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• Stumbling Through: Visual Studio 2010 (Part II)

  I would now like to expand a little on what I stumbled through in part I of my Visual Studio 2010 post and touch on a few other features of VS 2010.  Specifically, I want to generate some code based off of an Entity Framework model and tie it up to an actual data source.  Im not going to take the easy way and tie to a SQL Server data source, though, I will tie it to an XML data file instead.  Why?  Well, why not?  This is purely for learning, there are probably much better ways to get strongly-typed classes around XML but it will force us to go down a path less travelled and maybe learn a few things along the way.  Once we get this XML data and the means to interact with it, I will revisit data binding to this data in a WPF form and see if I cant get reading, adding, deleting, and updating working smoothly with minimal code.  To begin, I will use what was learned in the first part of this blog topic and draw out a data model for the MFL (My Football League) - I dont want the NFL to come down and sue me for using their name in this totally football-related article.  The data model looks as follows, with Teams having Players, and Players having a position and statistics for each season they played: Note that when making the associations between these entities, I was given the option to create the foreign key but I only chose to select this option for the association between Player and Position.  The reason for this is that I am picturing the XML that will contain this data to look somewhat like this: <MFL> <Position/> <Position/> <Position/> <Team>     <Player>         <Statistic/>     </Player> </Team> </MFL> Statistic will be under its associated Player node, and Player will be under its associated Team node no need to have an Id to reference it if we know it will always fall under its parent.  Position, however, is more of a lookup value that will not have any hierarchical relationship to the player.  In fact, the Position data itself may be in a completely different xml file (something Id like to play around with), so in any case, a player will need to reference the position by its Id. So now that we have a simple data model laid out, I would like to generate two things based on it:  A class for each entity with properties corresponding to each entity property An IO class with methods to get data for each entity, either all instances, by Id or by parent. Now my experience with code generation in the past has consisted of writing up little apps that use the code dom directly to regenerate code on demand (or using tools like CodeSmith).  Surely, there has got to be a more fun way to do this given that we are using the Entity Framework which already has built-in code generation for SQL Server support.  Lets start with that built-in stuff to give us a base to work off of.  Right click anywhere in the canvas of our model and select Add Code Generation Item: So just adding that code item seemed to do quite a bit towards what I was intending: It apparently generated a class for each entity, but also a whole ton more.  I mean a TON more.  Way too much complicated code was generated now that code is likely to be a black box anyway so it shouldnt matter, but we need to understand how to make this work the way we want it to work, so lets get ready to do some stumbling through that text template (tt) file. When I open the .tt file that was generated, right off the bat I realize there is going to be trouble there is no color coding, no intellisense no nothing!  That is going to make stumbling through more like groping blindly in the dark while handcuffed and hopping on one foot, which was one of the alternate titles I was considering for this blog.  Thankfully, the community comes to my rescue and I wont have to cast my mind back to the glory days of coding in VI (look it up, kids).  Using the Extension Manager (Available under the Tools menu), I did a quick search for tt editor in the Online Gallery and quickly found the Tangible T4 Editor: Downloading and installing this was a breeze, and after doing so I got some color coding and intellisense while editing the tt files.  If you will be doing any customizing of tt files, I highly recommend installing this extension.  Next, well see if that is enough help for us to tweak that tt file to do the kind of code generation that we wantDid you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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• Deadlock Analysis in NetBeans 8

  - by Geertjan

  Lock contention profiling is very important in multi-core environments. Lock contention occurs when a thread tries to acquire a lock while another thread is holding it, forcing it to wait. Lock contentions result in deadlocks. Multi-core environments have even more threads to deal with, causing an increased likelihood of lock contentions. In NetBeans 8, the NetBeans Profiler has new support for displaying detailed information about lock contention, i.e., the relationship between the threads that are locked. After all, whenever there's a deadlock, in any aspect of interaction, e.g., a political deadlock, it helps to be able to point to the responsible party or, at least, the order in which events happened resulting in the deadlock. As an example, let's take the handy Deadlock sample code from the Java Tutorial and look at the tools in NetBeans IDE for identifying and analyzing the code. The description of the deadlock is nice: Alphonse and Gaston are friends, and great believers in courtesy. A strict rule of courtesy is that when you bow to a friend, you must remain bowed until your friend has a chance to return the bow. Unfortunately, this rule does not account for the possibility that two friends might bow to each other at the same time. To help identify who bowed first or, at least, the order in which bowing took place, right-click the file and choose "Profile File". In the Profile Task Manager, make the choices below: When you have clicked Run, the Threads window shows the two threads are blocked, i.e., the red "Monitor" lines tell you that the related threads are blocked while trying to enter a synchronized method or block: But which thread is holding the lock? Which one is blocked by the other? The above visualization does not answer these questions. New in NetBeans 8 is that you can analyze the deadlock in the new Lock Contention window to determine which of the threads is responsible for the lock: Here is the code that simulates the lock, very slightly tweaked at the end, where I use "setName" on the threads, so that it's even easier to analyze the threads in the relevant NetBeans tools. Also, I converted the anonymous inner Runnables to lambda expressions. package org.demo; public class Deadlock { static class Friend { private final String name; public Friend(String name) { this.name = name; } public String getName() { return this.name; } public synchronized void bow(Friend bower) { System.out.format("%s: %s" + " has bowed to me!%n", this.name, bower.getName()); bower.bowBack(this); } public synchronized void bowBack(Friend bower) { System.out.format("%s: %s" + " has bowed back to me!%n", this.name, bower.getName()); } } public static void main(String[] args) { final Friend alphonse = new Friend("Alphonse"); final Friend gaston = new Friend("Gaston"); Thread t1 = new Thread(() -> { alphonse.bow(gaston); }); t1.setName("Alphonse bows to Gaston"); t1.start(); Thread t2 = new Thread(() -> { gaston.bow(alphonse); }); t2.setName("Gaston bows to Alphonse"); t2.start(); } } In the above code, it's extremely likely that both threads will block when they attempt to invoke bowBack. Neither block will ever end, because each thread is waiting for the other to exit bow. Note: As you can see, it really helps to use "Thread.setName", everywhere, wherever you're creating a Thread in your code, since the tools in the IDE become a lot more meaningful when you've defined the name of the thread because otherwise the Profiler will be forced to use thread names like "thread-5" and "thread-6", i.e., based on the order of the threads, which is kind of meaningless. (Normally, except in a simple demo scenario like the above, you're not starting the threads in the same class, so you have no idea at all what "thread-5" and "thread-6" mean because you don't know the order in which the threads were started.) Slightly more compact: Thread t1 = new Thread(() -> { alphonse.bow(gaston); },"Alphonse bows to Gaston"); t1.start(); Thread t2 = new Thread(() -> { gaston.bow(alphonse); },"Gaston bows to Alphonse"); t2.start();

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• "Phased" execution of functions in javascript

  - by FK82

  Hey there! This is my first post on stackoverflow, so please don't flame me too hard if I come across like a total nitwit or if I'm unable ot make myself perfectly clear. :-) Here's my problem: I'm trying to write a javascript function that "ties" two functions to another by checking the first one's completion and then executing the second one. The easy solution to this obviously would be to write a meta function that calls both functions within it's scope. However, if the first function is asynchronous (specifically an AJAX call) and the second function requires the first one's result data, that simply won't work. My idea for a solution was to give the first function a "flag", i.e. making it create a public property "this.trigger" (initialized as "0", set to "1" upon completion) once it is called; doing that should make it possible for another function to check the flag for its value ([0,1]). If the condition is met ("trigger == 1") the second function should get called. The following is an abstract example code that I have used for testing: <script type="text/javascript" > /**/function cllFnc(tgt) { //!! first function this.trigger = 0 ; var trigger = this.trigger ; var _tgt = document.getElementById(tgt) ; //!! changes the color of the target div to signalize the function's execution _tgt.style.background = '#66f' ; alert('Calling! ...') ; setTimeout(function() { //!! in place of an AJAX call, duration 5000ms trigger = 1 ; },5000) ; } /**/function rcvFnc(tgt) { //!! second function that should get called upon the first function's completion var _tgt = document.getElementById(tgt) ; //!! changes color of the target div to signalize the function's execution _tgt.style.background = '#f63' ; alert('... Someone picked up!') ; } /**/function callCheck(obj) { //alert(obj.trigger ) ; //!! correctly returns initial "0" if(obj.trigger == 1) { //!! here's the problem: trigger never receives change from function on success and thus function two never fires alert('trigger is one') ; return true ; } else if(obj.trigger == 0) { return false ; } } /**/function tieExc(fncA,fncB,prms) { if(fncA == 'cllFnc') { var objA = new cllFnc(prms) ; alert(typeof objA + '\n' + objA.trigger) ; //!! returns expected values "object" and "0" } //room for more case definitions var myItv = window.setInterval(function() { document.getElementById(prms).innerHTML = new Date() ; //!! displays date in target div to signalize the interval increments var myCallCheck = new callCheck(objA) ; if( myCallCheck == true ) { if(fncB == 'rcvFnc') { var objB = new rcvFnc(prms) ; } //room for more case definitions window.clearInterval(myItv) ; } else if( myCallCheck == false ) { return ; } },500) ; } </script> The HTML part for testing: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd > <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- see above --> </script> <title> Test page </title> </head> <body> <!-- !! testing area --> <div id='target' style='float:left ; height:6em ; width:8em ; padding:0.1em 0 0 0; font-size:5em ; text-align:center ; font-weight:bold ; color:#eee ; background:#fff;border:0.1em solid #555 ; -webkit-border-radius:0.5em ;' > Test Div </div> <div style="float:left;" > <input type="button" value="tie calls" onmousedown="tieExc('cllFnc','rcvFnc','target') ;" /> </div> <body> </html> I'm pretty sure that this is some issue with javascript scope as I have checked whether the trigger gets set to "1" correctly and it does. Very likely the "checkCall()" function does not receive the updated object but instead only checks its old instance which obviously never flags completion by setting "this.trigger" to "1". If so I don't know how to address that issue. Anyway, hope someone has an idea or experience with this particular kind of problem. Thanks for reading! FK

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• C# remote web request certificate error

  - by Ben

  Hi. I am currently integrating a payment gateway into an application. Following a successful transaction the remote payment gateway posts details of the transaction back to my application (ITN). It posts to a HttpHandler that is used to read and validate the data. Part of the validation performed is a POST made by the handler to a validation service provided by the payment gateway. This effectively posts some of the original form values received back to the payment gateway to ensure they are valid. The url that I am posting back to is: "https://sandbox.payfast.co.za/eng/query/validate" and the code I am using: /// <summary> /// Posts the data back to the payment processor to validate the data received /// </summary> public static bool ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) { bool isValid = true; try { using (WebClient client = new WebClient()) { string validateUrl = (UseSandBox) ? SandboxValidateUrl : LiveValidateUrl; byte[] responseArray = client.UploadValues(validateUrl, "POST", formVariables); // get the resposne and replace the line breaks with spaces string result = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(responseArray); result = result.Replace("\r\n", " ").Replace("\r", "").Replace("\n", " "); if (result == null || !result.StartsWith("VALID")) { isValid = false; LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.OrderError, "PayFast ITN validation failed", "The validation response was not valid."); } } } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.Unknown, "Unable to validate ITN data. Unknown exception", ex); isValid = false; } return isValid; } However, on calling WebClient.UploadValues the following exception is raised: System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for the SSL/TLS secure channel. ---> System.Security.Authentication.AuthenticationException: The remote certificate is invalid according to the validation procedure. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendAuthResetSignal(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest, Exception exception) at For the sake of brevity I haven't listed the full call stack (I can do if anyone thinks it will help). The remote certificate does appear to be valid. To get around the problem I did try adding a new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback that always returned true but just ended up getting the following exception: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.ServicePointManager.set_ServerCertificateValidationCallback(RemoteCertificateValidationCallback value) at NopSolutions.NopCommerce.Payment.Methods.PayFast.PayFastPaymentProcessor.ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) The action that failed was: Demand The type of the first permission that failed was: System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission The Zone of the assembly that failed was: MyComputer So I am not sure this will work in medium trust? Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Ben

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• Stop lazy loading or skip loading a property in NHibernate? Proxy cannot be serialized through WCF

  - by HelloSam

  Consider I have a parent, child relationship class and mapping. I am using NHibernate to read the object from the database, and intended to use WCF to send the object across the wire. Goal For reading the parent object, I want to selectively, at different execution path, decide when I would want to load the child object. Because I don't want to read more than what I needed. Those partially loaded object must be able to sent through WCF. When I mean I don't load it, neither side will access such property. Problem When such partially loaded object is being sent through WCF, as those property is marked as [DataContract], it cannot be serialized as the property is lazy load proxy instead of real known type. What I want to archive, or solution that I can think of lazy=false or lazy=true doesn't work. Former will eagerly fetch all the relationships, latter will create a proxy. But I want nothing instead - a null would be the best. I don't need lazy load. I hope to get a null for those references that I don't want to fetch. A null, but not just a proxy. This will makes WCF happy, and waste less time to have a lazy-load proxy constructed. Like could I have a null proxy factory? -OR- Or making WCF ignoring those property that's a proxy instead of real. I tried the IDataContractSurrogate solution, but only parent is passed to GetObjectToSerialize, I never observe an proxy being passed through GetObjectToSerialize, leaving no chance to un-proxy it. Edit After reading the comments, more surfing on the Internet... It seems to me that DTO would shift major part of the computation to the server side. But for the project I am working on, 50% of time the client is "smarter" than the server and the server is more like a data store with validation and verification. Though I agree the server is not exactly dumb - I have to decide when to fetch the extra references already, and DTO will make this very explicit. Maybe I should just take the pain. I didn't know http://automapper.codeplex.com/ before, this motivates me a little more to take the pain. On the other hand, I found http://trentacular.com/2009/08/how-to-use-nhibernate-lazy-initializing-proxies-with-web-services-or-wcf/, which seems to be working with IDataContractSurrogate.GetObjectToSerialize.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Updating a Linq-To-Sql Entity with an EntitySet

  - by Simon

  I have a Linq to Sql Entity which has an EntitySet. In my View I display the Entity with it's properties plus an editable list for the child entites. The user can dynamically add and delete those child entities. The DefaultModelBinder works fine so far, it correctly binds the child entites. Now my problem is that I just can't get Linq To Sql to delete the deleted child entities, it will happily add new ones but not delete the deleted ones. I have enabled cascade deleting in the foreign key relationship, and the Linq To Sql designer added the "DeleteOnNull=true" attribute to the foreign key relationships. If I manually delete a child entity like this: myObject.Childs.Remove(child); context.SubmitChanges(); This will delete the child record from the DB. But I can't get it to work for a model binded object. I tried the following: // this does nothing public ActionResult Update(int id, MyObject obj) // obj now has 4 child entities { var obj2 = _repository.GetObj(id); // obj2 has 6 child entities if(TryUpdateModel(obj2)) //it sucessfully updates obj2 and its childs { _repository.SubmitChanges(); // nothing happens, records stay in DB } else ..... return RedirectToAction("List"); } and this throws an InvalidOperationException, I have a german OS so I'm not exactly sure what the error message is in english, but it says something along the lines of that the entity needs a Version (Timestamp row?) or no update check policies. I have set UpdateCheck="Never" to every column except the primary key column. public ActionResult Update(MyObject obj) { _repository.MyObjectTable.Attach(obj, true); _repository.SubmitChanges(); // never gets here, exception at attach } I've read alot about similar "problems" with Linq To Sql, but it seems most of those "problems" are actually by design. So am I right in my assumption that this doesn't work like I expect it to work? Do I really have to manually iterate through the child entities and delete, update and insert them manually? For such a simple object this may work, but I plan to create more complex objects with nested EntitySets and so on. This is just a test to see what works and what not. So far I'm disappointed with Linq To Sql (maybe I just don't get it). Would be the Entity Framework or NHibernate a better choice for this scenario? Or would I run into the same problem?

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• Cross-table linq query with EF4/POCO

  - by Basiclife

  Hi All, I'm new to EF(any version) and POCO. I'm trying to use POCO entities with a generic repository in a "code-first" mode(?) I've got some POCO Entities (no proxies, no lazy loading, nothing). I have a repository(of T as Entity) which provides me with basic get/getsingle/getfirst functionality which takes a lambda as a parameter (specifically a System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) Now as I'm returning the simplest possible POCO object, none of the relationship parameters work once they've been retrieved from the database (as I would expect). However, I had assumed (wrongly) that my lambda query passed to the repository would be able to use the links between entities as it would be executed against the DB before the simple POCO entities are generated. The flow is: GUI calls: Public Function GetAllTypesForCategory(ByVal CategoryID As Guid) As IEnumerable(Of ItemType) Return ItemTypeRepository.Get(Function(x) x.Category.ID = CategoryID) End Function Get is defined in Repository(of T as Entity): Public Function [Get](ByVal Query As System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) As IEnumerable(Of T) Implements Interfaces.IRepository(Of T).Get Return ObjectSet.Where(Query).ToList() End Function The code doesn't error when this method is called but does when I try to use the result set. (This seems to be a lazy loading behaviour so I tried adding the .ToList() to force eager loading - no difference) I'm using unity/IOC to wire it all up but I believe that's irrelevant to the issue I'm having NB: Relationships between entities are being configured properly and if I turn on proxies/lazy loading/etc... this all just works. I'm intentionally leaving all that turned off as some calls to the BL will be from a website but some will be via WCF - So I want the simplest possible objects. Also, I don't want a change in an object passed to the UI to be committed to the DB if another BL method calls Commit() Can someone please either point out how to make this work or explain why it's not possible? All I want to do is make sure the lambda I pass in is performed against the DB before the results are returned Many thanks. In case it matters, the container is being populated with everything as shown below: Container.AddNewExtension(Of EFRepositoryExtension)() Container.Configure(Of IEFRepositoryExtension)(). WithConnection(ConnectionString). WithContextLifetime(New HttpContextLifetimeManager(Of IObjectContext)()). ConfigureEntity(New CategoryConfig(), "Categories"). ConfigureEntity(New ItemConfig()). ... )

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• Run MySQL INSERT Query multiple times (insert values into multiple tables)

  - by Derek

  Hi, basically, I have 3 tables; users and projects (which is a many-to-many relationship), then I have 'usersprojects' to allow the one-to-many formation. When a user adds a project, I need the project information stored and then the 'userid' and 'projectid' stored in the usersprojects table. It sounds like its really straight forward but I'm having problems with the syntax I think!? As it stands, I have this as my INSERT queries (values going into 2 different tables): $project_id = $_POST['project_id']; $projectname = $_POST['projectname']; $projectdeadline = $_POST['projectdeadline']; $projectdetails = $_POST['projectdetails']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "INSERT INTO projects (projectid, projectname, projectdeadline, projectdetails) VALUES ('{$projectid}','{$projectname}','{$projectdeadline}','{$projectdetails}')"; $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; None of the information is being stored in the projects table, but the user ID is being stored in the usersprojects table (but not project ID!?)... I did have it working where the project information is stored correctly with a project ID, before I added this bit: $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; But before the code above was put in, obviously no info is being stored in usersprojects table. The source code that links the script: <form id="addform" name="addform" method="POST" action="addproject-run.php"> <label>Project Name:</label> <input name="projectname" size="40" id="projectname" value="<?php if (isset($_POST['projectname'])); ?>"/><br /> <input name="user_id" input type="hidden" size="40" id="user_id" value="<?php echo $_SESSION['SESS_USERID']; ?>"/> <label>Project Deadline:</label> <input name="projectdeadline" size="40" id="projectdeadline" value="In the format of 'YYYY-MM-DD'<?php if (isset($_POST['projectdeadline'])); ?>"/><br /> <label>Project Details:</label> <textarea rows="5" cols="20" name="projectdetails" id="projectdetails"><?php if (isset($_POST['projectdetails'])); ?></textarea> <br /> <br /> <input value="Create Project" class="addbtn" type="submit" /> </form></div> So I think I'm right in saying I have the syntax for the SQL statement to be run an insert query of values into 2 tables? Any help is much appreciated! Thanks.

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• MVC2 Client validation with Annotations in View with RenderAction

  - by Olle

  I'm having problem with client side validation on a View that renders a dropdownlist with help of a Html.RenderAction. I have two controllers. SpecieController and CatchController and I've created ViewModels for my views. I want to keep it as DRY as possible and I will most probably need a DropDownList for all Specie elsewhere in the near future. When I create a Catch i need to set a relationship to one specie, I do this with an id that I get from the DropDownList of Species. ViewModels.Catch.Create [Required] public int Length { get; set; } [Required] public int Weight { get; set; } [Required] [Range(1, int.MaxValue)] public int SpecieId { get; set; } ViewModels.Specie.List public DropDownList(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> species) { this.Species = species; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Species { get; private set; } My View for the Catch.Create action uses the ViewModels.Catch.Create as a model. But it feels that I'm missing something in the implemetation. What I want in my head is to connect the selected value in the DropDownList that comes from the RenderAction to my SpecieId. View.Catch.Create <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%-- Before DRY refactoring, works like I want but not DRY <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.SpecieId, Model.Species) %> --%> <% Html.RenderAction("DropDownList", "Specie"); %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> CatchController.Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(ViewModels.CatchModels.Create myCatch) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Can we make this StronglyTyped? int specieId = int.Parse(Request["Species"]); // Save to db Catch newCatch = new Catch(); newCatch.Length = myCatch.Length; newCatch.Weight = myCatch.Weight; newCatch.Specie = SpecieService.GetById(specieId); newCatch.User = UserService.GetUserByUsername(User.Identity.Name); CatchService.Save(newCatch); } This scenario works but not as smooth as i want. ClientSide validation does not work for SpecieId (after i refactored), I see why but don't know how I can ix it. Can I "glue" the DropDownList SelectedValue into myCatch so I don't need to get the value from Request["Species"] Thanks in advance for taking your time on this.

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• Sharing a UIView between UIViewControllers in a UITabBarController

  - by Wireless Designs

  Hi all - I have a UIScrollView that houses a gallery of images the user can scroll through. This view needs to be visible on each of three separate UIViewControllers that are housed within a UITabBarController. Right now, I have three separate UIScrollView instances in the UITabBarController subclass, and the controller manages keeping the three synchronized (when a user scrolls the one they can see, programmatically scrolling the other two to match, etc.), which is not ideal. I would like to know if there is a way to work with only ONE instance of the UIScrollView, but have it show up only in the UIViewController that the user is currently interacting with. This would completely eliminate all the synchronization code. Here is basically what I have now in the UITabBarController (which is where all this is currently managed): @interface ScrollerTabBarController : UITabBarController { FirstViewController *firstView; SecondViewController *secondView; ThirdViewController *thirdView; UIScrollView *scrollerOne; UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; UIScrollView *scrollerThree; } @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet FirstViewController *firstView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet SecondViewController *secondView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet ThirdViewController *thirdView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerOne; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerThree; @end @implementation ScrollerTabBarController - (void)layoutScroller:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)scrollToMatch:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)viewDidLoad { [self layoutScroller:scrollerOne]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerTwo]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerThree]; [scrollerOne setDelegate:self]; [scrollerTwo setDelegate:self]; [scrollerThree setDelegate:self]; [firstView setGallery:scrollerOne]; [secondView setGallery:scrollerTwo]; [thirdView setGallery:scrollerThree]; } - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self scrollToMatch:scrollView]; } @end The UITabBarController gets notified (as the scroll view's delegate) when the user scrolls one of the instances, and then calls methods like scrollToMatch: to sync up the other two with the user's choice. Is there something that can be done, using a many-to-one relationship on IBOutlet or something like that, to narrow this down to one instance so I'm not having to manage three scroll views? I tried keeping a single instance and moving the pointer from one view to the next using the UITabBarControllerDelegate methods (calling setGallery:nil on the current and setGallery:scrollerOne on the next each time it changed), but the scroller never moved to the other tabs. Thanks in advance!

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• Deletes not cascading for self-referencing entities

  - by jwaddell

  I have the following (simplified) Hibernate entities: @Entity @Table(name = "package") public class Package { protected Content content; @OneToOne(cascade = {javax.persistence.CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "content_id") @Fetch(value = FetchMode.JOIN) public Content getContent() { return content; } public void setContent(Content content) { this.content = content; } } @Entity @Table(name = "content") public class Content { private Set<Content> subContents = new HashSet<Content>(); private ArchivalInformationPackage parentPackage; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "subcontents", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "content_id")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "elt")}) @Cascade(value = {org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE, org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.REPLICATE}) @Fetch(value = FetchMode.SUBSELECT) public Set<Content> getSubContents() { return subContents; } public void setSubContents(Set<Content> subContents) { this.subContents = subContents; } @ManyToOne(cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "parent_package_id") public Package getParentPackage() { return parentPackage; } public void setParentPackage(Package parentPackage) { this.parentPackage = parentPackage; } } So there is one Package, which has one "top" Content. The top Content links back to the Package, with cascade set to ALL. The top Content may have many "sub" Contents, and each sub-Content may have many sub-Contents of its own. Each sub-Content has a parent Package, which may or may not be the same Package as the top Content (ie a many-to-one relationship for Content to Package). The relationships are required to be ManyToOne (Package to Content) and ManyToMany (Content to sub-Contents) but for the case I am currently testing each sub-Content only relates to one Package or Content. The problem is that when I delete a Package and flush the session, I get a Hibernate error stating that I'm violating a foreign key constraint on table subcontents, with a particular content_id still referenced from table subcontents. I've tried specifically (recursively) deleting the Contents before deleting the Package but I get the same error. Is there a reason why this entity tree is not being deleted properly? EDIT: After reading answers/comments I realised that a Content cannot have multiple Packages, and a sub-Content cannot have multiple parent-Contents, so I have modified the annotations from ManyToOne and ManyToMany to OneToOne and OneToMany. Unfortunately that did not fix the problem. I have also added the bi-directional link from Content back to the parent Package which I left out of the simplified code.

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• link_to passing paramater and display problem - tag feature - Ruby on Rails

  - by bgadoci

  I have gotten a great deal of help from KandadaBoggu on my last question and very very thankful for that. As we were getting buried in the comments I wanted to break this part out. I am attempting to create a tag feature on the rails blog I am developing. The relationship is Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. Adding and deleting tags to posts are working great. In my /view/posts/index.html.erb I have a section called tags where I am successfully querying the Tags table, grouping them and displaying the count next to the tag_name (as a side note, I mistakenly called the column containing the tag name, 'tag_name' instead of just 'name' as I should have) . In addition the display of these groups are a link that is referencing the index method in the PostsController. That is where the problem is. When you navigate to /posts you get an error because there is no parameter being passed (without clicking the tag group link). I have the .empty? in there so not sure what is going wrong here. Here is the error and code: Error You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.empty? /views/posts/index.html.erb <% @tag_counts.each do |tag_name, tag_count| %> <tr> <td><%= link_to(tag_name, posts_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %></td> <td>(<%=tag_count%>)</td> </tr> <% end %> PostsController def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) @posts=Post.all(:joins => :tags,:conditions=>(params[:tag_name].empty? ? {}: { :tags => { :tag_name => params[:tag_name] }} ) ) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

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• How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

  - by Martin

  By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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• Best practices for sending automated daily emails from web service

  - by Tauren

  I am running a web service that currently sends confirmation emails out to new users via the gmail smtp servers. As I'm only getting a few new users each day, this hasn't been a problem. I've recently added new features to the webapp that will require a customized message to be sent out to each user every day. Think of this as similar to the regular messages LinkedIn sends out that give you a status report on the activity in your network. Every user's message will be different. With thousands of users, this means thousands of unique messages will be sent each day. Edit: I've since found that these types of email are called "transactional or relationship messages". Spamtacular has a good article on differentiating between marketing and transactional email. I don't think using gmail's smtp servers will cut it anymore, but I don't know that for sure. I don't know what gmail's maximum outgoing messages per account is (it might be 100/day), but they limit outgoing mail to 500 recipients per message. I'm not sending a single message to 500 recipients, but I'm going to be sending 1000's of customized messages with each recipient getting one per day. I'm interested to learn any best practices for doing this (especially for Java-based webapps). Here are some of my thoughts and concerns on it: Should I set up my own outgoing mail server? If I do this, it seems like I'll have all sorts of other issues to worry about, such as preventing mail server abuse, monitoring bounces, allowing ways to opt-out of emails, etc. Are there any tools or services to help with this? Maybe something like OpenEMM or a services like MailChimp? But those seem focused more toward email marketing campaigns. I don't think I should have the webapp itself handle sending emails as it currently is for new user signups. I'm thinking I should setup a separate messaging server that can access the same backend/datastore as the webapp. Thoughts on this? Should I consider setting up some sort of message queueing service to help with this, such as JMS, RabbitMQ, ActiveMQ, etc.? Do I need to provide users a way to opt-out? Do I need to flag these as bulk messages? I don't really consider these email marketing messages, but I'm unsure what is considered appropriate or proper netiquette. Any advice is appreciated. I'm also very interested in open source tools or web services that simplify things and could help me to ramp up as quickly as possible. Thanks!

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• Nhibernate One-to-one mapping issue with child object insert error

  - by TalkDotNet

  Hi, i've being banging my head against the desk all day with the following Nhibernate problem. Each bank account has one (and only one) set of rates associated with it. The primary key of the bank account table, BankAccountID is also a foreign key and the primary key in the rates table. public class BankAccount { public virtual int BankAccountId { get; set; } public virtual string AccountName { get; set;} public virtual AccountRate AccountRate {get;set;} } public class AccountRate { public virtual int BankAccountId { get; set; } public virtual decimal Rate1 { get; set; } public virtual decimal Rate2 { get; set; } } I have the following HBM mappings for BankAccount: <class name="BankAccount" table="BankAccount"> <id name ="BankAccountId" column="BankAccountId"> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property"> AccountRate </param> </generator> </id> <property name ="AccountName" column="AccountName" /> <one-to-one name="AccountRate" class="AccountRate" constrained="true" cascade="save-update"/> </class> and the following for AccountRate: <class name="AccountRate" table="AccountRate"> <id name ="BankAccountId" column="BankAccountId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name ="Rate1" column="Rate1" /> <property name ="Rate2" column="Rate2" /> </class> An existing BankAccount object can be read from the database with no problem. However, when a new BankAccount is created , the insert statement fails with; Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'BankAccountId' The issue appears to be that the child object , AccountRate is created first and since it hasn't yet got an identifier from its uncreated parent , the insert fails. I think i'm correct in saying that if the AccountRate property on BankAccount was a collection i could use the following ? Inverse=True in order to force the parent to be inserted first. Can anyone help me with this? i Really dont want to use a collection as there is only a unidirectional one to one relationship between these tables. Thanks Paul

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• Crazy VS Designer Errors

  - by BlueRaja

  Here's a strange one. After renaming a class, one of my forms began giving me errors in the designer, refusing to open. Funny thing is, the form worked just fine when I ran the program. I began reverting my changes to deduce the problem. I have now reverted completely back to the last commit - in which I know the form was working in the designer - cleaned the solution, and deleted the bin/ and obj/ folders, as well as the *.suo file for good measure. The form still does not display in designer. Here are the errors it gives: Could not find 'MyNamespace.MyControl'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built. The variable 'myControl1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. The variable is both declared and assigned, and MyControl builds fine (again, the form works fine when the program is actually run). Stranger still, if I try to create a new form and drag a MyControl onto it, I get this Entity-Framework error: Failed to create component 'MyControl'. The error message follows: 'System.ArgumentException: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.ChangeConnectionString(String newConnectionString) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContect.CreateEntityConnection(String connectionString) etc. etc. There is nothing wrong with my connection string: it worked before, and, again, it works when I actually run the program (the control already exists on the old form from the previous commit). Any ideas whatsoever? I am completely at a loss. [Edit] The only significant code: MyControl.cs public MyControl() { _entities = new MyEFEntities(); //Entity-framework generated class } MyForm.Designer.cs private void InitializeComponent() { this.myControl1 = new MyNamespace.MyControl(); ... this.Controls.Add(this.myControl1); } MyEFDatabase.Designer.cs public MyEFEntities() : base("name=MyEFEntities", "MyEFEntities") { ... } App.Config <connectionStrings> <add name="MyEFEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/MyEFDatabase.csdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.ssdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MyDatabaseServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> I've tried the "replace &quot; with '" trick - didn't help. [Edit2] It is happening to new projects also, but not immediately. Only after fiddling around a bit (it has something to do with adding a many-to-one relationship that EF did not figure out on its own), but I can't figure out the exact steps to reproduce.

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• Fluent NHibernate Self Referencing Many To Many

  - by Jeremy

  I have an entity called Books that can have a list of more books called RelatedBooks. The abbreviated Book entity looks something likes this: public class Book { public virtual long Id { get; private set; } public virtual IList<Book> RelatedBooks { get; set; } } Here is what the mapping looks like for this relationship HasManyToMany(x => x.RelatedBooks) .ParentKeyColumn("BookId") .ChildKeyColumn("RelatedBookId") .Table("RelatedBooks") .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); Here is a sample of the data that is then generated in the RelatedBooks table: BookId RelatedBookId 1 2 1 3 The problem happens when I Try to delete a book. If I delete the book that has an ID of 1, everything works ok and the RelatedBooks table has the two corresponding records removed. However if I try to delete the book with an ID of 3, I get the error "The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK5B54405174BAB605". The conflict occurred in database "Test", table "dbo.RelatedBooks", column 'RelatedBookId'". Basically what is happening is the Book cannot be deleted because the record in the RelatedBooks table that has a RelatedBookId of 3 is never deleted. How do I get that record to be deleted when I delete a book? EDIT After changing the Cascade from SaveUpdate() to All(), the same problem still exists if I try to delete the Book with an ID of 3. Also with Cascade set to All(), if delete the Book with and ID of 1, then all 3 books (ID's: 1, 2 and 3) are deleted so that won't work either. Looking at the SQL that is executed when the Book.Delete() method is called when I delete the Book with an ID of 3, it looks like the SELECT statement is looking at the wrong column (which I assume means that the SQL DELETE statment would make the same mistake, therefore never removing that record). Here is the SQL for the RelatedBook SELECT relatedboo0_.BookId as BookId3_ , relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId as RelatedB2_3_ , book1_.Id as Id14_0_ FROM RelatedBooks relatedboo0_ left outer join [Book] book1_ on relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId=book1_.Id WHERE relatedboo0_.BookId=3 The WHERE statment should look something like this for thie particular case: WHERE relatedboo0_.RelatedBookId = 3 SOLUTION Here is what I had to do to get it working for all cases Mapping: HasManyToMany(x => x.RelatedBooks) .ParentKeyColumn("BookId") .ChildKeyColumn("RelatedBookId") .Table("RelatedBooks"); Code: var book = currentSession.Get<Book>(bookId); if (book != null) { //Remove all of the Related Books book.RelatedBooks.Clear(); //Get all other books that have this book as a related book var booksWithRelated = currentSession.CreateCriteria<Book>() .CreateAlias("RelatedBooks", "br") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("br.Id", book.Id)) .List<Book>(); //Remove this book as a Related Book for all other Books foreach (var tempBook in booksWithRelated) { tempBook.RelatedBooks.Remove(book); tempBook.Save(); } //Delete the book book.Delete(); }

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• In MySQL, what is the most effective query design for joining large tables with many to many relatio

  - by lighthouse65

  In our application, we collect data on automotive engine performance -- basically source data on engine performance based on the engine type, the vehicle running it and the engine design. Currently, the basis for new row inserts is an engine on-off period; we monitor performance variables based on a change in engine state from active to inactive and vice versa. The related engineState table looks like this: +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ | vehicle | engine | engine_state | state_start_time | state_end_time | engine_variable | +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ | 080025 | E01 | active | 2008-01-24 16:19:15 | 2008-01-24 16:24:45 | 720 | | 080028 | E02 | inactive | 2008-01-24 16:19:25 | 2008-01-24 16:22:17 | 304 | +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ For a specific analysis, we would like to analyze table content based on a row granularity of minutes, rather than the current basis of active / inactive engine state. For this, we are thinking of creating a simple productionMinute table with a row for each minute in the period we are analyzing and joining the productionMinute and engineEvent tables on the date-time columns in each table. So if our period of analysis is from 2009-12-01 to 2010-02-28, we would create a new table with 129,600 rows, one for each minute of each day for that three-month period. The first few rows of the productionMinute table: +---------------------+ | production_minute | +---------------------+ | 2009-12-01 00:00 | | 2009-12-01 00:01 | | 2009-12-01 00:02 | | 2009-12-01 00:03 | +---------------------+ The join between the tables would be engineState AS es LEFT JOIN productionMinute AS pm ON es.state_start_time <= pm.production_minute AND pm.production_minute <= es.event_end_time. This join, however, brings up multiple environmental issues: The engineState table has 5 million rows and the productionMinute table has 130,000 rows When an engineState row spans more than one minute (i.e. the difference between es.state_start_time and es.state_end_time is greater than one minute), as is the case in the example above, there are multiple productionMinute table rows that join to a single engineState table row When there is more than one engine in operation during any given minute, also as per the example above, multiple engineState table rows join to a single productionMinute row In testing our logic and using only a small table extract (one day rather than 3 months, for the productionMinute table) the query takes over an hour to generate. In researching this item in order to improve performance so that it would be feasible to query three months of data, our thoughts were to create a temporary table from the engineEvent one, eliminating any table data that is not critical for the analysis, and joining the temporary table to the productionMinute table. We are also planning on experimenting with different joins -- specifically an inner join -- to see if that would improve performance. What is the best query design for joining tables with the many:many relationship between the join predicates as outlined above? What is the best join type (left / right, inner)?

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• Flex barChart and XML Data

  - by theband

  <Projectlist> <Project> <ProjectName>Alcoswitch - ToggleSwitches </ProjectName> <ProjectStatusname>Planning</ProjectStatusname> </Project> <Project> <ProjectName> Transverse Wedge</ProjectName> <ProjectStatusname>Canceled</ProjectStatusname> </Project> <Project> <ProjectName>High Speed Pluggable I/O</ProjectName> <ProjectStatusname>In-Progress</ProjectStatusname> </Project> <Project> <ProjectName>"High Speed Pluggable I/O - Product Breakouts:</ProjectName> <ProjectStatusname>In-Progress</ProjectStatusname> </Project> <Project> <ProjectName>Circular Plastic Connector (CPC)</ProjectName> <ProjectStatusname>In-Progress</ProjectStatusname> </Project> </Projectlist> This is my XML data i am recieving, how can i show this in a bar chart. <mx:BarChart id="barChart" showDataTips="true" dataProvider="{ProjectStateInfo}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis categoryField="ProjectStatusname"/> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:verticalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis categoryField="ProjectName"/> </mx:verticalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:BarSeries id="barSeries" visible="true" yField="ProjectName" xField="ProjectStatusname" displayName="ProjectStatusname" /> </mx:series> </mx:BarChart> My X-Axis shows muliple values of In-Progress, but i just need one. Is it possible to represent such relationship using BarChart. Any other Flex chart is Advisable.

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• Rails scalar query

  - by Craig

  I need to display a UI element (e.g. a star or checkmark) for employees that are 'favorites' of the current user (another employee). The Employee model has the following relationship defined to support this: has_and_belongs_to_many :favorites, :class_name => "Employee", :join_table => "favorites", :association_foreign_key => "favorite_id", :foreign_key => "employee_id" The favorites has two fields: employee_id, favorite_id. If I were to write SQL, the following query would give me the results that I want: SELECT id, account, IF( ( SELECT favorite_id FROM favorites WHERE favorite_id=p.id AND employee_id = ? ) IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees Where the '?' would be replaced by the session[:user_id]. How do I represent the isFavorite scalar query in Rails? Another approach would use a query like this: SELECT id, account, IF(favorite_id IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites f ON e.id=f.favorite_id AND employee_id = ? Again, the '?' is replaced by the session[:user_id] value. I've had some success writing this in Rails: ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>"LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=1", :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Unfortunately, when I try to make this query 'dynamic' by replacing the '1' with a '?', I get errors. ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>["LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?",1], :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Obviously, I have the syntax wrong, but can :joins expressions be 'dynamic'? Is this a case for a Lambda expression? I do hope to add other filters to this query and use it with will_paginate and acts_as_taggable_on, if that makes a difference. edit errors from trying to make :joins dynamic: ActiveRecord::ConfigurationError: Association named 'LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?' was not found; perhaps you misspelled it? from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1906:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1911:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `each' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1830:in `initialize' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `new' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `add_joins!' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1686:in `construct_finder_sql' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1548:in `find_every' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:615:in `find'

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• Dynamic Linq help, different errors depending on object passed as parameter?

  - by sah302

  I have an entityDao that is inherbited by everyone of my objectDaos. I am using Dynamic Linq and trying to get some generic queries to work. I have the following code in my generic method in my EntityDao : public abstract class EntityDao<ImplementationType> where ImplementationType : Entity { public ImplementationType getOneByValueOfProperty(string getProperty, object getValue){ ImplementationType entity = null; if (getProperty != null && getValue != null) { LCFDataContext lcfdatacontext = new LCFDataContext(); //Generic LINQ Query Here entity = lcfdatacontext.GetTable<ImplementationType>().Where(getProperty + " =@0", getValue).FirstOrDefault(); //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) } //lcfdatacontext.SubmitChanges() //lcfdatacontext.Dispose() return entity; } }         Then I do the following method call in a unit test (all my objectDaos inherit entityDao): [Test] public void getOneByValueOfProperty() { Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("AccomplishmentType.Name", "Publication"); Assert.IsNotNull(result); } The above passes (AccomplishmentType has a relationship to accomplishment) Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Description", "Can you hear me now?"); Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("LocalId", 4); Both of the above work Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Id", New Guid("95457751-97d9-44b5-8f80-59fc2d170a4c"))       Does not work and says the following: Operator '=' incompatible with operand types 'Guid' and 'Guid Why is this happening? Guid's can't be compared? I tried == as well but same error. What's even moreso confusing is that every example of Dynamic Linq I have seen simply usings strings whether using the parameterized where predicate or this one I have commented out: //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) With or without the Cstr, many datatypes don't work with this format. I tried setting the getValue to a string instead of an object as well, but then I just get different errors (such as a multiword string would stop comparison after the first word). What am I missing to make this work with GUIDs and/or any data type? Ideally I would like to be able to just pass in a string for getValue (as I have seen for every other dynamic LINQ example) instead of the object and have it work regardless of the data Type of the column.

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• LINQ to SQL Could not find key member. Only fails on server.

  - by Adam Carr

  I have a scenario where I am inheriting from an abstract class in my partial linq to sql auto generated class implementation. My base abstract class has an abstract property called ID which I have flagged inside my LINQ to SQL model with the instance modifier override. This works fine locally without any issues. I have also done some development on another machine and it works fine there too (both in VS2008 and using Subversion). I am running CI with TeamCity and the build succeeds and deploys as desired. The problem is when the server tries to hit the database for the first time via the LINQ to SQL data context, it generates the following error. "Could not find key member 'Id' of key 'Id' on type 'CustomType'. The key may be wrong or the field or property on 'CustomType' has changed names." I have tried changing my configuration by not implementing the Id field in my base class but this still fails. Why does it work on both of my DEV machines but not on the server? I am using LINQ to SQL in another project that runs on this server just fine. FYI: LINQ to SQL, SQL 2008, .NET 3.5, SERVER 2008, IIS 7.0 UPDATE I have gone back and added the same table a second time in the same data model but without a base class and have then displayed the results from that table and got no errors. This tells me it has something to do with my base abstract class and the need to flag a property on one of my linq to sql model classes (that belongs to a key relationship) with the instance modifier of override. No answer to this yet but am getting closer. UPDATE I have fixed my issue by simply changing my approach to my problem but I am still interested in why this doesn't work. I created a new WinSrv2008 VPC and patched it, deployed a pre-built version of my site to it and still got the same error. I now assume the issue is like what the person said here, a dependency issue with VS2008. My question is what or what? Will install VS2008 on the VPC to see if it works after that.

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• Evaluating points in time by months, but without referencing years in Rails

  - by MikeH

  FYI, There is some overlap in the initial description of this question with a question I asked yesterday, but the question is different. My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true When you use discard_year => true, Rails sets a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to either 0001 or 0002 in our app. Yes, we could make it 2009 and 2010 or any other pair. But the point is that we want the months and days to function independent of a particular year. If we used 2009 and 2010, then those dates would be wrong next year because we don't expect these records to be updated every year. My problem is that we need to dynamically evaluate the availability of products based on their relationship to the current month. For example, assume it's March 15. Regardless of the year, I need a method that can tell me that a product available from October to January is not available right now. If we were using actual years, this would be pretty easy. For example, in the products model, I can do this: def is_available? (season_start.past? && season_end.future?) end I can also evaluate a start_date and an end_date against current_date However, in setup I've described above where we have arbitrary years that only make sense relative to each other, these methods don't work. For example, is_available? would return false for all my products because their end date is in the year 0001 or 0002. What I need is a method just like the ones I used as examples above, except that they evaluate against current_month instead of current_date, and past? and future months instead of years. I have no idea how to do this or whether Rails has any built in functionality that could help. I've gone through all the date and time methods/helpers in the API docs, but I'm not seeing anything equivalent to what I'm describing. Thanks.

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• How to create Query syntax for multiple DataTable for implementing IN operator of Sql Server

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I have fetched 3-4 tables by executing my stored procedure. Now they resides on my dataset. I have to maintain this dataset for multiple forms and I am not doing any DML operation on this dataset. Now this dataset contains 4 tables out of which i have to fetch some records to display data. Data stored in tables are in form of one to many relationship. i.e. In case of transactions. N records per record. Then these N records are further mapped to M records of 3rd table. Table 1 MAP_ID GUEST_ID DEPARTMENT_ID PARENT_ID PREFERENCE_ID -------------------- -------------------- -------------------- -------------------- -------------------- 19 61 1 1 5 14 61 1 5 15 15 61 2 4 10 18 61 2 13 23 17 61 2 20 26 16 61 40 40 41 20 62 1 5 14 21 62 1 5 15 22 62 1 6 16 24 62 2 3 4 23 62 2 4 9 27 62 2 13 23 25 62 2 20 24 26 62 2 20 25 28 63 1 1 5 29 63 1 1 8 34 63 1 5 15 30 63 2 4 10 33 63 2 4 11 31 63 2 13 23 32 63 40 40 41 35 65 1 NULL 1 36 65 1 NULL 1 38 68 2 13 22 37 68 2 20 25 39 68 2 23 27 40 92 1 NULL 1 Table 2 Department_ID Department_Name Parent_Id Parent_Name -------------------- ----------------------- --------------- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 1 Food 1, 5, 6 Food, North Indian, South Indian 2 Lodging 3, 4, 13, 20, 23 Room, Floor, Non Air Conditioned, With Balcony, Without Balcony 40 New 40 SubNew TABLE 3 Parent_Id Parent_Name Preference_ID Preference_Name -------------------- ----------------------------------------------- ----------------------- ------------------- NULL NULL NULL NULL 1 Food 5, 8 North Indian, Italian 3 Room 4 Floor 4 Floor 9, 10, 11 First, Second, Third 5 North Indian 14, 15 X, Y 6 South Indian 16 Dosa 13 Non Air Conditioned 22, 23 With Balcony, Without Balcony 20 With Balcony 24, 25, 26 Mountain View, Ocean View, Garden View 23 Without Balcony 27 Mountain View 40 New 41 SubNew I have these 3 tables that are related in some fashion like this. Table 1 will be the master for these 2 tables i.e. table 2 and table 3. I need to query on them as SELECT Department_Id, Department_Name, Parent_Name FROM Table2 WHERE Department_Id in ( SELECT Department_Id FROM Table1 WHERE guest_id=65 ) SELECT Parent_Id, Parent_Name, Preference_Name FROM Table3 WHERE PARENT_ID in ( SELECT parent_id FROM Table1 WHERE guest_id=65 ) Now I need to use these queries on DataTables. So I am using Query Syntax for this and reached up to this point. var dept_list= from dept in DtMapGuestDepartment.AsEnumerable() where dept.Field<long>("PK_GUEST_ID")==long.Parse(63) select dept; This should give me the list of all departments that has guest id =63 Now I want to select all departments_name and parent_name from Table 2 where guest_id=63 i.e. departments that i fetched above. This same case will be followed for Table3. Please suggest how to do this. Thanks for keeping up patience for reading my question.

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