Search Results

Search found 49574 results on 1983 pages for 'key value observing'.

Page 100/1983 | < Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >

  • knockout bind text label to dropdown value selected option text

    - by Adam Levitt
    Is there a simple way to bind the textbox of a div to change based on the text value of the selected option in a dropdown on the same page? <div data-bind="text: dropdownValue"></div> <select> <option value="1">Value1</option> <option value="2">Value2</option> </select> Please note, I don't want to put the values into the select element using javascript. I'd like to bind to the value straight from the HTML. I can also include jQuery to make it work.

    Read the article

  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

    Read the article

  • How to test if a doctrine records has any relations that are used

    - by murze
    Hi, I'm using a doctrine table that has several optional relations (of types Doctrine_Relation_Association and Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) with other tables. How can I test if a record from that table has connections with records from the related table. Here is an example to make my question more clear. Assume that you have a User and a user has a many to many relation with Usergroups and a User can have one Userrole How can I test if a give user is part of any Usergroups or has a role. The solution starts I believe with $relations = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->getRelations(); $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->findOne(1); foreach($relations as $relation) { //here should go a test if the user has a related record for this relation if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_Association) { //here the related table probably has more then one foreign key (ex. user_id and group_id) } if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) { //here the related table probably has the primary key of this table (id) as a foreign key (user_id) } } //true or false echo $result I'm looking for a general solution that will work no matter how many relations there are between user and other tables. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • what if _POSIX_VDISABLE value is -1?

    - by Nagaraj
    In POSIX _POSIX_VDISABLE value if -1, there is no disabling character for special character for all the terminal device files; otherwise the value is the disabling character value.. Can please anyone help me understand this. I m not able to get the exact meaning of this. Please

    Read the article

  • pass jQuery value to php

    - by andrew
    Hi, for example, i have got this value in my php file: <script type="text/javascript"> function altcat(id) { $ogzu = id; } </script> i want to use $ogzu value in php. is it possible? can i pass a value to php from jquery? i need to learn this answer. can anyone help me please? thanks and regards edit: thanks for your kindly replies. i wanted to use $ogzu value in php like that: <?php echo "<a href='".$ogzu."'>test link</a>"; ?> well, i know its wrong. its already not working. i want to learn if we are able to use jquery values in php? thanks again friends. regards

    Read the article

  • Passing in a value to a usercontrol through a foreach loop

    - by LooDaFunk
    in my asp.net mark up I have a foreach loop that iterates through a simple list. In this foreach loop I am adding a new user control and attempting to pass in the value from the loop. However, this value just wont budge and get inside that damn control! Anyone have any suggestions? <%foreach (userInfo i in this.items) { %> <uc1:ItemControl ID="ItemControl" runat="server" UserID='<%#Eval("userID") %>'/> <%} %> userID is a public property in the control, when it goes to set, the value is just literally : <%#Eval("userID") %. I've tried #Bind and =Value but nothing seems to work. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

    Read the article

  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

    Read the article

  • How to get the Perticluar column value using jquery

    - by rockers
    I used this code to get the perticular column value using jquery.. $("#Grid td:first-child").click(function() { var resultArray = $(this).closest('tr').find('td').text(); alert(resultArray); }); How to get the peticular column value? that is I need grid 4th and 5th column value? thanks

    Read the article

  • Add every value in stack

    - by rezivor
    I am trying to figure out a method that will add every value in a stack. The goal is to use that value to determine if all the values in the stack are even. I have written to code to do this template <class Object> bool Stack<Object>::objectIsEven( Object value ) const { bool answer = false; if (value % 2 == 0) answer = true; return( answer ); } However, I am stumped on how to add all of the stack's values in a separate method

    Read the article

  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Remove a certain value from string which keeps on changing

    - by user2971375
    I m trying to make a utility to generate a Insert script of sql tables along with relational table. I got all the values in c#. Now I want to remove the one column name and its value from the script.most probably the identity column. Eg. The string I have (which keeps on changing with table name and varies) INSERT Core.Customers ([customerId],[customername],[customeradress],[ordernumber]) Values(123,N'Rahul',N'244 LIZ MORN',2334) NOW I know I have to remove CustomerId. (sometimes need to be replaces with @somevariable) Please give me an efficient way how to retrieve customerId value and Deleting column name and value . Conditions: insert script length and columns names keep changing. Method should return the deleted value. At some point of time customer id can be same as order id. In that case my string.remove method fails.

    Read the article

  • Get value of element in Multi-Dimensional Array

    - by George
    Here is my foreach loop to get at the values from a multi-dimensional array $_coloredvariables = get_post_meta( $post->ID, '_coloredvariables', true ); foreach ($_coloredvariables as $key => $value) { var_dump($value); } Which outputs this: array 'label' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'size' => string 'small' (length=5) 'displaytype' => string 'square' (length=6) 'values' => array 'dark-night-angel' => array 'type' => string 'Image' (length=5) 'color' => string '#2c4065' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'forest-green' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#285d5f' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'voilet' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#6539c9' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'canary-yellow' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string 'grey' (length=4) 'image' => string '' (length=0) And then to only get the values array I can do this: foreach ($_coloredvariables as $key => $value) { var_dump($value['values']); } which outputs this: array 'dark-night-angel' => array 'type' => string 'Image' (length=5) 'color' => string '#2c4065' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'forest-green' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#285d5f' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'voilet' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#6539c9' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'canary-yellow' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string 'grey' (length=4) 'image' => string '' (length=0) What I can't figure out is how to get these elements in the array structure "dark-night-angel", "forest-green", "voilet", "canary-yellow" Without using specific names: var_dump($value['values']['dark-night-angel']) Something that is more dynamic, of course this doesn't work: var_dump($value['values'][0][0]); thanks

    Read the article

  • Reverse alphabetic sort multidimensional PHP array maintain key

    - by useyourillusiontoo
    I'm dying here, any help would be great. I've got an array that I can sort a-z on the value of a specific key but cannot sort in reverse z-a. sample of my array which i'd like to sort by ProjectName (z-a): Array ( [0] => Array ( [count] => 1 [ProjectName] => bbcjob [Postcode] => 53.471922,-2.2996078 [Sector] => Public ) [1] => Array ( [count] => 1 [ProjectName] => commercial enterprise zone [Postcode] => 53.3742081,-1.4926439 [Sector] => Public ) [2] => Array ( [count] => 1 [ProjectName] => Monkeys eat chips [Postcode] => 51.5141492,-0.2271227 [Sector] => Private the desired results would be to maintain the entire array key - value structure but with the order: Monkeys eat chips Commericial enterprise zone bbcjob I hope this makes sense

    Read the article

  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

    Read the article

  • Unable to update value of Select from AngularJs

    - by Ahmad.Masood
    I am unable to update value of select from AngularJs. Here is my code <select ng-model="family.grade" > <option ng-repeat="option in options" value='{{option.id}}'>{{option.text}}</option> </select> Here are the options which i am using to populate my select var options = [{text:'Pre-K',id:'Pre-K'}, {text:'K',id:'K'}, {text:'1',id:'1'}, {text:'2',id:'2'}, {text:'3',id:'3'}, {text:'4',id:'4'}, {text:'5',id:'5'}, {text:'6',id:'6'}, {text:'7',id:'7'}, {text:'8',id:'8'}, {text:'+',id:'+'}]; Here is mu js code. $scope.$watch("family_member.date_of_birth" ,function(newValue, oldValue){ $scope.family.grade = "1" }) When ever value of family_member.date_of_birth changes it should set they value of select to 1. But this change is not visible on UI.

    Read the article

  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

    Read the article

  • Stop IE6 overwriting Button text when setting value.

    - by RoToRa
    I've got a button which contains a span I need for styling: <button id="example" name="example" value="Example"><span>Example</span></button> IE6 has a bug that it submits the contents of the button instead of it's value, but I've already worked around that. Now I need to change the value of the button and the text in the span in JavaScript/jQuery: jQuery("#example").val("Changed").children("span").text("Changed"); However IE6 also changes the contents of the button when setting the value per JavaScript/jQuery, so that the span is lost. Does any one know of a way other that identifying IE6 with jQuery.browser that I could use to avoid that?

    Read the article

  • Select a row having a column with max value - On a date range

    - by Abhi
    Excuse me for posting a similar question. Please consider this: date value 18/5/2010, 1 pm 40 18/5/2010, 2 pm 20 18/5/2010, 3 pm 60 18/5/2010, 4 pm 30 18/5/2010, 5 pm 60 18/5/2010, 6 pm 25 19/5/2010, 6 pm 300 19/5/2010, 6 pm 450 19/5/2010, 6 pm 375 20/5/2010, 6 pm 250 20/5/2010, 6 pm 310 The query is to get the date and value for each day such that the value obtained for that day is max. If the max value is repeated on that day, the lowest time stamp is selected. The result should be like: 18/5/2010, 3 pm 60 19/5/2010, 6 pm 450 20/5/2010, 6 pm 310 The query should take in a date range like the one given below and find results for that range in the above fashion: where date = to_date('26/03/2010','DD/MM/YYYY') AND date < to_date('27/03/2010','DD/MM/YYYY')

    Read the article

  • How to load an RSA key from binary data to an RSA structure using the OpenSSL C Library?

    - by Andreas Bonini
    Currently I have my private key saved in a file, private.key, and I use the following function to load it: RSA *r = PEM_read_RSAPrivateKey("private.key", NULL, NULL, NULL); This works perfectly but I'm not happy with the file-based format; I want to save my key in pure binary form (ie, no base64 or similar) in a char* variable and load/save the key from/to it. This way I have much more freedom: I'll be able to store the key directly into the application const char key[] { 0x01, 0x02, ... };, send it over a network socket, etc. Unfortunately though I haven't found a way to do that. The only way to save and load a key I know of reads/saves it to a file directly.

    Read the article

  • Different return value of an overridden class

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a simple but confusing question here. Is it legal to have a different return value type for overridden methods than the abstact ones defined in the base class?? I did that and the compiler didn't complain... could someone please explain? class MyBaseClass { int value; public: virtual int getValue() = 0; }; class MyClass : public MyBaseClass { double value; public: virtual double getValue(); // here!!! return is double, not int }; double MyClass::getValue() { return this->value; } The compiler totally accepted something similar (MSVC und MinGW)... could anyone please exaplain to what extent this is legal?

    Read the article

  • javascript filter nested object based on key value

    - by murray3
    I wish to filter a nested javascript object by the value of the "step" key: var data = { "name": "Root", "step": 1, "id": "0.0", "children": [ { "name": "first level child 1", "id": "0.1", "step":2, "children": [ { "name": "second level child 1", "id": "0.1.1", "step": 3, "children": [ { "name": "third level child 1", "id": "0.1.1.1", "step": 4, "children": []}, { "name": "third level child 2", "id": "0.1.1.2", "step": 5, "children": []} ]}, ]} ] }; var subdata = data.children.filter(function (d) { return (d.step <= 2)}); This just returns the unmodified nested object, even if I put value of filter to 1. does .filter work on nested objects or do I need to roll my own function here, advise and correct code appreciated. cjm

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >