Search Results

Search found 3566 results on 143 pages for 'care'.

Page 103/143 | < Previous Page | 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110  | Next Page >

  • When is LINQ (to objects) Overused?

    - by Mystagogue
    My career started as a hard-core functional-paradigm developer (LISP), and now I'm a hard-care .net/C# developer. Of course I'm enamored with LINQ. However, I also believe in (1) using the right tool for the job and (2) preserving the KISS principle: of the 60+ engineers I work with, perhaps only 20% have hours of LINQ / functional paradigm experience, and 5% have 6 to 12 months of such experience. In short, I feel compelled to stay away from LINQ unless I'm hampered in achieving a goal without it (wherein replacing 3 lines of O-O code with one line of LINQ is not a "goal"). But now one of the engineers, having 12 months LINQ / functional-paradigm experience, is using LINQ to objects, or at least lambda expressions anyway, in every conceivable location in production code. My various appeals to the KISS principle have not yielded any results. Therefore... What published studies can I next appeal to? What "coding standard" guideline have others concocted with some success? Are there published LINQ performance issues I could point out? In short, I'm trying to achieve my first goal - KISS - by indirect persuasion. Of course this problem could be extended to countless other areas (such as overuse of extension methods). Perhaps there is an "uber" guide, highly regarded (e.g. published studies, etc), that takes a broader swing at this. Anything?

    Read the article

  • How to force two process to run on the same CPU?

    - by kovan
    Context: I'm programming a software system that consists of multiple processes. It is programmed in C++ under Linux. and they communicate among them using Linux shared memory. Usually, in software development, is in the final stage when the performance optimization is made. Here I came to a big problem. The software has high performance requirements, but in machines with 4 or 8 CPU cores (usually with more than one CPU), it was only able to use 3 cores, thus wasting 25% of the CPU power in the first ones, and more than 60% in the second ones. After many research, and having discarded mutex and lock contention, I found out that the time was being wasted on shmdt/shmat calls (detach and attach to shared memory segments). After some more research, I found out that these CPUs, which usually are AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon, use a memory system called NUMA, which basically means that each processor has its fast, "local memory", and accessing memory from other CPUs is expensive. After doing some tests, the problem seems to be that the software is designed so that, basically, any process can pass shared memory segments to any other process, and to any thread in them. This seems to kill performance, as process are constantly accessing memory from other processes. Question: Now, the question is, is there any way to force pairs of processes to execute in the same CPU?. I don't mean to force them to execute always in the same processor, as I don't care in which one they are executed, altough that would do the job. Ideally, there would be a way to tell the kernel: If you schedule this process in one processor, you must also schedule this "brother" process (which is the process with which it communicates through shared memory) in that same processor, so that performance is not penalized.

    Read the article

  • Image Conversion from Bitmap to Icon doesn't seem to work

    - by contactmatt
    I have a simple function that takes a bitmap, and converts the bitmap to an ICON format. Below is the function. (I placed literal values in place of the variables) Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap(@"C:\temp\mypicture.jpeg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 16, 16); bmp.Save("@C:\temp\mypicture2.ico", ImageFormat.Icon) It doesn't seem to be converting correctly...or so I think. After the image is converted, some browsers do not reconigze the image as a true "ICON" , and even Visual Studio 2008 doesn't reconigze the image as an icon after its converted to an Icon format. For example, I was going to set the Icon property for my Win32 form app with the Icon i just converted. I open the dialouge box and select the icon I just converted and get the following error. -- "Argument 'picture' must be a picture that can be used as a Icon." I've browsed the web and come across complicated code where people take the time to manually convert the bitmap to different formats, but I would think the above code should work, and that the .NET framework would take care of this conversion.

    Read the article

  • x86 opcode alignment references and guidelines

    - by mrjoltcola
    I'm generating some opcodes dynamically in a JIT compiler and I'm looking for guidelines for opcode alignment. 1) I've read comments that briefly "recommend" alignment by adding nops after calls 2) I've also read about using nop for optimizing sequences for parallelism. 3) I've read that alignment of ops is good for "cache" performance Usually these comments don't give any supporting references. Its one thing to read a blog or a comment that says, "its a good idea to do such and such", but its another to actually write a compiler that implements specific op sequences and realize most material online, especially blogs, are not useful for practical application. So I'm a believer in finding things out myself (disassembly, etc. to see what real world apps do). This is one case where I need some outside info. I notice compilers will usually start an odd byte instruction immediately after whatever previous instruction sequence there was. So the compiler is not taking any special care in most cases. I see "nop" here or there, but usually it seems nop is used sparingly, if at all. How critical is opcode alignment? Can you provide references for cases that I can actually use for implementation? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • My SqlComand on SSIS - DataFlow OLE DB Command seems not works

    - by Angel Escobedo
    Hello Im using OLE DB Source for get rows from a dBase IV file and it works, then I split the data and perform a group by with aggregate component. So I obtain a row with two columns with "null" value : CompanyID | CompanyName | SubTotal | Tax | TotalRevenue Null Null 145487 27642.53 173129.53 this success because all rows have been grouped with out taking care about the firsts columns and just Summing the valuable columns, so I need to change that null for default values as CompanyID = "100000000" and CompanyName = "Others". I try use SqlCommand on a OLE DB Command Component : SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC <property id="1505" name="SqlCommand" dataType="System.String" state="default" isArray="false" description="The SQL command to be executed." typeConverter="" UITypeEditor="Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls.ModalMultilineStringEditor, Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91" containsID="false" expressionType="Notify">SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC</property> but nothings happens, why? and finally the task finish when the data is inserted on a SQL Server Table. Im using the same connection manager on extracting data and transform. (View Code) <DTS:Property DTS:Name="ConnectionString">Data Source=C:\CONTA\Resocen\Agosto\;Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Persist Security Info=False;Extended Properties=dBASE IV;</DTS:Property></DTS:ConnectionManager></DTS:ObjectData></DTS:ConnectionManager> all work is on memory, Im not using cache manager connections

    Read the article

  • Java Generics: Dealing with an intermediate unknown type

    - by Matt
    I am trying to figure out a way to deal with a particular problem in a type safe manner, or to put it more specifically without any explicit casts. I have a class that takes in a generic request and returns a generic response like such: public class RetrievalProcessor<Req extends Request, Resp> implements RequestProcessor<Req, Resp>{ private Dao<Req> dao; private RawResponseTransformer<Resp> transformer; @Override public Resp process(Req request) { return transformer.transformResponse(dao.retrieveRawResponse(request)); } } My problem is the following. My Dao object can be many different things REST, JDBC, some other proprietary object. I can't be certain of the type of object that the Dao will return. I do know the type of object my caller would like and that is the Resp type on the generic, and the job of the RawResponseTransformer is to transform that Dao response into something that the caller can consume. The problem I have is I can't figure out a way that feels clean to do that. I have considered putting the intermediate type as part of the definition of the class, but it doesn't seem like the caller should know, or really care, what the intermediate form is. Hoping someone might have a good clean idea for handling this.

    Read the article

  • Books and resources for Java Performance tuning - when working with databases, huge lists

    - by Arvind
    Hi All, I am relatively new to working on huge applications in Java. I am working on a Java web service which is pretty heavily used by various clients. The service basically queries the database (hibernate) and then works with a lot of Lists (there are adapters to convert list returned from DB to the interface which the service publishes) and I am seeing lot of issues with the service like high CPU usage or high heap space. While I can troubleshoot the performance issues using a profiler, I want to actually learn about what all I need to take care when I actually write code. Like what kind of List to use or things like using StringBuilder instead of String, etc... Is there any book or blogs which I can refer which will help me while I write new services? Also my application is multithreaded - each service call from a client is a new thread, and I want to know some best practices around that area as well. I did search the web but I found many tips which are not relevant in the latest Java 6 releases, so wanted to know what kind of resources would help a developer starting out now on Java for heavily used applications. Arvind

    Read the article

  • Perl XML SAX parser emulating XML::Simple record for record

    - by DVK
    Short Q summary: I am looking a fast XML parser (most likely a wrapper around some standard SAX parser) which will produce per-record data structure 100% identical to those produced by XML::Simple. Details: We have a large code infrastructure which depends on processing records one-by-one and expects the record to be a data structure in a format produced by XML::Simple since it always used XML::Simple since early Jurassic era. An example simple XML is: <root> <rec><f1>v1</f1><f2>v2</f2></rec> <rec><f1>v1b</f1><f2>v2b</f2></rec> <rec><f1>v1c</f1><f2>v2c</f2></rec> </root> And example rough code is: sub process_record { my ($obj, $record_hash) = @_; # do_stuff } my $records = XML::Simple->XMLin(@args)->{root}; foreach my $record (@$records) { $obj->process_record($record) }; As everyone knows XML::Simple is, well, simple. And more importantly, it is very slow and a memory hog - due to being a DOM parser and needing to build/store 100% of data in memory. So, it's not the best tool for parsing an XML file consisting of large amount of small records record-by-record. However, re-writing the entire code (which consist of large amount of "process_record"-like methods) to work with standard SAX parser seems like an big task not worth the resources, even at the cost of living with XML::Simple. What I'm looking for is an existing module which will probably be based on a SAX parser (or anything fast with small memory footprint) which can be used to produce $record hashrefs one by one based on the XML pictured above that can be passed to $obj->process_record($record) and be 100% identical to what XML::Simple's hashrefs would have been. I don't care much what the interface of the new module is - e.g whether I need to call next_record() or give it a callback coderef accepting a record.

    Read the article

  • .NET projects build automation with NAnt/MSBuild + SVN

    - by petr k.
    Hi everyone, for quite a while now, I've been trying to figure out how to setup an automated build process at our shop. I've read many posts and guides on this matter and none of them really fits my specifics needs. My SVN repository is laid out as follows \projects \projectA (a product) \tags \1.0.0.1 \1.0.0.2 ... \trunk \src \proj1 (a VS C# project) \proj2 \documentation Then I have a network share, with a folder for each project (product), which in turn contains the binaries, written documentation and the generated API documentation (via NDoc - each project may have an .ndoc file in the repository) for every historical version (from the tags SVN folder) and for the latest version as well (from the trunk). Basically, what I want to do in a scheduled batch build are these steps: examine the project's SVN folder and identify tags not present in the network share for each of these tags check out the tag folder build (with Release config) copy the resulting binaries to the network share search for .ndoc files generate CHM files via NDoc copy the resulting CHM files to the network share do the same as in 2., but for the HEAD revision of trunk Now, the trouble is, I have no idea where to start. I do not keep .sln files in the repository, but I am able to replace these with MSBuild files which in turn build the C# projects belonging to the specific product. I guess the most troubling part is the examination of the repository for tags which have not been processed yet - i.e. searching the tags and comparing them to a project's directory structure on the network share. I have no idea how to do that in any of the build tools (NAnt, MSBuild). Could you please provide me with some pointers on how to approach this task as a whole and in detail as well? I do not care if I use NAnt, MSBuild, or both. I am aware that this might be rather complex, but every idea and NAnt/MSBuild snippet will be a great help. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate

    - by beaufabry
    Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate Specifically, using Attributes for the mappings. Currently I have this working mapping the collection as type Int32 and NH seems to take care of it, but it's not exactly ideal. The error I receive is "Unable to determine type" when trying to map the collection as of the type of the enum I am trying to map. I found a post that said to define a class as public class CEnumType : EnumStringType { public CEnumType() : base(MyEnum) { } } and then map the enum as CEnumType, but this gives "CEnumType is not mapped" or something similar. So has anyone got experience doing this? So anyway, just a simple reference code snippet to give an example with [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Class(Table = "OurClass")] public class CClass : CBaseObject { public enum EAction { do_action, do_other_action }; private IList<EAction> m_class_actions = new List<EAction>(); [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Bag(0, Table = "ClassActions", Cascade="all", Fetch = CollectionFetchMode.Select, Lazy = false)] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Key(1, Column = "Class_ID")] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Element(2, Column = "EAction", Type = "Int32")] public virtual IList<EAction> Actions { get { return m_class_actions; } set { m_class_actions = value;} } } So, anyone got the correct attributes for me to map this collection of enums as actual enums? It would be really nice if they were stored in the db as strings instead of ints too but it's not completely necessary.

    Read the article

  • Creating A Single Generic Handler For Agatha?

    - by David
    I'm using the Agatha request/response library (and StructureMap, as utilized by Agatha 1.0.5.0) for a service layer that I'm prototyping, and one thing I've noticed is the large number of handlers that need to be created. It generally makes sense that any request/response type pair would need their own handler. However, as this scales to a large enterprise environment that's going to be A LOT of handlers. What I've started doing is dividing up the enterprise domain into logical processor classes (dozens of processors instead of many hundreds or possibly eventually thousands handlers). The convention is that each request/response type (all of which inherit from a domain base request/response pair, which inherit from Agatha's) gets exactly one function in a processor somewhere. The generic handler (which inherits from Agatha's RequestHandler) then uses reflection in the Handle method to find the method for the given TREQUEST/TRESPONSE and invoke it. If it can't find one or if it finds more than one, it returns a TRESPONSE containing an error message (messages are standardized in the domain's base response class). The goal here is to allow developers across the enterprise to just concern themselves with writing their request/response types and processor functions in the domain and not have to spend additional overhead creating handler classes which would all do exactly the same thing (pass control to a processor function). However, it seems that I still need to have defined a handler class (albeit empty, since the base handler takes care of everything) for each request/response type pair. Otherwise, the following exception is thrown when dispatching a request to the service: StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily Agatha.ServiceLayer.IRequestHandler`1[[TSFG.Domain.DTO.Actions.HelloWorldRequest, TSFG.Domain.DTO, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null]], Agatha.ServiceLayer, Version=1.0.5.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=6f21cf452a4ffa13 Is there a way that I'm not seeing to tell StructureMap and/or Agatha to always use the base handler class for all request/response type pairs? Or maybe to use Reflection.Emit to generate empty handlers in memory at application start just to satisfy the requirement? I'm not 100% familiar with these libraries and am learning as I go along, but so far my attempts at both those possible approaches have been unsuccessful. Can anybody offer some advice on solving this, or perhaps offer another approach entirely?

    Read the article

  • Which itch does a gravatar scratch?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    This is a very serious question: I've seen lots of threads here about gravatars but I couldn't find and answer to this question: what computer identification/authentication (?) problem, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Neither the Wikipedia entry nor the official website are very useful. The official website mentions a "globally unique" picture. Unique in what sense? As far as I can see it's only the hash that is unique: two persons can have two pictures looking very similar if not identical. Note that this question is not about which problems do gravatars unarguably cause (like leaking 10% of the stackoverflow.com accounts email addresses like discussed here : "gravatars can leak email adresses" ) but about which authentication (?) problems, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Is the goal just to have a cool/funny/cute icon and save bandwith by having it stored on a remote website or is there more to it, like serving a real authentication purpose which I'd be completely missing? Note that I've got nothing against them and find them rather cool, but I'm just having a hard time figuring out what their purpose is and if I should care or not about them in the webapps I'm developping.

    Read the article

  • Jquery html grab + calling a controller action using javascript (ruby on rails)

    - by Zind
    Preface: I consider myself "slightly effective" in ruby on rails, and a complete novice in javascript. Also, yes, I have installed jQuery and associated plugins instead of the default Prototype library. I am in a situation where I am pulling in a table from off-site in an iframe (which is taking care of all internal JS for me) such that when a part of the table is clicked, a td will gain the class "active." What I would like to do is take this info (I'm assuming I can get it in a string format), and pass it to a method (in my controller, I'm assuming) which will parse the html, pull out the pertinent info, and then call a creation method in the same controller with the parsed info, the end result being a new item in that table. What I have so far is javascript which I believe is correct so far: <script type="text/javascript"> var ImportInfo = function() { var info = $('td.active').html(); // call controller action which parses the given string, //checks for existence in database, and adds new row if needed } $("#Import").click(ImportInfo); </script> and, of course, a button with id="ImportLocation." I have looked at this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1334447/using-jquery-to-call-a-controller-action but am somewhat unsure as to how to call a controller action to pass the contents of the td as a string. Is this doable with the jQuery post method?

    Read the article

  • Bypass all cacheing on jQuery.autocomplete(1.02)

    - by technicalbloke
    I am using jQuery.autocomplete(1.02) on my search box and I want exact string and substring matching. I don't care (yet!) about the database load, I'm happy for it to fire off a query every keystroke and bypass the caching entirely - I just don't want anything missed. To this end I have tried setting cacheLength=1, the minimum permitted, but the autocomplete function refuses to fire off a GET request for each key up. searchbox GET_request 'a' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=a 'ar' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ar 'ars' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ars Instead, it sends the first and the third and misses the second, giving me the wrong results for 'ar' :-/ I've cleared my cache and sessions but it looks like some sort of caching is still going on. AFAIK I have no proxying going on and I'm shift-refreshing each time. It looks likely then that this behavior is from jQuery.autocomplete itself. So my questions are... A) Does this seem likely? i.e. is it a feature, or maybe a bug? B) If so is there a clean way around it?... C) If not, what autocomplete would you use instead? Naturally D) No you're just using it incorrectly you douche! is always a possibility, and indeed the one I'd prefer having spent time going down this road - assuming it comes with a link to the docs I've failed to find / read! Cheers, Roger :)

    Read the article

  • WPF 3D extrude "a bitmap"

    - by Bgnt44
    Hi, I'm looking for a way to simulate a projector in wpf 3D : i've these "in" parameters : beam shape : a black and white bitmap file beam size ( ex : 30 °) beam color beam intensity ( dimmer ) projector position (x,y,z) beam position (pan(x),tilt(y) relative to projector) First i was thinking of using light object but it seem that wpf can't do that So, now i think that i can make for each projector a polygon from my bitmap... First i need to convert the black and white bitmap to vector. Only Simple shape ( bubble, line,dot,cross ...) Is there any WPF way to do that ? Or maybe a external program file (freeware); then i need to build the polygon, with the shape of the converted bitmap , color , size , orientation in parameter. i don't know how can i defined the lenght of the beam , and if it can be infiny ... To show the beam result, i think of making a room ( floor , wall ...) and beam will end to these wall... i don't care of real light render ( dispersion ...) but the scene render has to be real time and at least 15 times / second (with probably from one to 100 projectors at the same time), information about position, angle,shape,color will be sent for each render... Well so, i need sample for that, i guess that all of these things could be useful for other people If you have sample code : Convert Bitmap to vector Extrude vectors from one point with a angle parameter until collision of a wall Set x,y position of the beam depend of the projector position Set Alpha intensity of the beam, color Maybe i'm totally wrong and WPF is not ready for that , so advise me about other way ( xna,d3D ) with sample of course ;-) Thanks you

    Read the article

  • Practical value for concurrent-request-timeout parameter

    - by Andrei
    In the Seam Reference Guide, one can find this paragraph: We can set a sensible default for the concurrent request timeout (in ms) in components.xml: <core:manager concurrent-request-timeout="500" /> However, we found that 500 ms is not nearly enough time for most of the cases we had to deal with, especially with the severe restriction seam places on conversation access. In our application we have a combination of page scoped ajax requests (triggered by various use actions), some global scoped polling notification logic (part of the header, so included in every page) and regular links that invoke actions and/or navigate to other pages. Therefore, we get the dreaded concurrent access to conversation exception way too often, even without any significant load on the site. After researching the options for quite a bit, we ended up bumping this value to several seconds (we're debating whether to bump it up to 10s), as none of the recommended solutions seemed able to solve our issue completely (even forcing a global queue for all the ajax requests would still leave us exposed to a user deciding to click a link right when one of our polling calls was in progress). And we'd much rather have the users wait for a second or two instead of getting an error page just because they clicked a link at the wrong moment. And now to the question: is there something obvious we're missing (like a way to allow concurrent access to conversations and taking care of the needed locking ourselves, for instance :)? How do people solve this problem (ajax requests mixed with user driven interaction) in seam? Disabling all the links on the page while ajax requests are in progress (as suggested by one blog page) is really not a viable option. Any other suggestions? TIA, Andrei

    Read the article

  • Zend_Feed_Reader Not supported Schema

    - by LookUp Webmaster
    Hello, I'm using Zend FW and wanted to make a feed reader. I did the following: $feed = Zend_Feed_Reader::import('feed://blog.lookup.cl/?feed=rss2'); $data = array( 'title' => $feed->getTitle(), 'link' => $feed->getLink(), 'dateModified' => $feed->getDateModified(), 'description' => $feed->getDescription(), 'language' => $feed->getLanguage(), 'entries' => array(), ); foreach ($feed as $entry) { $edata = array( 'title' => $entry->getTitle(), 'description' => $entry->getDescription(), 'dateModified' => $entry->getDateModified(), 'authors' => $entry->getAuthors(), 'link' => $entry->getLink(), 'content' => $entry->getContent() ); $data['entries'][] = $edata; } And it throws the following exception: Scheme "feed" is not supported The blog was made using Wordpress. What's wrong? If "feed it's not supported", how can I change the type of feed that Wordpress does? Thanks in advance, Take care,

    Read the article

  • Android - How to Use SQLiteDatabase.open?

    - by Edwin Lee
    Hi all, i'm trying to use SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase( "/data/data/edwin11.myapp/databases/myapp.db", null, (SQLiteDatabase.CREATE_IF_NECESSARY | SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS)); to create/open a database instead of making use of the SQLiteOpenHelper (because i want to pass in the flag SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS. However, i am getting this exception for that line of code: 04-18 09:50:03.585: ERROR/Database(3471): sqlite3_open_v2("/data/data/edwin11.myapp/databases/myapp.db", &handle, 6, NULL) failed 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): java.lang.RuntimeException: An error occured while executing doInBackground() 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at android.os.AsyncTask$3.done(AsyncTask.java:200) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerSetException(FutureTask.java:234) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:258) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:122) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:648) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:673) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1060) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): Caused by: android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: unable to open database file 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.dbopen(Native Method) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.<init>(SQLiteDatabase.java:1584) 04-18 09:50:03.665: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3471): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:638) ... Doing some testing just before that line of code (using File.isExists) shows that the file /data/data/edwin11.myapp/databases/myapp.db does not exist. Would that be the cause of the error? (Or am i just using SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase the wrong way?) Would it help if i create the file beforehand? (Shouldn't that be taken care of by the SQLiteDatabase.CREATE_IF_NECESSARY flag that i passed in?) If creating the file manually is the way to go, is it just an empty file, or do i have to write something to it? Thanks and Regards.

    Read the article

  • Is an LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package needed for some impersonation use cases?

    - by Chris Sears
    Greetings, I'm working with a vendor who has implemented some code that uses a Windows LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package (MSDN info if you're interested: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa374786(VS.85).aspx ) and I'm trying to figure out if it's necessary. As far as I can tell, the subauthentication routine and filter allow for hooking or customizing the standard LSA MSV1_0 logon event processing. The issue is that I don't understand why the vendor's product would need these capabilities. I've asked them and they said they use it to perform impersonation. The product definitely does need to do impersonation, but based on my limited win32 knowledge, they could get the functionality they need using the normal auth APIs (LsaLogonUser, ImpersonateLoggedOnUser, etc) without the subauthentication package. Furthermore, I've worked with a number of similar products that all do impersonation, and this is the only one that's used a subauthentication package. If you're wondering why I would care, a previous version of the product had a bug in the subauthentication package dll that would cause lockups or bluescreens. That makes me rather nervous and has me questioning the use of such a low-level, kernel sensitive interface. I'd like to go back to the vendor and say "There's no way you could need an LSA subauth package for impersonation - take it out", but I'm not sure I understand the use cases and possible limitations of the standard win32 authentication/impersonation APIs well enough to make that claim definitively. So, to the win32 security gurus out there, is there any reason you would need an LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package if all you were doing is impersonation? Thanks in advance for any thoughts!

    Read the article

  • IE7 issue - cannot download streamed file when Automatic prompting for file downloads is disabled

    - by Jai ganesh K
    Hi, My application is J2EE (JSP/Servlet) based. I encounter an issue when i try to open a new window (pop-up) from JSP and call a Servlet action (e.g. Streamer.do) which streams a PDF file inside that pop-up. Problem: While IE 7 - Tools - Internet Options - Security - Custom Level - Downloads - Automatic prompting for file downloads is Disabled and while pop-up window get opened, I am unable to download the file (Save/Open prompt is not comming up). In contrast, when I enable this option, I am able to download. But this option sometimes would be disabled in some environments. While testing this in Mozilla Firefox 3.0/3/5/IE6 it is working fine without any settings change. When i check it to enable i then get the Save/Open prompt to work correctly. This should be problem with IE7. Can anybody help us with Javascript or any working settings which doesnt care whether the "Automatic prompting for downloads" option in IE7 is enabled. Any help in this would be much appreciated. Regards! Jai

    Read the article

  • Correct OOP design without getters?

    - by kane77
    I recently read that getters/setters are evil and I have to say it makes sense, yet when I started learning OOP one of the first things I learned was "Encapsulate your fields" so I learned to create class give it some fields, create getters, setters for them and create constructor where I initialize these fields. And every time some other class needs to manipulate this object (or for instance display it) I pass it the object and it manipulate it using getters/setters. I can see problems with this approach. But how to do it right? For instance displaying/rendering object that is "data" class - let's say Person, that has name and date of birth. Should the class have method for displaying the object where some Renderer would be passed as an argument? Wouldn't that violate principle that class should have only one purpose (in this case store state) so it should not care about presentation of this object. Can you suggest some good resources where best practices in OOP design are presented? I'm planning to start a project in my spare time and I want it to be my learning project in correct OOP design..

    Read the article

  • Javascript :(….. Oh!! So its jquery? Now what?? I’m a C# Guy

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    Hi guys I want you to Guide me here. This other day I was working out some AJAX for my ASP.Net website and handling client side code in Java was taking the hell out of me. Then I got my hands on this Book jQuery In Action 2nd Edition and solved my problem with the help of Example code in the book. Now as I checked the contents I got an overview that whatever I had ever thought of doing can be done by this jQuery so easily and quite cleanly. I am actually pretty new to web development (say abt 4months ) and from C# world where we have cool libraries and Simple and Elegant coding style. (yeah including those generic, Ienumerable, lambadas, chained statements.. you got it…) and you know what you’re doing when writing some code. And we have so great IntelliSense to care., and above all we have everything Strongly Typed. But in Javascript everything is so messy.. . (and I don’t know why they are not properly indented.. see page source ) Now tell me what should I do, go straight with jQuery or should I first learn Javascript (like a disciplined boy…I even have a book for that too… got in gift :) …. ) I have seen Is it a good idea to learn JavaScript before learning jQuery? but remember I have already got a project on my hand…

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

    - by Bob Ralian
    I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

    Read the article

  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

    Read the article

  • How important is PhD research topic to getting a job?

    - by thornate
    EDIT: This has been closed and I realise that I may not have been specific enough with the original title. I ask two questions here: The general one (Does a PhD help get a job?) which has been asked elsewhere, and the specific one (Is it possible to get work outside of the specific research field?). Assume I've already decided going to do the phd. I'm just stressing about the research topic. Well, I'm one year out of university (Mechatronics engineering and Software Eng double bachelors), worked for a few months then got retrenched (yay economy!). It's looking less and less likely that I'll get a job worth having with the job market as it is, so I'm thinking about going back to uni to do a PhD. I figure that by the time I'm done, the job market will have improved and hopefully I'll have something on my resume that is more attractive than spending three years doing customer support for accounting software. So, my question is to people who've done PhD's. Would you say that they were worth the effort? How important is the research topic to future job-seeking success? The idea I have is a computer-sciencey/neural-networks/data-mining thing which I think is very interesting, but not a field I want to be in forever. My potential supervisor claims that employers don't care so much about the topic of the research but rather the peripheral skills that are developed through a PhD; time managment, self-restraint, planning and whatnot. How does this mesh with people's real world experience? I'd appreciate any advice before signing my life on the line for the next three years. See also: Should developers go to grad school? Best reason not to hire a PhD? How to find an entry-level job after you already have a graduate degree?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110  | Next Page >