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  • Multiple model forms with some pre-populated fields

    - by jimbocooper
    Hi! Hope somebody can help me, since I've been stuck for a while with this... I switched to another task, but now back to the fight I still can't figure out how to come out from the black hole xD The thing is as follows: Let's say I've got a product model, and then a set of Clients which have rights to submit data for the products they've been subscribed (Many to Many from Client to Product). Whenever my client is going to submit data, I need to create as many forms as products he's subscribed, and pre-populate each one of them with the "product" field as long as perform a quite simple validation (some optional fields have to be completed if it's client's first submission). I would like one form "step" for each product submission, so I've tried formWizards... but the problem is you can't pre-assign values to the forms... this can be solved afterwards when submitting, though... but not the problem that it doesn't allow validation either, so at the end of each step I can check some data before rendering next step. Then I've tried model formsets, but then there's no way to pre-populate the needed fields. I came across some django plugins, but I'm not confident yet if any of them will make it.... Did anybody has a similar problem so he can give me a ray of light? Thanks a lot in advance!! :) edit: The code I used in the formsets way is as follows: prods = Products.objects.filter(Q(start_date__lte=today) & Q(end_date__gte=today), requester=client) num = len(prods) PriceSubmissionFormSet = modelformset_factory(PriceSubmission, extra=num) formset = PriceSubmissionFormSet(queryset=PriceSubmission.objects.none())

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  • Can't get past "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error

    - by joshb
    I'm doing my first ASP.NET MVC2 project and I can't get past the "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error when trying to submit a form. I've done this in MVC1 using the ValidateInputAttribute and I've read about the breaking change in .NET 4 that requires setting the request validation mode in the web.config. Basically I'm doing exactly what is outlined in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2019843/a-potentially-dangerous-request-form-value-in-mvc-2-asp-net-4-0. Nothing's working though so I must be missing something. Here's my code: Web.config <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> <pages validateRequest="true" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration> Controller action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult Edit(Page pageToEdit) { // do stuff.... } Any ideas on what I'm doing wrong here?

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  • Business Layer Pattern on Rails? MVCL

    - by Fabiano PS
    That is a broad question, and I appreciate no short/dumb asnwers like: "Oh that is the model job, this quest is retarded (period)" PROBLEM Where I work at people created a system over 2 years for managing the manufacture process over demand in the most simplified still broad as possible, involving selling, buying, assemble, The system is coded over Ruby On Rails. The result has been changed lots of times and the result is a mess on callbacks (some are called several times), 200+ models, and fat controllers: Total bad. The QUESTION is, if there is a gem, or pattern designed to handle Rails large app logic? The logic whould be able to fully talk to models (whose only concern would be data format handling and validation) What I EXPECT is to reduce complexity from various controllers, and hard to track callbacks into files with the responsibility to handle a business operation logic. In some cases there is the need to wait for a response, in others, only validation of the input is enough and a bg process would take place. ie: -- Sell some products (need to wait the operation to finish) 1. Set a View able to get the products input 2. Controller gets the product list inputed by employee and call the logic Logic::ExecuteWithResponse('sell', 'products', :prods => @product_list_with_qtt, :when => @date, :employee => current_user() ) This Logic would handle buying order, assemble order, machine schedule, warehouse reservation, and others

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  • Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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  • How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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  • Programmatically Add Controls to WPF Form

    - by user210757
    I am trying to add controls to a UserControl dynamically (programatically). I get a generic List of objects from my Business Layer (retrieved from the database), and for each object, I want to add a Label, and a TextBox to the WPF UserControl and set the Position and widths to make look nice, and hopefully take advantage of the WPF Validation capabilities. This is something that would be easy in Windows Forms programming but I'm new to WPF. How do I do this (see comments for questions) Say this is my object: public class Field { public string Name { get; set; } public int Length { get; set; } public bool Required { get; set; } } Then in my WPF UserControl, I'm trying to create a Label and TextBox for each object: public void createControls() { List<Field> fields = businessObj.getFields(); Label label = null; TextBox textbox = null; foreach (Field field in fields) { label = new TextBox(); // HOW TO set text, x and y (margin), width, validation based upon object? // i have tried this without luck: // Binding b = new Binding("Name"); // BindingOperations.SetBinding(label, Label.ContentProperty, b); MyGrid.Children.Add(label); textbox = new TextBox(); // ??? MyGrid.Children.Add(textbox); } // databind? this.DataContext = fields; }

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  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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  • Loading one page inside another

    - by Robin I Knight
    User 'Citizen' provided an answer to the iframe situation with the ajax script from dynamic drive. As I predicted it although it loads one page inside another it does not work with the calculation scripts, collapsible panels, validation form. All of it simply not working. I have set up a test page that has the exact same HEAD section as the page that is loaded inside it, so it is not s problem of script location. Take a look and see if you can tell me what is going on. Baring in mind this is just a test page. On the test page the entire page is loaded from another and as you can see all the collapsible panels are open, all calculations except the duration are not working because another file that is loaded by ajax on the original page is not loading in this one, the accordion menu us not working and the validation form is not validating. It is as if all script triggers have been removed and left behind but like I said the HEAD section of the parent page contains all of the scripts as well. Any ideas http://www.divethegap.com/scuba-diving-programmes-dive-the-gap/programme-pages/dahab-divemaster/test.php

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 DataAnnotations not catching error

    - by Paul Connolly
    Can somebody help me to figure out why DataAnnotations will not work with my MVC2 project in VS 2008 SP1? Here's the situation.. I uninstalled VS2008 and MVC1, then reinstalled VS2008 SP1 and .NET 3.5 SP1 and MVC2. Now when I create a clean project as soon as it has to hit the DataAnnotations Dll (e.g. say when I go to Register.aspx it fails at the first "LabelFor" that it encounters. I can overcome this by changing the "Copy Local" property of the dll to True but this then creates a conflict with the same dll in the Tests project. If then I delete the test project and try agan, it runs but does not catch any validation failures. I have gone right back to basics and followed the step by step ScottGu Datavalidation tutorial at : http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2010/01/15/asp-net-mvc-2-model-validation.aspx And at the "Et viola" bit where we usually go "Whoa! cool!" I say "It never caught!". Any Ideas?

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  • CakePHP: email validate action doesn't work when clicking on the email link

    - by bakerjr
    Hi, We've created the email validation part of our site. We built the site using CakePHP BTW. The problem is that it doesn't work when we click on the link in the email. The email is sent as plain text. A weird thing is that when we paste the link on the address bar, it works. Also when clicking on the link using Gmail and desktop email clients, it works as well. Other email providers doesn't work. EDIT: Additional info: Example link for the validation: http://localhost/users/validate/validatecodeblah12c023 When it's working it should login the user and redirect to the user dashboard. It goes to the front page when it's not working (see description above). Additional info 2: I did compare the results using Live HTTP headers and I found out that the only time it doesn't push through (goes to the login page for some reason) is when there's a 'Referrer: h ttp://mail.yahooblahblah...' Gmail for some reason doesn't have a 'Referer' line in it's headers.

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  • Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

    - by paulland
    I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Calling jquery function from ascx not working

    - by Metju
    Hi Guys, I'm having a problem with the following situation. I have an ascx which contains a submit button for a search criteria and I am trying to call a validation function in a js file I've used throughout the site (this is the first time I'm using it in an ascx). Now I've just tried this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jsAdmin_Generic_SystemValidation.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".submitBtn").click(function (e) { alert("test"); alert($.Validate()); alert("test 2"); }); }); </script> The file is being referenced correctly as I am already seeing posts in Firebug that are done by it. This is the function: jQuery.extend({ Validate: function () { does validation... }); Now at first I was getting "Validate() is not a function" in firebug. Since I did that alert testing, I am getting the first alert, then nothing with no errors. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks

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  • How to get TinyMCE and Jquery validate to work together?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery validate and the jquery version of tinymce. I found this piece of code that makes tinymce to validate itself every time something changes in it. Hi I am using the jquery validate with my jquery tinymce so I have this in my code // update validation status on change onchange_callback: function (editor) { tinyMCE.triggerSave(); $("#" + editor.id).valid(); }, This works however there is one problem. If a user copies something from word it brings all that junk styling with it what is usually over 50,000 characters. This is way over my amount of characters a user is allowed to type in. So my jquery validation method goes off telling me that they went over the limit. In the mean time though tinymce has cleaned up that mess and it could be possible now the user has not gone over the limit. Yet the message is still there. So is there a better function call I can put this in? Maybe tell tinymce to delay the valid when a paste is happening, or maybe a different callback? Anyone got any ideas?

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  • jQuery validate and tabs

    - by ntan
    Hi i am using jQuery validate for my form validation. The form is inside tabs.When i get an error i add an icon to the tab that error exist to be visual by the user So far so good. My problem is that after correct the error i can not remove the error in tab icon. I was assuming that validator is accessible via success but its not Assuming that the first tab (tab0) has 3 field for validation (field1,field2,field3) Here is the full code $("form#Form1") .validate({ invalidHandler: function(form, validator) { //TAB 0 if (validator.errorMap.field1 != "" && validator.errorMap.field2 != "" && validator.errorMap.field3 != "") { if ($("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").length == 0) { $("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).prepend("<img src=\"error.gif\">"); } } }, errorClass: "errorField", errorElement: "p", errorPlacement: function(error, element) { var parent = element.parent(); parent.addClass("error"); error.prependTo( parent ); }, //validator in not accessible via success //so my code its not working success: function(element,validator) { var parent = element.parent(); parent.removeClass("error"); $(parent).children("p.errorField").remove(); //TAB 0 if (validator.errorMap.field1 == "" && validator.errorMap.field2 == "" && validator.errorMap.field2 == "") { if ($("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").length == 0) { $("#tabs>ul>li").eq(0).find("img").remove(); } } }, rules: { field1: { required: true }, field2: { required: true }, field3: { required: true } } }); Any suggestion is welcome.

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  • Symfony dynamic forms

    - by Asier
    Hi there, I started with a form, which is made by hand because of it's complexity (it's a javascript modified form, with sortable parts, etc). The problem is that now I need to do the validation, and it's a total mess to do it from scratch in the action using the sfValidator* classes. So, I am thinking to do it using sfForm so that my form validation and error handling can be done more easier and so I can reuse this form for the Edit and Create pages. The form is something like this: <form> <input name="form[year]"/> <textarea name="form[description]"></textarea> <div class="sortable"> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][0][name]"/> <input name="form[items][0][age]"/> </div> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][1][name]"/> <input name="form[items][1][age]"/> </div> </div> </form> The thing is that the sortable part of the form can be expanded from 2 to N elements on the client side. So that it has variable items quantity which can be reordered. How can I approach this problem? Any ideas are welcome, thank you. :)

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  • How to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage via Interceptor in CXF?

    - by Michal Mech
    I have web-service created and configured via Spring and CXF. See beans below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans <!-- ommited -->> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-extension-soap.xml" /> <import resource="classpath:META-INF/cxf/cxf-servlet.xml" /> <bean id="internalActService" class="package.InternalActServiceImpl" /> <jaxws:endpoint implementor="#internalActService" address="/InternalActService"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> <jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> <bean class="package.InternalActServiceFaultOutInterceptor" /> </jaxws:outFaultInterceptors> </jaxws:endpoint> </beans> As can you see I added schema validation to my web service. But CXF throws SoapFault when request is not corresponding with schema. I want to send to the client SoapMessage instead of SoapFault, that's why I added outFaultInterceptors. My question is how to transform SoapFault to SoapMessage? I've made few tries but I don't know how to implement outFaultInterceptor.

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  • password validator using RegExp in Flex

    - by kalyaniRavi
    I have seen several examples in Flex for passowrd validator using RegExp. But every where the validation is happend for single validation. I have a requirement, like password validations like • At least one Upper case letter • At least one numeric character • At least one special character such as @, #, $, etc. • At least one Lower case letter • password lenght minimum 6 digits • password cannot be same as user name Can anyone provide me a code for this..? I have the code only for checking the password is valid or not . check the below code. MXML CODE <mx:FormItem label="Username:" x="83" y="96" width="66"> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem label="Password:" x="88" y="123" width="61"> </mx:FormItem> <mx:Button label="Login" id="btnLogin" tabIndex="2" click="login();" enabled="{formIsValid}" x="327" y="162" width="84"/> <mx:TextInput id="txtPassword" displayAsPassword="true" change="validateForm(event);" x="152" y="121" width="217"/> <mx:TextInput id="txtUserId" change="validateForm(event);" x="152" y="94" width="217"/> AS Code: private function validateForm(event:Event):void { focussedFormControl = event.target as DisplayObject; formIsValid = true; formIsEmpty = (txtUserId.text == "" && txtPassword.text == ""); validate(strVUserId); validate(strVPassword); } private function validate(validator:Validator):Boolean { var validatorSource:DisplayObject = validator.source as DisplayObject; var suppressEvents:Boolean = (validatorSource != focussedFormControl); var event:ValidationResultEvent = validator.validate(null, suppressEvents); var currentControlIsValid:Boolean = (event.type == ValidationResultEvent.VALID); formIsValid = formIsValid && currentControlIsValid; return currentControlIsValid; }

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  • How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

    - by ceptorial
    In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • Getting a lightweight installation of java eclipse.

    - by liam
    Having dealt with yet another stupid eclipse problem, I want to try to get the lightest, most minimal eclipse installation as possible. To be clear, I use eclipse for two things: - Editing Java - Debugging Java Everything else I do through emacs/zsh (editing jsp/xml/js, file management, svn check-in, etc). I have not found any aspect of working in eclipse to do these tasks to be efficient or even reliable, so I do not want plug-ins that relate to it. From the eclipse.org site, this is the lightest install of eclipse that they have, and I don't want any of those things (bugzilla, mylyn, cvs, xml_ui), and have actually had problems with each of them even though I do not use them. So what is the minimal build I can get that will: 1) Ignore svn metadata 2) Includes the full-featured editor (intellisense and type-finding) 3) Includes the full-featured debugger (standard eclipse/jdk) Does not have any extra plug-ins, platforms, or "integrations" with other platforms, specifically, I don't want to deal with plug-ins relating to: Maven, JSP Validation, Javascript editing or validation, CVS or SVN, Mylyn, Spring or Hibernate "natures", app servers like a bundled tomcat/glassfish/etc, J2EE tools, or anything of the like. I do primarily spring/hibernate/web-mvc apps, and have never dealt with an eclipse plug-in that handles any of it gracefully, I can work effectively with my own toolset, but eclipse extensions do nothing but get in the way. I have worked with plain eclipse up to Ganymede, MyEclipse (up to 7.5), and the latest version of Spring-SourceTools, and find that they are all saddled with buggy useless plug-ins (though the combination is always different). Switching to netbeans/intellij is not an option, and my teammates work with svn-controlled .class/.project files, so it pretty much has to be eclipse. Does anyone have any good advice on how I can save a few grey hairs?

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  • Associate "Code/Properties/Stuff" with Fields in C# without reflection. I am too indoctrinated by J

    - by AlexH
    I am building a library to automatically create forms for Objects in the project that I am working on. The codebase is in C#, and essentially we have a HUGE number of different objects to store information about different things. If I send these objects to the client side as JSON, it is easy enough to programatically inspect them to generate a form for all of the properties. The problem is that I want to be able to create a simple way of enforcing permissions and doing validation on the client side. It needs to be done on a field by field level. In javascript I would do this by creating a parallel object structure, which had some sort of { permissions : "someLevel", validator : someFunction } object at the nodes. With empty nodes implying free permissions and universal validation. This would let me simply iterate over the new object and the permissions object, run the check, and deal with the result. Because I am overfamilar with the hammer that is javascript, this is really the only way that I can see to deal with this problem. My first implementation thus uses reflection to let me treat objects as dictionaries, that can be programatically iterated over, and then I just have dictionaries of dictionaries of PermissionRule objects which can be compared with. Very javascripty. Very awkward. Is there some better way that I can do this? Essentially a way to associate a data set with each property, and then iterate over those properties. Or else am I Doing It Wrong?

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  • XML Catalog in Eclipse is not working

    - by svaret
    Where I work we do not have any internet connection. We still want to have validation and code completion when editing xml files. I have tried the instructions here http://www.helmers.nu/?p=276 However, I try the instructions, restarts eclipse, do reload dependencies. I still cannot get any code completion nor validation. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I have tried both with Eclipse Galileo and Helios. My catalog.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <catalog xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:entity:xmlns:xml:catalog"> <uri name="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" uri="file:///C:/dev/XMLSchemaDefinition/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"/> </catalog> My xml-file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <databaseChangeLog xmlns="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/1.9 http://www.liquibase.org/xml/ns/dbchangelog/dbchangelog-1.9.xsd"> </databaseChangeLog>

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • asp.net mvc Ajax.BeginForm clone.

    - by denis_n
    Hello, I'm using asp.net mvc ajax. The partial view is using Ajax.BeginForm (just an example): <div id="divPlaceholder"> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "divPlaceholder" })) { %> ... asp.net mvc controls and validation messages <input type="submit" value="Save" /> <% } %> </div> After update, if validation fails, the html is: <div id="divPlaceholder"> <div id="divPlaceholder"> ...form </div> </div> I don't like that the returned html is inserted, instead it should replace original div. Probably on POST I should not render <div> around form in partial view or render the div without id. What else can I do in this situation? I was thinking that maybe I should write a helper, something like Ajax.DivBeginForm, which will render form inside div on GET and hide the div on POST. Can somebody provide a good advice how to write such helper (Ajax.DivBeginForm)? I'd like it to work with using keyword: <% using (Ajax.DivBeginForm(new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "myId" })) { ... }%>

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