLayout outerRelativeLayout = (RelativeLayout)findViewById(R.id.relativeLayout2_making_dynamically); db.open(); Cursor c = db.getAllLocal_Job_Data(); if(c!=null){ if(c.moveToFirst()){ do { RelativeLayout innerRelativeLayout = new RelativeLayout(CalendarActivity.this); innerRelativeLayout.setGravity(Gravity.CENTER); ImageButton imgBtn = new ImageButton(CalendarActivity.this); imgBtn.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.color_001); RelativeLayout.LayoutParams imageViewParams = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); imgBtn.setLayoutParams(imageViewParams); // Adding the textView to the inner RelativeLayout as a child innerRelativeLayout.addView(imgBtn, new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams( ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); outerRelativeLayout.addView(innerRelativeLayout, new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, ViewGroup.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); } while (c.moveToNext()); } } db.close(); But when i run the project, i can see only one button created there. I think there are many buttons but here image button is creating on last created image button. I think i should use android:layout_toRightOf with previous created button but i cant find how to place it here. I have tried some ideas but it did not change any thing. So please anybody has any idea to solve my problem then please share it with me.

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• How do I daemonize an arbitrary script in unix?

  - by dreeves

  I'd like a daemonizer that can turn an arbitrary, generic script or command into a daemon. There are two common cases I'd like to deal with: I have a script that should run forever. If it ever dies (or on reboot), restart it. Don't let there ever be two copies running at once (detect if a copy is already running and don't launch it in that case). I have a simple script or command line command that I'd like to keep executing repeatedly forever (with a short pause between runs). Again, don't allow two copies of the script to ever be running at once. Of course it's trivial to write a "while(true)" loop around the script in case 2 and then apply a solution for case 1, but a more general solution will just solve case 2 directly since that applies to the script in case 1 as well (you may just want a shorter or no pause if the script is not intended to ever die (of course if the script really does never die then the pause doesn't actually matter)). Note that the solution should not involve, say, adding file-locking code or PID recording to the existing scripts. More specifically, I'd like a program "daemonize" that I can run like % daemonize myscript arg1 arg2 or, for example, % daemonize 'echo `date` >> /tmp/times.txt' which would keep a growing list of dates appended to times.txt. (Note that if the argument(s) to daemonize is a script that runs forever as in case 1 above, then daemonize will still do the right thing, restarting it when necessary.) I could then put a command like above in my .login and/or cron it hourly or minutely (depending on how worried I was about it dying unexpectedly). NB: The daemonize script will need to remember the command string it is daemonizing so that if the same command string is daemonized again it does not launch a second copy. Also, the solution should ideally work on both OS X and linux but solutions for one or the other are welcome. (If I'm thinking of this all wrong or there are quick-and-dirty partial solutions, I'd love to hear that too.)

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• Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

  - by Saravanan AR

  To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

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• Combining two exe files

  - by Sophia

  Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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• Execute client & server side code with one click?

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am not sure if my design have flaw but would like to know what others have to say, i am in a situation where i am trying to acheive two things in one click. using : asp.net web form i have a web form with few textbox and a gridview control and a button. if i click on the button i am executing two things 1) asynchronously get data from server to client (working great) and able to display the data in the textboxes. 2) same click i want to bind the gridview. <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMaster" runat="server"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1' >Id:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtId" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" OnClientClick="LoadDataById();" runat="server" Text="Submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPurpose" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <br /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:Content> server side protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = laodData(int.Parse(txtId.Text)); GridView1.DataBind(); } Jquery: function LoadVisitBasicByVisitId() { ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "GetDataById", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; } recap: 1) jquery script execute asynchronously to get data from server to client and display in the textboxes 2) server side code to bind the gridview.

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• How would I automate my array to be used with cURL?

  - by Rob

  I have an array containing the contents of a MySQL table. I need to put each of these contents into curl_multi_handles so that I can execute them all simultaneously Here is the code for the array, in case it helps: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM urls") or die(mysql_error()); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $urls[]=$resultSet } So I need to put be able to send data to each url at the same time. I don't need to get any data back, and in fact I'll be having them time out after two seconds. It only needs to send the data and then close. My code prior to this, was executing them one at a time. here is that code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") or die(mysql_error()); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); So my question is: How can I load the contents of the array into curl_multi_handle, execute it, and then remove each handle and close the curl_multi_handle?

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• jQuery trigger custom event synchronously?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I am using the jQuery trigger method to call an event... but it behaves inconsistently. Sometimes it call the event, sometimes it does not. <a href="#" onclick=" $(this).trigger('custom-event'); window.location.href = 'url'; return false; ">text</a> The custom-event has lots of listeners added to it. It is as if the trigger method is not synchronous, allowing the window.location.href be changed before executing the events. And when window.location.href is changed a navigation occurs, interrupting everything. How can I trigger events synchronously? Using jQuery 1.8.1. Thanks! EDIT I have found that the event, when called has a stack trace like this: jQuery.fx.tick (jquery-1.8.1.js:9021) tick (jquery-1.8.1.js:8499) jQuery.Callbacks.self.fireWith (jquery-1.8.1.js:1082) jQuery.Callbacks.fire (jquery-1.8.1.js:974) jQuery.speed.opt.complete (jquery-1.8.1.js:8991) $.customEvent (myfile.js:28) This proves that jQuery trigger method is asynchronous. Oohhh my... =\

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• Batch file recursively find files and rar them

  - by b1gf00t

  Hi there, I have a Parent Directory which hosts many sub directories, and in every sub directory there is .mpg movies. Some of the directories might contain one or more .mpg movies. I would like to automate the process below, which I have been doing manually. Step One If the directory has more than 1 .mpg file, I create separates directories for each and move each file into its directory, naming the directory as per the name of the file. Step Two I rar each video file in its directory as per one of my profiles, by that it splits the movie into 50MB parts, test the archive, delete the source, and instructs winrar to wait if another rar is executing. I am doing this so I can queue jobs manually. Step Three After having all the rars in the sub directories, I start creating a checksum for every directory, therefore leaving checksum.sfv in every directory. Step Four I copy the parent folder and its sub directories to my external drives. I was hoping that someone could assist me in creating a script. I was able to automate the process of creating directories as per the name of the file, and moving the file. However, I never succeeded in automating Step two. I am using the below software Winrar from rarlabs exf from exactfile Appreciate your assistance.

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• Get parameter values from method at run time

  - by Landin Martens

  I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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• Error with `Thread.Sleep` during automatic testing on TeamCity 5

  - by yeyeyerman

  Hello, I'm having some problems executing the tests of the application I'm developing. All the tests execute normally with ReSharper and in NCover. However, the execution of one of these tests in TeamCity is generating an error. This test initializes two objects, the object under test and a simulator of a real object. Both objects will communicate throug a serial link in a representation of the real scenario. ObjectSimulator r_simulator = new ObjectSimulator(...); ObjectDriver r_driver = new ObjectDriver(...); Assert.IsTrue(r_driver.Connect() == ErrorCode.Success); The simulator just do the following in the constructor public class ObjectSimulator { ... public ObjectSimulator() { // serial port configuration m_port = new SerialPort(); m_port.DataReceived += DataReceivedEvent; } ... } The main object has two threads. The main thread of the application and a timer to refresh a watchdog timer in the real object. public ErrorCode Connect() { ... StartSynchroTimer(); Thread.Sleep(4); // to check if the timer is working properly ... } The problem seems to be comming from the Thread.Sleep() call, as when I remove it everything works. The ObjectSimulator somehow doesn't execute the DataReceived event callback. How can I resolve this issue?

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• Insert and remove Template textbox column in grid view

  - by user1545215

  class TextColumn : ITemplate { private string controlId; private string cssClass; public TextColumn(string id, string cssClass = "inputFromTo") { controlId = id; this.cssClass = cssClass; } public void InstantiateIn(Control container) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = controlId; txt.CssClass = cssClass; container.Visible = true; container.Controls.Add(txt); } } /******************* Add column code snippet ***************/ TemplateField dentry = new TemplateField(); TemplateField dexit = new TemplateField(); TemplateField dslack = new TemplateField(); dentry.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DEntry"); dexit.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DExit"); dslack.ItemTemplate = new TextColumn("txtHH" + nameCount + "DSlack"); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint, dentry); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint + 1, dexit); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.Insert(startPoint + 2, dslack); /***************** Remove column code snippet ************/ gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 1); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 2); gvOfcBlowingReport.Columns.RemoveAt(startPoint - 3); // after executing this code all the columns vanish. Anyone know how to remove this text box template column?

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• How to current snapshot of MySQL Table and store it into CSV file(after creating it) ?

  - by Rachel

  I have large database table, approximately 5GB, now I wan to getCurrentSnapshot of Database using "Select * from MyTableName", am using PDO in PHP to interact with Database. So preparing a query and then executing it // Execute the prepared query $result->execute(); $resultCollection = $result->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); is not an efficient way as lots of memory is being user for storing into the associative array data which is approximately, 5GB. My final goal is to collect data returned by Select query into an CSV file and put CSV file at an FTP Location from where Client can get it. Other Option I thought was to do: SELECT * INTO OUTFILE "c:/mydata.csv" FIELDS TERMINATED BY ',' OPTIONALLY ENCLOSED BY '"' LINES TERMINATED BY "\n" FROM my_table; But I am not sure if this would work as I have cron that initiates the complete process and we do not have an csv file, so basically for this approach, PHP Scripts will have to create an CSV file. Do a Select query on the database. Store the select query result into the CSV file. What would be the best or efficient way to do this kind of task ? Any Suggestions !!!

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• Pthread - setting scheduler parameters

  - by Andna

  I wanted to use read-writer locks from pthread library in a way, that writers have priority over readers. I read in my man pages that If the Thread Execution Scheduling option is supported, and the threads involved in the lock are executing with the scheduling policies SCHED_FIFO or SCHED_RR, the calling thread shall not acquire the lock if a writer holds the lock or if writers of higher or equal priority are blocked on the lock; otherwise, the calling thread shall acquire the lock. so I wrote small function that sets up thread scheduling options. void thread_set_up(int _thread) { struct sched_param *_param=malloc(sizeof (struct sched_param)); int *c=malloc(sizeof(int)); *c=sched_get_priority_min(SCHED_FIFO)+1; _param->__sched_priority=*c; long *a=malloc(sizeof(long)); *a=syscall(SYS_gettid); int *b=malloc(sizeof(int)); *b=SCHED_FIFO; if (pthread_setschedparam(*a,*b,_param) == -1) { //depending on which thread calls this functions, few thing can happen if (_thread == MAIN_THREAD) client_cleanup(); else if (_thread==ACCEPT_THREAD) { pthread_kill(params.main_thread_id,SIGINT); pthread_exit(NULL); } } } sorry for those a,b,c but I tried to malloc everything, still I get SIGSEGV on the call to pthread_setschedparam, I am wondering why?

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• The cross-thread usage of "HttpContext.Current" property and related things

  - by smwikipedia

  I read from < Essential ASP.NET with Examples in C# the following statement: Another useful property to know about is the static Current property of the HttpContext class. This property always points to the current instance of the HttpContext class for the request being serviced. This can be convenient if you are writing helper classes that will be used from pages or other pipeline classes and may need to access the context for whatever reason. By using the static Current property to retrieve the context, you can avoid passing a reference to it to helper classes. For example, the class shown in Listing 4-1 uses the Current property of the context to access the QueryString and print something to the current response buffer. Note that for this static property to be correctly initialized, the caller must be executing on the original request thread, so if you have spawned additional threads to perform work during a request, you must take care to provide access to the context class yourself. I am wondering about the root cause of the bold part, and one thing leads to another, here is my thoughts: We know that a process can have multiple threads. Each of these threads have their own stacks, respectively. These threads also have access to a shared memory area, the heap. The stack then, as I understand it, is kind of where all the context for that thread is stored. For a thread to access something in the heap it must use a pointer, and the pointer is stored on its stack. So when we make some cross-thread calls, we must make sure that all the necessary context info is passed from the caller thread's stack to the callee thread's stack. But I am not quite sure if I made any mistake. Any comments will be deeply appreciated. Thanks. ADD Here the stack is limited to user stack.

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• What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

  - by beemaster

  Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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• How do I pause main() until all other threads have died?

  - by thechiman

  In my program, I am creating several threads in the main() method. The last line in the main method is a call to System.out.println(), which I don't want to call until all the threads have died. I have tried calling Thread.join() on each thread however that blocks each thread so that they execute sequentially instead of in parallel. Is there a way to block the main() thread until all other threads have finished executing? Here is the relevant part of my code: public static void main(String[] args) { //some other initialization code //Make array of Thread objects Thread[] racecars = new Thread[numberOfRaceCars]; //Fill array with RaceCar objects for(int i=0; i<numberOfRaceCars; i++) { racecars[i] = new RaceCar(laps, args[i]); } //Call start() on each Thread for(int i=0; i<numberOfRaceCars; i++) { racecars[i].start(); try { racecars[i].join(); //This is where I tried to using join() //It just blocks all other threads until the current //thread finishes. } catch(InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } //This is the line I want to execute after all other Threads have finished System.out.println("It's Over!"); } Thanks for the help guys! Eric

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• svn copy causes "...(403 Forbidden) in reponse to PROPFIND", other actions work

  - by Hops

  Just for a short bit of background, the reason I'm tracking this particular subversion oddity down is because I found it troubleshooting our new Maven setup (specifically the release plugin). release:prepare gives me the same error buried in a stack trace. Executing this command... svn copy http://[server]/svn/tran1/myproject/trunk http://[server]/svn/tran1/myproject/tags/testtag ...gives me the following error: svn: Server sent unexpected return value (403 Forbidden) in response to PROPFIND request for '/svn/tran1' I thought this might be an authentication issue, but I'm able to do pretty much every other subversion thing I can think of. Checkout, add, commit and update all work from the command line. And here's where it gets really weird... I can create branches using Eclipse's Subclipse plugin. This might not be all that strange if Eclipse isn't actually doing an svn copy. tran1 also has a sibling subversion repository next to it. The copy command works fine there. The URL it's trying to get permission for also looks wrong. It's asking about /svn/tran1, when the permissions are set up one level deeper /svn/tran1/myproject/ Any ideas what might be causing my error? Thanks.

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• Why could "insert (...) values (...)" not insert a new row?

  - by nang

  Hi, I have a simple SQL insert statement of the form: insert into MyTable (...) values (...) It is used repeatedly to insert rows and usually works as expected. It inserts exactly 1 row to MyTable, which is also the value returned by the Delphi statement AffectedRows:= myInsertADOQuery.ExecSQL. After some time there was a temporary network connectivity problem. As a result, other threads of the same application perceived EOleExceptions (Connection failure, -2147467259 = unspecified error). Later, the network connection was reestablished, these threads reconnected and were fine. The thread responsible for executing the insert statement described above, however, did not perceive the connectivity problems (No exceptions) - probably it was simply not executed while the network was down. But after the network connectivity problems myInsertADOQuery.ExecSQL always returned 0 and no rows were inserted to MyTable anymore. After a restart of the application the insert statement worked again as expected. For SQL Server, is there any defined case where an insert statment like the one above would not insert a row and return 0 as the number of affected rows? Primary key is an autogenerated GUID. There are no unique or check constraints (which should result in an exception anyway rather than not inserting a row). Are there any known ADO bugs (Provider=SQLOLEDB.1)? Any other explanations for this behaviour? Thanks, Nang.

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• SAS V9.1.3 - Error when combining %INC and CALL EXECUTE

  - by Mark

  Hi, I am getting a resolution error with some SAS v9.1.3 code. Here is some code I want to store in a .txt file (called problem2.txt) and bring into SAS with a %INC %macro email020; %if &email = 1 %then %do; %put THIS RESOLVED AT 1; %end; %else %if &email = 2 %then %do; %put THIS RESOVLED AT 2; %end; %put _user_; %mend email020; %email020; Then this is the main code: filename problem2 'C:\Documents and Settings\Mark\My Documents\problem2.txt'; %macro report1; %let email = 1; %inc problem2; %mend report1; %macro report2 (inc); %let email = 2; %inc problem2; %mend report2; data test; run = 'YES'; run; data _null_; set test; call execute("%report1"); call execute("%report2"); run; The log shows: NOTE: CALL EXECUTE generated line. 1 + %inc problem2; MLOGIC(EMAIL020): Beginning execution. WARNING: Apparent symbolic reference EMAIL not resolved. ERROR: A character operand was found in the %EVAL function or %IF condition where a numeric operand is required. The condition was: &email = 1 ERROR: The macro EMAIL020 will stop executing. MLOGIC(EMAIL020): Ending execution. So the question is why does CALL EXECUTE generate %inc problem2 rather than %report1, causing SAS to miss the assignment and what can I do about it?

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• definition of wait-free (referring to parallel programming)

  - by tecuhtli

  In Maurice Herlihy paper "Wait-free synchronization" he defines wait-free: "A wait-free implementation of a concurrent data object is one that guarantees that any process can complete any operation in a finite number of steps, regardless the execution speeds on the other processes." www.cs.brown.edu/~mph/Herlihy91/p124-herlihy.pdf Let's take one operation op from the universe. (1) Does the definition mean: "Every process completes a certain operation op in the same finite number n of steps."? (2) Or does it mean: "Every process completes a certain operation op in any finite number of steps. So that a process can complete op in k steps another process in j steps, where k != j."? Just by reading the definition i would understand meaning (2). However this makes no sense to me, since a process executing op in k steps and another time in k + m steps meets the definition, but m steps could be a waiting loop. If meaning (2) is right, can anybody explain to me, why this describes wait-free? In contrast to (2), meaning (1) would guarantee that op is executed in the same number of steps k. So there can't be any additional steps m that are necessary e.g. in a waiting loop. Which meaning is right and why? Thanks a lot, sebastian

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• Jquery - $.(post) data response not consistent with PHP

  - by Sasha

  Jquery code: var code = $('#code'), id = $('input[name=id]').val(), url = '<?php echo base_url() ?>mali_oglasi/mgl_check_paid'; code.on('focusout', function(){ var code_value = $(this).val(); if(code_value.length != 16 ) { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; code.after('<p role=code_msg>Pogrešan kod je unešen.</p>'); } else { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; $.post(url, {id : id, code : code_value}, function(data){ if(data != 'TRUE'){ code.after('<p role=code_msg>Uneti kod je neispravan.</p>'); } else { code.after('<p role=code_msg>Status malog oglasa je promenjen.</p>'); code.after(create_image()); code.remove(); } }); } }); PHP (Codeigniter) code: function mgl_check_paid() { $code = $this->input->post('code'); $id = $this->input->post('id'); echo ($this->mgl->mgl_check_paid($code, $id)) ? 'TRUE' : 'FALSE'; } Problem is following: When code is sent and if it is correct, PHP part will echo TRUE, and JS will execute ELSE part (after post), but for some reason it is not doing that (it is executing the first part of the statment)? What is wrong with this code?

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• custom function is not getting called

  - by nectar

  here my code - $child1 = create_childid()."01"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child1', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); echo $newid; update_level(); $child2 = create_childid()."02"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child2', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child3 = create_childid()."03"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child3', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child4 = create_childid()."04"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child4', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); $child5 = create_childid()."05"; $sqltree = "INSERT INTO tbltree (`userId`, `level`, `superId`, `rootId`, `childcount`) VALUES ('$child5', '1', '$newid', '$myroot', '0');"; mysql_query($sqltree); update_level(); ERROR : update_level(); is executing only once why??

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• FileVersionInfo.GetVersionInfo getting old version of an exe swapped at runtime

  - by Richard

  I have a program executing in c# that is sometimes updated while it is running by swapping the exe to a new one. I want the program to routinely check if it has been updated and if so, restart. I use the following function to do this. public static bool DoINeedToRestart(string exe_name) { Version cur_version = new Version(MainProgram.StartVersion); Version file_version = new Version(GetProductVersion(exe_name)); MessageBox.Show("Comparing cur_version " + cur_version.ToString() + " with " + file_version.ToString()); if (file_version > cur_version) { return true; } return false; } public static string GetProductVersion(string path_name) { FileVersionInfo myFI = FileVersionInfo.GetVersionInfo(path_name); return myFI.FileVersion; } MainProgram.StartVersion is set when the program is started to be the current version using the GetProductVersion(exe_name) exe_name is set to be the name of the executable that is being updated. The problem I have is once the MainProgram.exe file has been updated (I verify this manually by looking at the file properties and checking the file version), the GetProductVersion still returns the old file version and I have no idea why! Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Convert binary unsigned vector to dec list

  - by Juan

  This code convert a unsigned long vector variable cR1 to NB_ERRORS numbers (in 'a' variable I print these numbers). for (l = 0; l < NB_ERRORS; ++l) { k = (l * EXT_DEGREE) / BIT_SIZE_OF_LONG; j = (l * EXT_DEGREE) % BIT_SIZE_OF_LONG; a = cR1[k] >> j; if(j + EXT_DEGREE > BIT_SIZE_OF_LONG) a ^= cR1[k + 1] << (BIT_SIZE_OF_LONG - j); a &= ((1 << EXT_DEGREE) - 1); printf("\na=%d\n",a); } For example I am have a cR1 with two elements that follow: 0,0,1,1,0,1,0,0,0,0,1,0,0,1,1,1,1,1,0,0,1,1,1,1,0,0,0,1,1,0,0,0,1,0,1,1,0,0,1,0,1,1,1,0,0,1,0,0,1,0,1,0,1,1,1,0,1,0,0,1,1,1,1,0, executing that code I get (44), (228, (243), (24), (77), (39), (117), (121). This code convert from right to left, I want modify to convert from right to left, Where I will be able to modify this? pdta: In the example case EXT_DEGREE = 8, BIT_SIZE_OF_LONG = 32

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• c# getting file version of a swapped exe at runtime

  - by Richard

  I have a program executing in c# that is sometimes updated while it is running by swapping the exe to a new one. I want the program to routinely check if it has been updated and if so, restart. I use the following function to do this. public static bool DoINeedToRestart(string exe_name) { Version cur_version = new Version(MainProgram.StartVersion); Version file_version = new Version(GetProductVersion(exe_name)); MessageBox.Show("Comparing cur_version " + cur_version.ToString() + " with " + file_version.ToString()); if (file_version > cur_version) { return true; } return false; } public static string GetProductVersion(string path_name) { FileVersionInfo myFI = FileVersionInfo.GetVersionInfo(path_name); return myFI.FileVersion; } StartVersion is set when the program is started to be the current version using the GetProductVersion(exe_name). exe_name is set to be the name of the executable that is being updated. The problem I have is once the MainProgram.exe file has been updated (I verify this manually by looking at the file properties and checking the file version), the GetProductVersion still returns the old file version and I have no idea why! Any help is greatly appreciated.

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