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  • Stop output of image if no record - paperclip - Ruby on rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have just installed paperclip into my ruby on rails blog application. Everything is working great...too great. I am trying to figure out how to tell paperclip not to output anything if there is no record in the table so that I don't have broken image links everywhere. How, and where, do I do this? Here is my code: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "150x150"} validates_presence_of :body, :title has_many :comments, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :ugtags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :votes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user after_create :self_vote def self_vote # I am assuming you have a user_id field in `posts` and `votes` table. self.votes.create(:user => self.user) end cattr_reader :per_page @@per_page = 10 end View <% div_for post do %> <div id="post-wrapper"> <div id="post-photo"> <%= image_tag post.photo.url(:small) %> </div> <h2><%= link_to_unless_current h(post.title), post %></h2> <div class="light-color"> <i>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(post.created_at) %></i> ago </div> <%= simple_format truncate(post.body, :length => 600) %> <div id="post-options"> <%= link_to "Read More >>", post %> | <%= link_to "Comments (#{post.comments.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Strings (#{post.tags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Contributions (#{post.ugtags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Likes (#{post.votes.count})", post %> </div> </div> <% end %>

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  • Image_tag .blank? - paperclip - Ruby on rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have just installed paperclip into my ruby on rails blog application. Everything is working great...too great. I am trying to figure out how to tell paperclip not to output anything if there is no record in the table so that I don't have broken image links everywhere. How, and where, do I do this? Here is my code: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "150x150"} validates_presence_of :body, :title has_many :comments, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :ugtags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :votes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user after_create :self_vote def self_vote # I am assuming you have a user_id field in `posts` and `votes` table. self.votes.create(:user => self.user) end cattr_reader :per_page @@per_page = 10 end View <% div_for post do %> <div id="post-wrapper"> <div id="post-photo"> <%= image_tag post.photo.url(:small) %> </div> <h2><%= link_to_unless_current h(post.title), post %></h2> <div class="light-color"> <i>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(post.created_at) %></i> ago </div> <%= simple_format truncate(post.body, :length => 600) %> <div id="post-options"> <%= link_to "Read More >>", post %> | <%= link_to "Comments (#{post.comments.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Strings (#{post.tags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Contributions (#{post.ugtags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Likes (#{post.votes.count})", post %> </div> </div> <% end %>

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  • Awesome Read: Buck Woody&rsquo;s post on the proper use of the Windows Azure VM Role

    - by Enrique Lima
    I have heard some service providers (or cloud providers), hosting companies and such complain, criticize or even venture to call foul on Microsoft’s Azure VM Role.  The problem:  None of them have gone through the effort of truly understanding (or perhaps not wanting to know) what is going on there.  Many have jumped right into the “purist” definition of IaaS, or PaaS for that matter. Ok, Buck’s post is a true gem (my opinion) in the sense it gives you parallels of what the VM Role is and is not.  And it brings Hyper-V and SCVMM to the forefront explaining what it is and what it also offers to the IaaS Microsoft offers. Here is an excerpt of the summary, but please go on over to read his post it will clear a lot if you are wondering when and how to use the Windows Azure VM Role. The excerpt: “Virtualizing servers alone has limitations of scale, availability and recovery. Microsoft’s offering in this area is Hyper-V and System Center, not the VM Role. The VM Role is still used for running Stateless code, just like the Web and Worker Roles, with the exception that it allows you more control over the environment of where that code runs.” The source and post:  Buck Woody -http://blogs.msdn.com/b/buckwoody/archive/2010/12/28/the-proper-use-of-the-vm-role-in-windows-azure.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0

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  • FIX: Visual Studio Post Build Event Returns &ndash;1 when it should not.

    - by ChrisD
    I had written a Console Application that I run as part of my post build for other projects..  The Console application logs a series of messages to the console as it executes.  I use the Environment.ExitCode value to specify an error or success condition.  When the application executes without issue, the ExitCode is 0, when there is a problem its –1. As part of my logging, I log the value of the exit code right before the application terminates.  When I run this executable from the command line, it behaves as it should; error scenarios return –1 and success scenarios return 0.   When I run the same command line as part of the post-build event, Visual Studio reports the exit code as –1, even when the application reports the exit code as 0.   A snippet of the build output follows: Verbose: Exiting with ExitCode=0 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\Microsoft.Common.targets(3397,13): error MSB3073: The command ""MGC.exe" "-TargetPath=C:\TFS\Solutions\Research\Source\Framework\Services\Identity\STS\_STSBuilder\bin\Debug\_STSBuilder.dll" C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\Microsoft.Common.targets(3397,13): error MSB3073:  C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\Microsoft.Common.targets(3397,13): error MSB3073: " exited with code -1. The Application returns a 0 exit code.  But visual studio is reporting an error.  Why? The answer is in the way I format my log messages.  Apparently Visual Studio watches the messages that get streamed to the the output console.  If those messages match a pattern used by visual studio to communicate errors, Visual Studio assumes an error has occurred in the executable and returns a –1.  This post details the formats used by Visual Studio to determine error conditions. In my case, the presence of the colon was tripping up Visual studio.  I Replaced all occurrences of colon with an equal sign and Visual Studio once again respected the exit code of the application. Verbose= Exiting with ExitCode=0 ========== Build: 3 succeeded or up-to-date, 0 failed, 0 skipped ==========

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  • How to write comments to explain the "why" behind the callback function when the function and parameter names are insufficient for that?

    - by snowmantw
    How should I approach writing comments for callback functions? I want to explain the "why" behind the function when the function and parameter names are insufficient to explain what's going on. I have always wonder why comments like this can be so ordinary in documents of libraries in dynamic languages: /** * cb: callback // where's the arguments & effects? */ func foo( cb ) Maybe the common attitude is "you can look into source code on your own after all" which pushes people into leaving minimalist comments like this. But it seems like there should be a better way to comment callback functions. I've tried to comment callbacks in Haskell way: /** * cb: Int -> Char */ func foo(cb) And to be fair, it's usually neat enough. But it gets into trouble when I need to pass some complex structure. The problem being partly due to the lack of type system: /** * cb: Int -> { err: String -> (), success: () -> Char } // too long... */ func foo(cb) Or I have tried this too: /** * cb: Int -> { err: String -> (), * success: () -> Char } // better ? */ func bar(cb) The problem is that you may put the structure in somewhere else, but you must give it a name to reference it. But then when you name a structure you're about to use immediately looks so redundant: // Somewhere else... // ResultCallback: { err: String -> (), success: () -> Char } /** * cb: Int -> ResultCallback // better ?? */ func foo(cb) And it bothers me if I follow the Java-doc like commenting style since it still seems incomplete. The comments don't tell you anything that you couldn't immediately see from looking at the function. /** * @param cb {Function} yeah, it's a function, but you told me nothing about it... * @param err {Function} where should I put this callback's argument ?? * Not to mention the err's own arguments... */ func foo(cb) These examples are JavaScript like with generic functions and parameter names, but I've encountered similar problems in other dynamic languages which allow complex callbacks.

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  • How to read the xml file and write its content into a plain text file?

    - by CrazyNick
    How to read the below xml file and write its content into a plain text file? < compare < source d:\demo\< /source < destination e:\demo\< / destination < parameters < parameter FileName< /parameter < parameter Size< /parameter < parameterDate< /parameter < /parameters < /compare < compare < source d:\sample\< /source < destination e:\sample\< /destination < parameters < parameter Name< /parameter < parameter FullName< /parameter < parameter version< /parameter < parameter culture< /parameter < /parameters < /compare < /config -- Desired Output: d:\demo e:\demo FileName Size Date d:\sample e:\sample Name FullName Version Culture

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  • Jquery - How to make $.post() use contentType=application/json?

    - by JK.
    I've noticed that when using $.post() in jquery that the default contentType is application/x-www-form-urlencoded - when my asp.net mvc code needs to have contentType=application/json (See this question for why I must use application/json: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2792603/aspnet-mvc-why-is-modelstate-isvalid-false-the-x-field-is-required-when-that) How can I make $.post() send contentType=application/json? I already have a large number of $.post() functions, so I don't want to change to $.ajax() because it would take too much time If I try $.post(url, data, function(), "json") It still has contentType=application/x-www-form-urlencoded. So what exactly does the "json" param do if it does not change the contenttype to json? If I try $.ajaxSetup({ contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" }); That works but affects every single $.get and $.post that I have and causes some to break. So is there some way that I can change the behavior of $.post() to send contentType=application/json?

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  • Jquery - How to make $.post() use contentType=application/json?

    - by JK
    I've noticed that when using $.post() in jquery that the default contentType is application/x-www-form-urlencoded - when my asp.net mvc code needs to have contentType=application/json (See this question for why I must use application/json: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2792603/aspnet-mvc-why-is-modelstate-isvalid-false-the-x-field-is-required-when-that) How can I make $.post() send contentType=application/json? I already have a large number of $.post() functions, so I don't want to change to $.ajax() because it would take too much time If I try $.post(url, data, function(), "json") It still has contentType=application/x-www-form-urlencoded. So what exactly does the "json" param do if it does not change the contenttype to json? If I try $.ajaxSetup({ contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8" }); That works but affects every single $.get and $.post that I have and causes some to break. So is there some way that I can change the behavior of $.post() to send contentType=application/json?

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  • Is there a Linux kernel boot parameter to configure an IPv6 address?

    - by aef
    I know there is a parameter named ip which lets you configure IPv4 addresses on the Linux kernel through the boot loader. That looks like the following: ip=192.0.2.1::192.0.2.62:255.255.255.192::eth0:none I'm looking for an equal parameter for IPv6 configuration. I couldn't find anything about this in the kernel documentations. Update: Because of a lot of you asked why I would need this: The idea to use a kernel configuration came up related to this problem. I suspect the regular boot-up interface configuration is not done, because the interfaces are already up. The reason for this could be that I'm using a pre-boot environment with a Dropbear SSH server to allow me to unlock my encrypted root partition. The IP addresses for this environment are configured through GRUB with the ip= parameter. There is no DHCP or Router Advertisement available on that Ethernet segment and as this is the uplink segment provided by a large hosting company, there is no way to change that fact.

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  • Anti-Forgery Request in ASP.NET MVC and AJAX

    - by Dixin
    Background To secure websites from cross-site request forgery (CSRF, or XSRF) attack, ASP.NET MVC provides an excellent mechanism: The server prints tokens to cookie and inside the form; When the form is submitted to server, token in cookie and token inside the form are sent by the HTTP request; Server validates the tokens. To print tokens to browser, just invoke HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken():<% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: this.Html.AntiForgeryToken(Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)%> <%-- Other fields. --%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> which writes to token to the form:<form action="..." method="post"> <input name="__RequestVerificationToken" type="hidden" value="J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP" /> <!-- Other fields. --> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> and the cookie: __RequestVerificationToken_Lw__=J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP When the above form is submitted, they are both sent to server. [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute is used to specify the controllers or actions to validate them:[HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult Action(/* ... */) { // ... } This is very productive for form scenarios. But recently, when resolving security vulnerabilities for Web products, I encountered 2 problems: It is expected to add [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] to each controller, but actually I have to add it for each POST actions, which is a little crazy; After anti-forgery validation is turned on for server side, AJAX POST requests will consistently fail. Specify validation on controller (not on each action) Problem For the first problem, usually a controller contains actions for both HTTP GET and HTTP POST requests, and usually validations are expected for HTTP POST requests. So, if the [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] is declared on the controller, the HTTP GET requests become always invalid:[ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Index page cannot work at all. { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } If user sends a HTTP GET request from a link: http://Site/Some/Index, validation definitely fails, because no token is provided. So the result is, [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute must be distributed to each HTTP POST action in the application:public class SomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Works. { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } Solution To avoid a large number of [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attributes (one attribute for one HTTP POST action), I created a wrapper class of ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, where HTTP verbs can be specified:[AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class | AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { private readonly ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute _validator; private readonly AcceptVerbsAttribute _verbs; public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs) : this(verbs, null) { } public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs, string salt) { this._verbs = new AcceptVerbsAttribute(verbs); this._validator = new ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute() { Salt = salt }; } public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { string httpMethodOverride = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.GetHttpMethodOverride(); if (this._verbs.Verbs.Contains(httpMethodOverride, StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { this._validator.OnAuthorization(filterContext); } } } When this attribute is declared on controller, only HTTP requests with the specified verbs are validated:[ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapper(HttpVerbs.Post, Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller { // Actions for HTTP GET requests are not affected. // Only HTTP POST requests are validated. } Now one single attribute on controller turns on validation for all HTTP POST actions. Submit token via AJAX Problem For AJAX scenarios, when request is sent by JavaScript instead of form:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 // Token is not posted. }, callback); This kind of AJAX POST requests will always be invalid, because server side code cannot see the token in the posted data. Solution The token must be printed to browser then submitted back to server. So first of all, HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() must be called in the page where the AJAX POST will be sent. Then jQuery must find the printed token in the page, and post it:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1, __RequestVerificationToken: getToken() // Token is posted. }, callback); To be reusable, this can be encapsulated in a tiny jQuery plugin:(function ($) { $.getAntiForgeryToken = function () { // HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() must be invoked to print the token. return $("input[type='hidden'][name='__RequestVerificationToken']").val(); }; var addToken = function (data) { // Converts data if not already a string. if (data && typeof data !== "string") { data = $.param(data); } data = data ? data + "&" : ""; return data + "__RequestVerificationToken=" + encodeURIComponent($.getAntiForgeryToken()); }; $.postAntiForgery = function (url, data, callback, type) { return $.post(url, addToken(data), callback, type); }; $.ajaxAntiForgery = function (settings) { settings.data = addToken(settings.data); return $.ajax(settings); }; })(jQuery); Then in the application just replace $.post() invocation with $.postAntiForgery(), and replace $.ajax() instead of $.ajaxAntiForgery():$.postAntiForgery(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 }, callback); // Token is posted. This solution looks hard coded and stupid. If you have more elegant solution, please do tell me.

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  • dublicate display of Posts from controller - conditions and joins problem - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application using Ruby on Rails. In the application I have posts and tags. Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. In the /views/posts/index.html view I want to display two things. First is a listing of all posts displayed 'created_at DESC' and then in the side bar I am wanting to reference my Tags table, group records, and display as a link that allows for viewing all posts with that tag. With the code below, I am able to display the tag groups and succesfully display all posts with that tag. There are two problems with it thought. /posts view, the code seems to be referencing the Tag table and displaying the post multiple times, directly correlated to how many tags that post has. (i.e. if the post has 3 tags it will display the post 3 times). /posts view, only displays posts that have Tags. If the post doesn't have a tag, no display at all. /views/posts/index.html.erb <%= render :partial => @posts %> /views/posts/_post.html.erb <% div_for post do %> <h2><%= link_to_unless_current h(post.title), post %></h2> <i>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(post.created_at) %></i> ago <%= simple_format h truncate(post.body, :length => 300) %> <%= link_to "Read More", post %> | <%= link_to "View & Add Comments (#{post.comments.count})", post %> <hr/> <% end %> /models/post.rb class Post < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :body, :title has_many :comments, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy cattr_reader :per_page @@per_page = 10 end posts_controller.rb def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) @posts=Post.all(:joins => :tags,:conditions=>(params[:tag_name] ? { :tags => { :tag_name => params[:tag_name] }} : {} ) ).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

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  • Cryastl Reports is not recognizing that a new parameter has been added to the report's stored proc

    - by ann
    i have added another input parameter to a stored proc used by a crystal report. i've had our dba recompile the stp to be sure that the new parameter is cached and "really there". i cannot get my crystal report to recognize the new parameter -- i've tried verifying database and using the Set Datasource Location/Update to re-select the stp. i'm using cr11 against a 2005 sql server db. any other suggestions?

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  • What does the kernel boot parameter "set acpi_osi=Linux" do?

    - by AIB
    I am facing an issue with brightness control in my laptop which has Intel HD graphics. So when I searched for a fix I found that a common suggestion is to edit the GRUB file line, GRUB_CMDLINE_LINUX_DEFAULT="quiet splash" to GRUB_CMDLINE_LINUX_DEFAULT="quiet splash acpi_osi=Linux acpi_backlight=vendor" So could anyone tell me what the kernel boot option acpi_osi=Linux do? My OS is Ubuntu 10.10 64-bit version update The boot parameter acpi_osi is used as follows, acpi_osi= [HW,ACPI] Modify list of supported OS interface strings acpi_osi="string1" # add string1 -- only one string acpi_osi="!string2" # remove built-in string2 acpi_osi= # disable all strings But still I don't find a reason why this should fix any laptop issue!!

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  • will_paginate link to nested resources

    - by neotracker
    Hi, I'm using the will paginate gem from http://github.com/mislav/will_paginate Routes: map.resources :post do |post| post.resources :comments end Post Controller: @post = Post.first @comments = @post.comments.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 10 My problem lies in the view: <%= will_paginate @comments %> This generates links like /post/1?page=1 What I need is /post/1/comments?page=1 Is there a way to just tell will_paginate what url helper to use? (like post_comments_path) Any ideas?

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  • Callbacks: when to return value, and when to modify parameter?

    - by MarkN
    When writing a callback, when is best to have the callback return a value, and when is it best to have the callback modify a parameter? Is there a difference? For example, if we wanted to grab a list of dependencies, when would you do this: function GetDependencies(){ return [{"Dep1" : 1.1}, {"Dept2": 1.2}, {"Dep3" : 1.3}]; } And when would you do this? function RegisterDependencies(register){ register.add("Dep1", 1.1); register.add("Dep2", 1.2); register.add("Dep3", 1.3); }

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  • How do I remove only some values of a URL parameter in Google Analytics?

    - by Iain Hallam
    I'm using Google Analytics on a DokuWiki site, which uses a URL parameter to decide what to do with the current page: /page is equivalent to: /page?do=show 1) I want to see some of these "modes", but mostly I'd like them counted as viewing the bare page URL itself. The following are the only ones I want to see separately: /page?do=login /page?do=backlinks /page?do=revisions /page?do=subscribe How do I collapse the unwanted modes to the page itself (/page)? 2) Some modes do something that should really not have a page attached, such as: /page1?do=sitemap /page2?do=sitemap How do I get these to show up without the page part (/?do=sitemap)? 3) What do I do with the search mode? Can I remove the page part from this too, and still find out which page people used the search function on? /page?do=search&id=query+text

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  • Is it wrong to use a boolean parameter to determine behavior?

    - by Ray
    I have seen a practice from time to time that "feels" wrong, but I can't quite articulate what is wrong about it. Or maybe it's just my prejudice. Here goes: A developer defines a method with a boolean as one of its parameters, and that method calls another, and so on, and eventually that boolean is used, solely to determine whether or not to take a certain action. This might be used, for example, to allow the action only if the user has certain rights, or perhaps if we are (or aren't) in test mode or batch mode or live mode, or perhaps only when the system is in a certain state. Well there is always another way to do it, whether by querying when it is time to take the action (rather than passing the parameter), or by having multiple versions of the method, or multiple implementations of the class, etc. My question isn't so much how to improve this, but rather whether or not it really is wrong (as I suspect), and if it is, what is wrong about it.

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  • Passing parameters to service by URL - How do I discover the parameter names?

    - by VitalyB
    Hi, I have a report to which I have execute-only access - I don't have the access to the RDL file. This report exposes several parameters which I would like to set from URL. I've successfully changed some parameters using the standard param=data form (as explained here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms153586.aspx). However, some parameters don't have the same parameter-prompt and parameter-name. Unfortunately, to pass parameter values by URL I must know the name of the parameter and I don't see how I can deduct from the report and its parameters prompt text. I've tried to inspect the source and post-data but to no avail. Anyone has an idea? Thanks P.S I also stumbled on this: http://odetocode.com/Articles/123.aspx. However, I wasn't able to connect to the web-services of my report server.

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  • Alter a function as a parameter before evaluating it?

    - by Shane
    Is there any way, given a function passed as a parameter, to alter its input parameter string before evaluating it? Here's pseudo-code for what I'm hoping to achieve: test.func <- function(a, b) { # here I want to alter the b expression before evaluating it: b(..., val1=a) } Given the function call passed to b, I want to add in a as another parameter without needing to always specify ... in the b call. So the output from this test.func call should be: test.func(a="a", b=paste(1, 2)) "1" "2" "a"

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  • Alter a function as a parameter before evaluating it in R?

    - by Shane
    Is there any way, given a function passed as a parameter, to alter its input parameter string before evaluating it? Here's pseudo-code for what I'm hoping to achieve: test.func <- function(a, b) { # here I want to alter the b expression before evaluating it: b(..., val1=a) } Given the function call passed to b, I want to add in a as another parameter without needing to always specify ... in the b call. So the output from this test.func call should be: test.func(a="a", b=paste(1, 2)) "1" "2" "a" Edit: Another way I could see doing something like this would be if I could assign the additional parameter within the scope of the parent function (again, as pseudo-code); in this case a would be within the scope of t1 and hence t2, but not globally assigned: t2 <- function(...) { paste(a=a, ...) } t1 <- function(a, b) { local( { a <<- a; b } ) } t1(a="a", b=t2(1, 2)) This is somewhat akin to currying in that I'm nesting the parameter within the function itself. Edit 2: Just to add one more comment to this: I realize that one related approach could be to use "prototype-based programming" such that things would be inherited (which could be achieved with the proto package). But I was hoping for a easier way to simply alter the input parameters before evaluating in R.

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  • Are the contents in the front page considered as duplicate of the post?

    - by yibe
    I asked this same question on stackoverflow, but closed being off topic. Therefore, I am posting it here. In Wordpress blogs, the front page of the blog will display many posts in whole or excerpts. When the link to the post is clicked, the content will be opened with an other template file(single.php). Can we say that the content displayed in the front page and the post pages are considered as duplicate? Does it harm SEO in any way?

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  • Using a custom URL parameter in Wordpress (with permalinks)?

    - by kiko
    Hello - Is there a way to perhaps edit .htaccess to add a custom URL parameter to Wordpress, so that the parameter is not stripped out by permalinks? I have a Wordpress site with a page that queries a separate (non-Wordpress) database. I passed the URL parameter "pubID" to display individual books and it is working OK. Example: http://www.uglyducklingpresse.org/catalog/browse/item/?pubID=63 But the individual books are not showing up properly in Google - maybe because they all have the same auto-generated "canonical" URL meta tab - one with the "pubID" parameter stripped out. Thank you for any help.

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  • How to prevent users to change url parameter in PHP?

    - by Sachin
    I am developing a site where I am sending parameters like ids by url. I have used urlencode and base64encode to encode the parameters. My problem is that how can I prevent the users or hackers to play with url paramenters Or give access only if the parameter value is exist in database? I have at least 2 and at most 5 parameter in url so is this feasible to check every parameter is exist in database on every page? Thanks

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  • What is the maximum length of a string parameter to Stored procedure?

    - by padmavathi
    I have a string of length 1,44,000 which has to be passed as a parameter to a stored procedure which is a select query on a table. When a give this is in a query (in c# ) its working fine. But when i pass it as a parameter to stored procedure its not working. Here is my stored procedure where in i have declared this parameter as NVARCHAR(MAX) ------------------------------------------------------ set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON go CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ReadItemData](@ItemNames NVARCHAR(MAX),@TimeStamp as DATETIME) AS select * from ItemData where ItemName in (@ItemNames) AND TimeStamp=@TimeStamp --------------------------------------------------------------------- Here the parameter @ItemNames is a string concatinated with different names such as 'Item1','Item2','Item3'....etc. Can anyone tell what went wrong here? Thanks & Regards Padma

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  • Restrict type of method parameter with two or more class names?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, We can restrict type of method parameters; for example, we should say that function parameter should be an instance of object described in class with name "Some Class". function some_function(Some_Class $object) { } Is there any php native posibilities to restrict method parameter with two or more classes? For examle, "Some Class" or "Some Class2" or "Some Class3". Or maybe there is any way to restrict method parameter with classes which implements interface with name "Some_Interface"? Thank you.

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